anaesthetics Flashcards

1
Q

Isolated fever in well patient in first 24 hours following surgery

A

physiological reaction to operation

skin commensals take 48 h

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2
Q

Pseudocholinesterase deficiency

A

abnormality in the production of plasma cholinesterases. This leads to an increased duration of action of muscle relaxants used in anaesthesia, such as suxamethonium.

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3
Q

Propofol

A

Rapid onset of anaesthesia
Pain on IV injection
Rapidly metabolised with little accumulation of metabolites
Proven anti emetic properties
Moderate myocardial depression
Widely used especially for maintaining sedation on ITU, total IV anaesthesia and for daycase surgery

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4
Q

Sodium thiopentone

A
Extremely rapid onset of action making it the agent of choice for rapid sequence of induction
Marked myocardial depression may occur
Metabolites build up quickly
Unsuitable for maintenance infusion
Little analgesic effects
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5
Q

Ketamine

A

May be used for induction of anaesthesia
Has moderate to strong analgesic properties
Produces little myocardial depression making it a suitable agent for anaesthesia in those who are haemodynamically unstable
May induce state of dissociative anaesthesia resulting in nightmares

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6
Q

Etomidate

A

Has favorable cardiac safety profile with very little haemodynamic instability
No analgesic properties
Unsuitable for maintaining sedation as prolonged (and even brief) use may result in adrenal suppression
Post operative vomiting is common

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7
Q

ASA 1,2,3,4,5,6

A

healthy, mild systemic disease/ smoker drinker, severe systemic disease (bmi over 40), disease constant threat to life, will die without op, dead but organ donor

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8
Q

Depolarizing NMJ blocker

A

Binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors resulting in persistent depolarization of the motor end plate

Succinylcholine (also known as suxamethonium)

s/e Malignant hyperthermia
Hyperkalaemia (normally transient)

The muscle relaxant of choice for rapid sequence induction for intubation

May cause fasciculations

Suxamethonium is contraindicated for patients with penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma, as suxamethonium increases intra-ocular pressure
also contraindicated in burns due to hyperkalaemia

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9
Q

Non-depolarizing nmj blocker

A

Competitive antagonist of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors

Tubcurarine, atracurium, vecuronium, pancuronium

s/e Hypotension

reversal Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. neostigmine)

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10
Q

vte prophylaxis for
elective hip replacement
elective knee replacement
hip fracture

A

28days
14 days
until pt no longer has reduced mobility

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11
Q

perforated appendicitis with pelvic and sub phrenic abscesses. He has now deteriorated further and developed deranged liver function tests.

A

marked intra-abdominal sepsis may well produce coagulopathy and the risk of portal vein thrombosis.

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12
Q

The COC should be stopped:

A

Four weeks before any major surgery (which includes operations lasting more than 30 minute), all surgery to the legs, or surgery that involves prolonged immobilization of a lower limb.
If emergency surgery or immobilization (such as for a leg fracture) is necessary.

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13
Q

Ix for anastamotic leak

A

ct abdo

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14
Q

Complications of perioperative hypothermia

A

Coagulopathy: hypothermia reduces blood’s ability to clot, causing increased intra-operative blood loss.
Prolonged recovery from anaesthesia: small decreases in body temperature can cause drastic prolongation of anaesthetic drugs, both neuromuscular blocking agents (NMBAs), propofol and inhalational agents.
Reduced wound healing: hypothermia leads to local vasoconstriction which reduces perfusion to the skin, this reduces the necessary immune moderators available at the site to promote healing.6
Infection: a combination of poorer incisional site healing and also reduced number of immune cells able to access the skin leads to a significantly increased risk of infection.
Shivering: whilst shivering appears benign in the healthy population, it can cause a significant increase in metabolic rate which can in certain patient groups even result in myocardial ischaemia.

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15
Q

G+S/xmatch before op?

A

Unlikely Group and save Hysterectomy (simple), appendicectomy, thyroidectomy, elective lower segment caesarean section, laparoscopic cholecystectomy
Likely Cross-match 2 units Salpingectomy for ruptured ectopic pregnancy, total hip replacement
Definite Cross-match 4-6 units Total gastrectomy, oophorectomy, oesophagectomy
Elective AAA repair, cystectomy, hepatectomy

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16
Q

causes of post op fever

A

Day 1-2: ‘Wind’ - Pneumonia, aspiration, pulmonary embolism
Day 3-5: ‘Water’ - Urinary tract infection (especially if the patient was catheterised)
Day 5-7: ‘Wound’ - Infection at the surgical site or abscess formation
Day 5+: ‘Walking’ - Deep vein thrombosis or pulmonary embolism
Any time: Drugs, transfusion reactions, sepsis, line contamination.

17
Q

malignant hyperthermia fx

A

condition often seen following administration of anaesthetic agents
characterised by hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity
cause by excessive release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
associated with defects in a gene on chromosome 19 encoding the ryanodine receptor, which controls Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia is inherited in an autosomal dominant fashion
neuroleptic malignant syndrome may have a similar aetiology

18
Q

tx of malignant hyperthermia

A

dantrolene iv

19
Q

local anaesthetic toxicity tx

A

due to IV or excess administration. Increased risk if liver dysfunction or low protein states. Note acidosis causes lidocaine to detach from protein binding. Local anesthetic toxicity can be treated with IV 20% lipid emulsion

Initial CNS over activity then depression as lidocaine initially blocks inhibitory pathways then blocks both inhibitory and activating pathways. Cardiac arrhythmias.

20
Q

pts on pred are give what during surgery

A

hydrocortisone (suppression of axis)

21
Q

basis of susceptibility to malignant hyperthermia

A

Most cases are genetic (mutations in the RYR1 gene, causing calcium ion release and therefore muscle rigidity and accompanying hyperthermia), and autosomal dominant.

22
Q

eating and drinking before surgery

A

clear fluids up to 2 hours before elective surgery and should consume no solid food for 6 hours before elective surgery

23
Q

mx of DIC

A

Clotting studies and a platelet count should be urgently requested and advice from a haematologist sought. Up to 4 units of FFP and 10 units of cryoprecipitate may be given whilst awaiting the results of the coagulation studies

24
Q

halothane s/e

A

hepatotoxicity

25
Q

airway for
long term intubation
day surgery
SBO Laparotomy

A

tracheostomy
LMA
et tube

26
Q

pt with AF previous CVA on warfarin. how to mx during surgery

A

stop warfarin, start tx dose LMWH