An Introduction to the Microbiology of the Skin Flashcards

1
Q

• What skin microenvironments are created?

A

Elevated temperature with humidity, occluded sites (digital webs) & other factors (exposure to UV light, diet & hormonal changes)

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2
Q

• What skin factors effect microbiology?

A

Skin mostly dry – affects ability to adhere, pH, salinity, nature of lipids and immune response, antimicrobial peptides in sweat, transferrin

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3
Q

• What factors predispose niches to colonisation?

A

Local secretions, local pH, contamination from local structures, moisture

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4
Q

• What are resident and transient organisms?

A

Resident – can replicate on the skin and can persist

Transient – cannot replicate so stay for a short time

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5
Q

• What is the most common yeast commensal?

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

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6
Q

• What approach would you take to concurrent Malassezia and Staphylococcus pseudintermedius samples being found on a swab?

A

Treat

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7
Q

• What type of bacteria would you not expect to find on a routine swab?

A

Gram –ve & rods

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8
Q

• What are the common features of the Staphylococcus species?

A

Gram +ve, catalase positive, facultative anaerobes, oxidase negative, non-motile, four types of haemolysis

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9
Q

• How do you distinguish between S. aureus & S. pseudintermedius?

A

S. aureus can ferment maltose, S. pseudintermedius cannot

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10
Q

• What virulence factors to Staphylococcus species possess?

A

Coagulase, lipases, elastase, protein A inhibits opsonisation & a range of toxins

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11
Q

• With regards to treatment, what do most staphylococcus species produce?

A

β-lactamase enzyme which inactivates penicillin

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12
Q

• What do MRSP and MRSA stand for?

A

MRSP – methicillin resistant staphylococcus pseudintermedius

MRSA – methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus

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13
Q

• What are pseudomonas?

A

Rod shaped, gram –ve, aerobic, non-spore forming bacteria, associated with a wide range of opportunistic infections

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14
Q

• What are the naturally occurring defences by the skin?

A

Secretory immunoglobulin A, cell-mediated immunity, physical barrier, desquamination (constant flow of cells), poor conditions – dry & low pH, competition by normal flora

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15
Q

• What barriers help provide innate immunity?

A

Physical barrier, antimicrobial peptides, mucus, complement, phagocytic cells, lymphocytes and NK cells, mast cells, cytokines and chemokines, the development of inflammation

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16
Q

• What are the mechanisms by which microbes can avoid host detection?

A

Antigen variation, inhibition of antigen processing, inhibition of complement activation, resistance to phagocytosis, inactivation of reactive oxygen species, escape from phagolysosome, production of cytokine receptor homologues

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17
Q

• What is the result of superantigens?

A

Superantigens over active T lymphocyte by passing the normal process, activation by binding MHC and lymphocytes but not through the peptide binding cleft, this can lead to cytokine production and an inflammatory response

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18
Q

• What factors impact on the cutaneous environment?

A

Moisture/humidity, damage, normal tissue maintenance, washing, behaviour, health & physical breaches of the barrier

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19
Q

• What are the usual primary causes that result in proliferation of commensals?

A

Hypersensitivity, systemic disease, damage compromise of defences

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20
Q

• What may skin disease be due to?

A

A virulent pathogen, proliferation of normal commensals, penetration through damage of skin by commensals or pathogens, disruption of the normal skin biology allowing secondary infection

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21
Q

• What are the three general terms for infection?

A

Surface infection – colonisation of lesions on the skin surface
Superficial infection – involves sin and hair follicle epithelium
Deep infection – involves the dermis and subcutaneous tissue

22
Q

• What is a secondary infection?

A

When defences compromised by an existing condition allow further organisms that would not normally cause disease to cause infection

23
Q

• What are the most common cutaneous infections?

A

Canine – staphylococcus pseudintermedius
Feline – subcutaneous abscesses
Cattle – dermatophytosis (ringworm)
Pig – greasy pig disease (staphylococcus hyicus)
Sheep – sheep scab
Horse – Dermatophilus (mud fever)

24
Q

• What is one of the possible causes of mastitis in cattle?

A

Staphylococcus aureus

25
Q

• What is an abscess?

A

A collection of pus formed by tissue destruction in an inflamed area of a localised infection, prevents the spread of infectious material and attracts white blood cells to the site

26
Q

• What is the coagulase test?

A

Sample is added to rabbit plasma, positive samples will cause the serum to coagulate

27
Q

• What are some of the common organisms associated with mastitis?

A

Streptococcus & E. coli

28
Q

• What is the agent that causes cutaneous streptothrichosis (mud fever)?

A

Dermatophilus congolensis – gram +ve, filamentous bacterium

29
Q

• In which species is Dermatophilus most frequent?

A

Cattle, sheep, goats and horses

30
Q

• What are the two characteristic forms of Dermatophilus?

A

Filamentous hyphae and motile zoospores

31
Q

• Describe the pathogenesis or Dermatophilus

A

Zoospores attracted to sites on skin, germinate to produce hyphae which penetrate into the living epidermis causing an acute inflammatory reaction

32
Q

• What is the difference between an acute and a chronic infection of Dermatophilus?

A

Acute infections normally cease within 2-3 weeks and lesions heal spontaneously
Chronic infections affect hair follicles and scabs from which intermittent invasions on non-infected hair follicles and epidermis occurs

33
Q

• What factors are critical to the establishment of a fungal infection?

A

Exposure, critical mass of infective material, grooming effectively removes material, spores require warm humid conditions to infect, pre-existing skin conditions, immune status

34
Q

• What are the three types of Mycotic infections?

A

Superficial – skin, hair and claws
Intermediate – infections of the dermis and subcutaneous tissues
Deep – subcutaneous and systemic infections

35
Q

• What is dermatophytosis?

A

Ringworm

36
Q

• How can you distinguish between different dermatophytes?

A

Features of the conidia – the asexual, non-motile spores, normally stained with lactophenol cotton blue

37
Q

• What is the most common cause of ringworm in cattle and horses?

A

Cattle – Trichopyton verrucosum, horses – T. equinum

38
Q

• What is Microsporum gypseum?

A

A soil saprophyte – causes ringworm

39
Q

• What are the two groups of asymptomatic canine and feline carriers?

A

Culture positive dogs r oats with subtle active infections OR no active infection

40
Q

• What is the pathology of ringworm?

A

Incubation period is approximately 1 week, fungus invades anagen hairs by digestion of keratin, inflammatory response leads to folliculitis or furunculosis

41
Q

• What is the most common dermatophyte of dogs and cats?

A

Microsporum canis

42
Q

• What is the most typical yeast commensal found on healthy canine skin and mucosa?

A

Malassezia pachydermatitis

43
Q

• What are deep mycoses?

A

Infections invading deep in to the skin, may produce skin lesions secondary to systemic infections – most common deep mycoses of cats is Cryptococcus neoformans

44
Q

• What are some of the common diagnostic techniques used in dermatology?

A

Examination of coats with lens, flea combing, acetate tape prep, cytology, trichogram, skin scrapings, Wood’s lamp examination, fungal culture dermatophytes, bacterial culture, skin biopsies

45
Q

• What is the common medium used for fungal culture dermatophytes?

A

Dermatophyte test medium (DTM)

46
Q

• What is Wood’s lamp examining for?

A

Dermatophytes – 50% of M. canis strains produce metabolites following hair invasion which fluoresce (some bacteria and other chemicals will also fluoresce)

47
Q

• What is a trichogram?

A

A microscopic examination of plucked hair (hair immersed in mineral oil)

48
Q

• What is the common cattle virus that causes warts?

A

Bovine papilloma virus – five strains, BPV-type I to type V

49
Q

• What are some common dermatological viruses of dogs and cats?

A

Dogs – distemper virus, papilloma virus

Cats – pox virus, feline parapoxvirus, contagious pustular dermatitis

50
Q

• What does DTM contain?

A

Phenol red (pH indicator), cyclohexaimide (inhibits growth of other fungi) & gentamicin and cholorotetracycline (inhibits bacterial growth)

51
Q

• How does coagulase react in blood?

A

Coagulase is an enzyme produced by S. aureus that reacts with prothrombin in blood to produce staphylothrombin, which causes blood to clot by converting fibrinogen to fibrin