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Liz's Microbiology Module 2 > Anaerobe Introduction > Flashcards

Anaerobe Introduction Flashcards

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1
Q

A bacterium that is able to replicate w/o O2

A

Anaerobe

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2
Q

Anaerobes often require a ____ redox potential

A

Low

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3
Q

3 types of anaerobes

A
  • Strict obligate anaerobes
  • Moderate obligate anaerobes
  • Aerotolerant anaerobes
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4
Q

3 types of aerobes

A
  • Facultative anaerobe
  • Microaerophile
  • Obligate aerobe
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5
Q

Strict obligate anaerobes

  • 2 facts about O2
  • 2 examples
A
  • Extremely sensitive; killed by O2

- Clostridium novyi, C. haemolyticum

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6
Q

Tolerate moderate exposure to O2; requires an anaerobic environment for growth

A

Moderate obligate anaerobes

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7
Q

Example of a moderate obligate anaerobe

A

Bacteroides fragilis

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8
Q

Able to tolerate exposure to O2; able to grow more slowly in presence of O2, grows best in anaerobic environment

A

Aerotolerant anaerobes

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9
Q

3 examples of aerotolerant anaerobes

A
  • Clostridium tertium
  • Clostridium carnis
  • Clostridium histolyticum
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10
Q

Grows under aerobic and anaerobic conditions; classified as an aerobe

A

Facultative anaerobes

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11
Q

2 examples of facultative anaerobes

A
  • E. coli

- Staphylococcus sp.

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12
Q

Need reduced O2 (5%) and increased CO2 for growth

A

Microaerophiles

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13
Q

Example of a microaerophile

A

Campylobacter sp

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14
Q

Requires O2 and usually don’t grow under anaerobic conditions

A

Obligate aerobes

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15
Q

2 examples of obligate aerobes

A
  • Pseudomonas spp

- Micrococcus spp

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16
Q

Where can anaerobes be found as normal flora?

A
  • Nose
  • Mouth
  • Oropharynx
  • Vagina
  • Gastrointestinal tract
  • Skin
  • Colon
  • Soil
  • Freshwater/saltwater sediments
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17
Q

In the colon, ____ outnumber facultative anaerobes 1000:1

A

Anaerobes

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18
Q

Most anaerobic infections are ____ infections caused by trauma to kin or mucus membranes

A

Endogenous

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19
Q

____ infections are usually by spore forming GPRs and often from soil or ingetsion of contaminated food

A

Exogenous

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20
Q

Infections are most often ____; containing multiple anaerobes

A

Polymicrobial

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21
Q

Factors that predispose a person to anaerobic infections

A
  • Vascular stasis
  • Human/animal bite wounds
  • Aspiration of oral contents into lungs after vomiting
  • Tooth extraction
  • Oral surgery
  • Puncture of oral cavity
  • GI tract surgery or traumatic puncture of bowel
  • Genital tract surgery or traumatic puncture of genital tract
  • Introduction of soil into a wound
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22
Q

List acceptable specimens for anaerobic cultures

A
  • Needle aspirates at active site of infection, tissue, blood (anaerobic blood culture bottle)
  • Lower respiratory specimens
  • Normally sterile body fluids
  • Stool (only for C. difficle)
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23
Q

List unacceptable specimens for anaerobic culture

A
  • Voided urine
  • Upper respiratory specimens
  • Stool (except for C. difficle)
  • Vaginal or cervical
  • Surface wounds
  • Swabs are NOT appropriate (usually)
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24
Q

Direct smear microscopic evaluation may present w/ what two signs?

A

Polymicrobial and pleomorphic

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25
Q

Characteristics of myonecrosis (gangrene)

A
  • Absence of inflammatory cells (WBCs)
  • Large GPRs
  • Gas
  • Possible spores
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26
Q

All primary plates should have these 3 requirements for anaerobes

A
  • Vitamin K
  • Hemin
  • Yeast extract
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27
Q

Prior to inoculation what should be done to media?

A
  • Stored at room temperature

- Pre-reduced (ensures redox potential stays low)

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28
Q

After inoculation, media should be stored in a holding chamber for less than ____ _____ or placed in the anaerobic chamber immediately

A

1 hour

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29
Q

List 5 reducing agents that can be added to media to maintain an anaerobic environment

A
  • Enriched thioglycollate (THIO)
  • Chopped meat
  • Serum
  • Cysteine
  • Rumen fluid
30
Q

What does PRAS stand for?

A

Pre-Reduced Anaerobically Sterilized

- Made w/ no O2 exposure and sealed in O2-free tubes

31
Q

Purpose of ABAP

A

Anaerobe blood agar plate; non-selective

32
Q

Purpose of PEA

A

Phenylethyl alcohol; anaerobe blood agar; selective; supports Gram positive

33
Q

Purpose of PV, KV, and LKV

A

Paromomycin-Vancomycin; Kanamycin-Vancomycin; and Laked Blood Vancomycin; selective isolation of Gram negative anaerobes

34
Q

Purpose of BBE

A

Bacteroides Bile Esculin; supports growth of bacteroides (selective); media turns black w/ esculin hydrolysis (differential)

35
Q

Ambient air incubation conditions

- % O2 and CO2

A

21% O2, 0.03% CO2

36
Q

CO2 incubation conditions

- % O2 and CO2

A

15-21% O2, 5-10% CO2

37
Q

Microaerophilic incubation conditions

- % O2 and CO2

A

5% O2, 10% CO2

38
Q

Anaerobic incubation conditions

- % O2 and CO2

A

0% O2, 5-10% CO2

39
Q

List 3 anaerobic systems used in lab to maintain anaerobic conditions

A
  • Anaerobic chamber (glove box)
  • Anaerobic jars
  • Anaerobic bags and pouches
40
Q

5 advantages of using an anaerobe chamber

A
  • Specimens are never exposed to O2 during set up
  • Plate is observed as often as desired
  • Incubator option
  • Large volume cultures
  • Gloves allow for O2 introduction
41
Q

4 disadvantages of using an anaerobe chamber

A
  • Cumbersome
  • Airlock
  • Space
  • Contamination
42
Q

4 anaerobe chamber requirements

A
  • Catalyst
  • Desiccant
  • Oxidation reduction indicator
  • Anaerobic gas (5% H2, 5-10% CO2, 85-95% N2)
43
Q

Removes residual O2, often composed of palladium coated aluminum pellets

A

Catalyst

44
Q

Used to absorb water; may be a silica gel

A

Desiccant

45
Q

CO2 needed for the growth of many anaerobes and inert ____ is used as filler for remaining % of anaerobic atomosphere

A

N2

46
Q

Used to verify daily that anaerobic conditions are maintained, can use indicator such as methylene blue or resazurin

A

Oxidation reduction indictator

47
Q

Useful for small labs w/ SMALL anaerobe VOLUME

A

Anaerobic jars

48
Q

Anaerobic jars must be incubated for ____ hours b/c especially susceptible

A

48 hours

49
Q

Disadvantages of anaerobic jars

A

Cannot provide all advantages of a chamber, cost analysis over time shows chamber is better, plates must be removed from jar in order to examine and process

50
Q

Advantages of anaerobic bags and pouches

A

Transport of organisms, plates can be examined w/o removal from bag

51
Q

Gas liquid chromatography

- 2 forms of extraction

A
  1. Ether extraction (most common); short chain volatile acids
  2. Chloroform extraction; organic acids non-volatile
52
Q

Media used to grow anaerobes for gas liquid chromatography

A

PYG broth (peptone yeast extract glucose)

53
Q

Aerotolerance test

  • Growth on SBA plate incubated aerobically in ambient air
  • Growth on CHOC plate incubated anaerobically in CO2
  • No growth on CDC BPA incubated anaerobically
A

Obligate aerobe

54
Q

Aerotolerance test

  • No growth on SBA plate incubated aerobically in ambient air
  • Growth on CHOC plate incubated anaerobically in CO2
  • No growth on CDC BPA incubated anaerobically
A

Capnophilic aerobe

55
Q

Aerotolerance test

  • Growth on SBA plate incubated aerobically in ambient air
  • Growth on CHOC plate incubated anaerobically in CO2
  • Growth on CDC BPA incubated anaerobically
A

Facultative anaerobe

56
Q

Aerotolerance test

  • No growth on SBA plate incubated aerobically in ambient air
  • No growth on CHOC plate incubated anaerobically in CO2
  • Growth on CDC BPA incubated anaerobically
A

Obligate anaerobe

57
Q

Which form of GLC is most commonly used, volatile vs. non-volatile

A

Volatile

58
Q

3 tests for proteolysis

A
  • Gelatin hydrolysis
  • Milk liquefaction
  • Meat digestion
59
Q

Gelatin hydrolysis

  • Positive appearance
  • Negative appearance
A
  • Pos: liquid

- Neg: solid

60
Q

Milk liquefaction

  • Positive appearance
  • Negative appearance
A
  • Pos: curds or curdling/digestion

- Neg: no change

61
Q

Meat digestion

  • Positive appearance
  • Negative appearance
A
  • Strong pos: no individual particles
  • Weak pos: some individual particles
  • Neg: undigested particles
62
Q

What media is used to anaerobic identification of biochemicals?

A

Egg yolk agar (EYA)

63
Q

What reactions take place on EYA?

A
  • Lecithinase
  • Lipase
  • Proteolysis
64
Q

Lipase

- Positive test

A
  • Pos: oil on water appearance
65
Q

Lecithinase

- Positive test

A
  • Pos: opaque appearance around colonies
66
Q

Catalase

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Pos: bubbles

- Neg: no bubbles

67
Q

Indole

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Pos: red

- Neg: no color change

68
Q

Spot indole

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Pos: color change (blue/purple)

- Neg: no color change

69
Q

Esculin

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Pos: black

- Neg: no color change

70
Q

Growth in presence of bile (20%)

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Growth: orange and turbid
  • Stimulated growth: opaque yellow
  • No growth: no change
71
Q

Urease

  • Positive test
  • Negative test
A
  • Pos: pink

- Neg: yellow

72
Q

2 newer technologies for identification of anaerobes

A
  • 16S rRNA

- MALDI-TOF

Liz's Microbiology Module 2 (11 decks)

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