Anaesthesiology (Newest) Flashcards
The latest full definition of sepsis is as follows:
a) sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to blood
infection. Organ insufficiency is recognized on the basis of the SOFA score> 4
b) sepsis is a life threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to
infection. Organ failure is diagnosed based on a sudden change in SOFA > 2 due to infection.
c) sepsis is a life-threatening syndrome shaped by factors associated with the pathogen itself as well as factors related to the patient’s body (eg. gender, race, and other genetic factors, age, coexisting disease, environment)
d) sepsis is a life-threatening organ failure diagnosed on the basis of a change in the SOFA scale> 4
b) sepsis is a life threatening organ failure caused by an incorrect response of the body to
infection. Organ failure is diagnosed based on a sudden change in SOFA > 2 due to infection.
Patient with COPD: CO2 48 mmHg, HCO3 28 mmHg, pH 7.35
a) compensated respiratory acidosis
b) compensated respiratory alkalosis
c) compensated metabolic acidosis
d) compensated metabolic alkalosis
a) compensated respiratory acidosis
To qSOFA belong all except:
a) temperature above 38 or below 36
b) breath above 22/min
c) systolic pressure below 100
d) disturbances of consciousness 5
a) temperature above 38 or below 36
65-year old man. It shows the symptoms of cardiogenic shock. You’re connecting a Swann-Ganz catheter and do what you see.
a) Pcwp > 18, CI > 2.1
b) Pcwp < 18, CI > 2.1
c) Pcwp > 18, CI < 2.1
d) Pcwp < 18, CI < 2.1
c) Pcwp > 18, CI < 2.1
In sepsis, increased fibrin formation may impair the following:
a) Loss of vascular capillary barrier function leading to extensive swelling of
b) expandable and blood-vessel tissues and 5-stage vascular resistance
c) formation of thrombosis in incisions, perturbation disorders, organ ischemia, organ damage and development of multiple organ failure syndrome
c) formation of thrombosis in incisions, perturbation disorders, organ ischemia, organ damage and development of multiple organ failure syndrome
Pathophysiological changes observed in sepsis are:
a) vascular endothelial dysfunction leading to increased vascular permeability and extensive tissue swelling
b) hemostasis disorders, reduced energy production in the mitochondria
c) circulatory insufficiency and hypotension
d) a, b, c
d) a, b, c
The term hypoxemia means a reduced content of oxygen in arterial blood. The causes of hypoxemia may be as follows:
a) impaired blood oxygenation (low PaO2 value)
b) low Hb levels (anemia)
c) reduced availability of hemoglobin for oxygen (carbon monoxide poisoning)
d) a, b, c
d) a, b, c
Measuring the concentration of procalcitonin in patients treated in the intensive care unit is useful:
a) in the diagnosis of severe fungal infections
b) in the diagnosis of severe viral infections
c) in the diagnosis and monitoring of the treatment of thin bacterial infections
d) in the diagnosis and monitoring of treatment of severe coagulation disorders (eg disseminated intravascular coagulation)
in the diagnosis and monitoring of the treatment of thin bacterial infections
Cardiogenic shock (WK) from septic shock (WS) differs mainly:
a) Patients with cardiogenic shock have greater tachycardia
b) Patients with septic shock are more likely to have severe lactic acidosis
c) The diastolic pressure is very low in patients with cardiogenic shock
d) The septic shock patients are usually characterized by increased vasodilatation
The septic shock patients are usually characterized by increased vasodilatation
If there are difficulties in ventilating the patient and the presence of a foreign body has been ruled out, which of the following may be helpful in providing ventilation to the mask?
a) Head bending and raising the chin
b) Oral pharyngeal tube
c) nasopharyngeal tube
d) All of the above
All of the above
Indicates a false statement:
a) In systemic bacterial infections, procalcitonin is produced in all parenchymal devices and excreted into the bloodstream, which provide a high concentration.
b) In severe viral infections, procalcitonin is produced in all parenchymal vessels and excreted into the bloodstream, where it reaches a high concentration
c) outside of procalcitonin can grow after major surgery, reaching the highest values 24-48 hours after treatment. PCT returns to normal values within a few days that they do not have
d) Continuity testing
In severe viral infections, procalcitonin is produced in all parenchymal vessels and excreted into the bloodstream, where it reaches a high concentration
Treatment of life-threatening hyperkalemia includes: Magnesium IV Calcium IV IV glucose infusion with insulin Lidocaine IV
Which of the following is true:
a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 3, 4
2, 3
Which of the painkillers can be used in the treatment of postoperative pain in children?
a) Paracetamol
b) Morphine
c) acetylsalicylic acid
d) A and B
A and B
It is not true that the dose of adrenalin in the treatment of anaphylactic shock:
a) It should be given only if there is no response to an earlier intravenous GCS supply
b) In adults with spontaneous circulation, it is injected into the lateral surface of the thigh
c) It can be repeated every 5-15 minutes if there is no improvement or the blood pressure is still too low.
d) For adults with spontaneous circulation, the recommended dose is 0.5 mg
It should be given only if there is no response to an earlier intravenous GCS supply
In the course of resuscitation, the indication to be given adrenalin is:
a) Any form of cardiac arrest
b) Only asystole
c) Only VT
d) Only the PEA
Any form of cardiac arrest
The indication for defibrillation is:
a) Asystole
b) Ventricular fibrillation
c) Electrical activity without the presence of pulse on the carotid arteries, occurring in the form of tachycardia with narrow QRS syndromes
d) Any cardiac arrest, regardless of the electrical activity of the heart
Ventricular fibrillation
Recommendations for the treatment of patients with carcinogenic shock include all of the below listed EXCEPT
a) ECG and echocardiographic examinations should be performed immediately on vomiting patients suspected of having cardiogenic shock
b) ECG monitoring and invasive blood pressure monitoring are recommended
c) intravenous inotropic drug (dobutamine) may be considered to increase cardiac output
d) in the first-line treatment, in the absence of symptoms of acute inflammation, urgent administration of fluids IV (saline or Ringer’s solution, > 2000ml/15-30min) is recommended
in the first-line treatment, in the absence of symptoms of acute inflammation, urgent administration of fluids IV (saline or Ringer’s solution, > 2000ml/15-30min) is recommended
Sepsis may develop:
a) after tattooing
b) urinary tract infection (UTI)
c) from the mosquito bite
d) all of the above
all of the above
The aim of CRRT therapy (continuously renal replacement therapy) is:
a) fluid homeostasis, volumic control
b) elimination of cytokines
c) metabolism control
d) all mentioned
fluid homeostasis, volumic control
During ALS, persons performing external cardiac massage should change to ensure the best quality of pressure:
a) after each cycle of chest compressions
b) every 2 minutes
c) if the rescuer is tired
d) at the behest of the team leader
every 2 minutes
Continuous monitoring of ET CO2 during CPR (cardiopulmonary resuscitation):
a) confirms and monitors the position of the tracheal tube
b) is used only in the case of a public airway device
c) may be an indicator of the quality of CPR and ROSC
d) correct answers a and c
correct answers a and c
Adrenaline is:
a) the first-line drug in septic shock
b) during resuscitation we give 1mg IV every 2 minutes
c) by activating peripheral beta 1 receptors, it causes vasodilatation
d) has a positive inotropic, chronotropic, bathmotropic and non-tropic effect
has a positive inotropic, chronotropic, bathmotropic and non-tropic effect
In cardiac arrest in the VF/VT mechanism without heart rate monitored by the patient and witnesses
a) Precordial thump may be effective while waiting for the defibrillator to be used
b) In special cases, defibrillations may be performed in a sequence of three consecutive discharges when the defibrillator is immediately available
c) we give adrenaline after the third defibrillation
d) all correct
all correct
Amiodaron in sudden cardiac arrest.
a) we always use 300 mg iv
b) we give after 3 defibrillations
c) we use when lidocaine is not available
d) in recurrent PEA we give again after 5 defibrillations
we give after 3 defibrillations