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Allergy/Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

What is required to be considered “high risk” for allergic disease?

A
  • Personal history OR 1˚ relative with atophy
    • Food allergy
    • Allergic rhinitis
    • Asthma
    • Eczema
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2
Q

When should solids be introduced for average risk vs high-risk allergic children?

When introducing allergenic foods, what 2 things would you advise parents to do?

A
  • Average risk = 6 months
  • High-risk = 4-6 months

Introducing Allergenic foods

  1. ​Introduce one at a time, without unnessary delay between each food (1-2 days)
  2. If well tolerated, offer it a few times a week to maintain tolerance
  3. If adverse reaction observed, consult with PCP about next steps or if signs of anaphylaxis go to ED.
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3
Q

List 5 common food allergens

A
  1. Cow’s milk
  2. Egg
  3. Peanuts
  4. Tree nuts
  5. Fish
  6. Shellfish
  7. Wheat
  8. Soy
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4
Q

What type of immunodeficiencies present with sinopulmonary infections?

A
  1. B cell defects (ie. IgA deficiency, CVID, Agammaglobulinemia)
  2. T cell defects (ie. SCID, DiGeorge, Ataxia-Telangiectasia, APECED)

Other DDx:

  1. Primary ciliary dyskinesia
  2. BPD/CLD
  3. Cystic fibrosis
  4. Anatomic defect (ie. CCAM)
  5. Allergic rhinitis
  6. Social factors (ie. smoking, daycare, older siblings, etc)
  7. Secondary immunodeficiency (ie. immunosuppression, nephrotic syndrome, protein losing enteropathy, HIV, malnutrition, T21, malignancy)
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5
Q

List 4 immunocompromised medical conditons

A
  1. Post-HSCT (within 2y or still taking immunosuppressive drugs)
  2. Solid-organ transplant (lung, heart, kidney, liver, pancreas)
  3. Malignancy: current or recently treated
  4. Aplastic anemia
  5. Asplenia/functional asplenia
  6. HIV (CD4 <5yo: <15%; ≥5yo: <200)
  7. SCID
  8. Taking the following medications
    • Chemotherapy
    • High-dose corticosteroids (>2mg/kg for ≥2wks)
    • Biologics
    • Antimetabolites (e.g. azathioprine)
    • Transplant-related immunosuppressive drugs (e.g. cyclosporine, tacrolimus, sirolimus, MMF)
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6
Q

Which 2 organisms are asplenic individuals at increased risk of contracting?

Which vaccine preventable organisms?

Which 3 viruses is an immunocompromised individual at highest risk of contracting?

A
  1. Salmonella
  2. Capnocytophaga
  3. (also malaria)

Vaccine preventable:

  1. Strep pneumo (PCV13, PPV23)
  2. Neisseria meningitidis (Menactra ACYW, Bexsero Men B)
  3. H. influenza

Viruses

  1. Adenovirus
  2. RSV
  3. Influenza
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7
Q

What is the general work up for Immunodeficiencies?

A

General screening lab work for immune deficiency:

  1. CBC with differential –> To evaluate for quantitative deficiency (ex. Lymphopenia, etc)
  2. Lymphocyte subsets
    • CD3 T cells
    • CD4 T cells
    • CD8 T cells
    • B cells
    • NK Cells
  3. Immunoglobulin levels
    • IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE
  4. Vaccination response:
    • Tetanus, diphtheria, pneumococcal
  5. CH50 –> For complement disorders
  6. Neutrophil Oxidative Burst Index (NOBI) or Nitroblue test –> for CGD
  7. C1 esterase inhibitor –> for Hereditary angioedema
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8
Q

What are the categories of Immunodeficiencies? Give examples.

How do they present?

A
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9
Q

What type of immune deficiency presents with recurrent lymphadenitis, bacterial abscesses, recurrent osteomyelitis (usually staph aureus), and Crohn’s like illness?

A

Chronic Granulomatous Disease

  • Phagocytic defect (neutrophils can’t breakdown catalase-positive organisms)
  • X-linked recessive
  • Diagnosis: Nitroblue tetrazolium dye test, dihydrohodamine test
  • Treatment (IgG, abscess drainage and HSCT = definitive)
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10
Q

What type of immunodeficiency presents with angioedema, recurrent pyogenic infections with encapsulated organisms (esp Neisseria), autoimmune disease (ie. SLE) and chronic nephritis?

A

Complement deficiencies

  • Classical complement deficiencies = Presents with recurrent infections with encapsulated infections
  • Terminal complement deficiencies = recurrent systemic infections with Neisseria gonorrhea or meningitides
  • autoimmune manifestations like lupus or atypical HUS
  • angioedema (specific to C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency)

Diagnosis = CH50 to assess classical complement pathway

  • C1 esterase if angioedema

Treatment = vaccination, can replace specific complement (ie. recombinant C1 esterase, FFP), HSCT

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11
Q

What is the presentation for CVID?

A

CVID (Common Variable Immunodeficiency)

  • Defect in humoral deficiency due to multiple genetic causes
  • Clinical Presentation
    • Recurrent sinopulmonary infections with variable onset (>2 years old)
    • Gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms:
      • Diarrhea, malabsorption, steatorrhea, protein-losing enteropathy
      • Giardia infection
      • Bacterial overgrowth
    • Increased risk of autoimmune disorders (e.g., rheumatoid arthritis)
    • Some may present with malignancies (e.g., lymphoma) without having frequent infections
  • Diagnosis and Evaluation
    • Low IgG and either low IgA or low IgM
    • Normal lymphocyte subsets
    • Poor responses to vaccines
      • Low anti-pneumococcal titres
      • Low anti-tetanus/diphtheria titres
  • Treatment
    • Immunoglobulin replacement therapy
    • Immunosuppressive medications if autoimmune manifestations are present
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12
Q

What are clinical findings of acute GVHD?

A

Within 3 months of transplant
Skin (rash), GI (anorexia, D&V), liver (transaminitis, hyperbili)
Prevent with immunosuppression (cyclosporine, tacrolimus), treat with steroids

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13
Q

What are clinical findings of chronic GVHD?

A

Occurs more then 3 months post transplant
Skin (malar rash, sica syndrome), MSK (arthritis, joint contractures), lung (bronchiolitis obliterans), liver (cholestasis, bile duct degeneration), eyes (dry eyes, conjunctivitis)

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14
Q
  1. An 18 month old boy has had 3 pneumonias, 2 episodes of OM and now presents with purulent nasal
    discharge. On examination he has a tender 1x1.5cm cervical node with overlying redness. His mother
    states that he had an episode of varicella a month ago that was fairly typical in course. Which of the
    following investigations will most likely lead to the diagnosis:

Concept: findings of primary immune deficiency

A

c. Immunoglobulins

PID: recurrent sinopulmonary infections suspicious for innate issues (complement defect), adaptive immunity (B cell defect).

Ix: B cells: look at immunoglobulins and antibody titres
- complement (C3, C4, CH50)
ALSO, CVID and ataxia-telangiectasia both present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and low immunoglobulins

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15
Q
  1. Which allergy can be treated with immunotherapy:
A

b) bee sting allergy

Allergies that respond to immunotherapy:

  • seasonal or perennial allergic rhinoconjunctivitis
  • asthma triggered by allergen exposures
  • insect venom sensitivity
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16
Q
  1. IVIG can be used in all of the following EXCEPT:
A

c) nephrotic syndrome

Can be used in: ITP, bone marrow transplant (patients exposed to measles), KD, Guillain-Barre

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17
Q
  1. A child has received IVIG in the course of their treatment. How long should you wait before giving
    them vaccines to ensure adequate response:
A

d. 11 mo

Varies between 3-11 months depending on product and dose used

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18
Q
  1. Which is true regarding RAST:

Concept: comparison of RAST to skin testing

A

d. false positives in children with hyper-IgE states

RAST = testing for allergen specific IgE (now more commonly called allergy specific IgE or sIgE test)

some facts: less sensitive than skin testing, not preferred method for food allergies (skin testing is), BUT not affected by corticosteroids or antihistamines, while skin testing is (neither are affected by montelukast)

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19
Q

13mo child with diaper rash and diarrhea with the introduction of new foods over the
past couple months. Which of the following is most consistent with this presentation:

A

c. carbohydrate intolerance is a common cause

  • Sucrase-Isomaltase Deficiency- high amongst Canadian natives- when feeding milk and lactose- no symptoms- once exposed to sucrose and starches (juice, fruits,
    crackers, other starches) develop diarrhea, diaper rash, FTT, abdominal distensionavoid
    sucrose and maltose- Rx sacrosidase (Sucraid)
  • no role for RAST in diagnosis because this is only good for suspected IgE mediated CMPI
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20
Q
  1. 5 year old had a severe reaction to peanut at 1 year of age. He also has asthma. Now, allergist has
    ordered an IgE level for peanut. Mom is wondering why. What do you tell them?
A

d. it prevents systemic reactions that could result from the skin test

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21
Q

Kid to have RAST for possible peanut allergy: 2 advantages over skin test; 1 disadvantage compared to
skin test.

A

advantages:
● Better safety
● Results are not influenced by skin disease or medications
disadvantages:
● less sensitive

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22
Q
  1. Recurrent meningococcal meningitis. Most common immunodeficiency is:
A

a. C5 deficiency

Consider complement deficiency if:
o Recurrent angioedema
o Autoimmune disease (SLE, nephritis, HUS, partial lipdystrophy) - C1, C3, C4
o Recurrent pyogenic infections
o Disseminated meningococcal or gonococcal infection - C5-9
o 2 episodes of bacteremia - C2
o Meningitis with uncommon serotype (other than A, B or C)

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23
Q
  1. You suspect a 6 year old of having a T-cell defect. The best screen is:
A

c. Candida skin test
Screening tests for T cell defect: lymphocyte count, CXR for thymus size, delayed skin tests (candida, tetanus toxoid)

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24
Q
  1. Deficiency of which of the following may lead to anaphylaxis in a patient given IVIG:
A

a. IgA

44% have antibodies to IgA (which if they are IgE mediated can cause anaphylaxis to blood products including IVIG)

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25
Q
  1. In which condition is the IgE level normal, low or high?
A

Normal:
- immune thrombocytopenic purpura

Low:
- selective IgA deficiency

High:

  • Wiskott-Aldrich
  • Kawasaki
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26
Q
  1. A 6 year old presents with eczema, decreased platelets and recurrent OM and
    pneumonias. Increased IgA and IgE. Decreased IgG. Your diagnosis is:
A

a. Wiskott-Aldrich

It’s a TIE! (TCP, immunodeficiency, eczema)
- Low T cell percentages
- treat with IVIG, killed vaccines, BMT curative
Mnemonic: IgG&M low, IgA&E high - it’s a tie

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27
Q
  1. 3 year old with a history of fevers. Occur every 4 to 12 weeks for 1-4 days. Growing well. Treated for
    numerous otitis and pharyngitis.
A

A) multiple viral infections

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28
Q
  1. A 15-year-old boy has had 5 episodes of documented pneumonia, 3 RML, 1 RLL, and 1 LLL.
    What investigation would be most helpful:
A

a) immunoglobulins with IgG subclasses

X-linked agammaglobulinemia versus CVID: first have small or no tonsils and lymph nodes, second have normal tonsils and nodes

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29
Q
  1. What is true about chronic granulomatous disease:
A

b) suppurative lymphadenopathy is a characteristic feature

Normal number of neutrophils but abnormal function (can eat catalase producing bugs but not kill them)
- features include pneumonia, lymphadenitis, abscesses, onset in infancy
- infections with staph, gram negative enterics, candida, aspergillus
Dx: flow cytometry and genetic testing (used to use nitroblue tetrazolium)

30
Q
  1. In chronic granulomatous disease, all of the following features are present EXCEPT:
A

e) hypogammaglobulinemia - no, can have hypergammaglobulinemia

31
Q
  1. A 6mos male has several abscesses (S. aureus) now and in the past. He has also had recurrent
    respiratory infections and Serratia UTI. Now has butt abscess. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A

c. CGD

Common bugs of CGD:

  • staph aureus most common
  • serratia marcescens
  • B cepacia
  • aspergillus
  • candida albicans
  • nocardia
  • salmonella
  • mycobacterium
32
Q
  1. Which of the following is true in Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome?
A

d) increased risk of malignancy

33
Q

Which immune deficiencies are associated with increased risk of leukaemia and lymphoma?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich, SCID, CVID, X-linked lymphoproliferative syndrome - all are associated with defects in immune surveillance

34
Q
  1. Which of the following is true of patients with X-linked agammaglobulinemia?
A

b. should not get live vaccines

All immunoglobulins are low; they have no circulating B cells

35
Q
  1. Which lab abnormality is seen in Ataxia-telangiectasia? (which immunoglobulin is decreased?)
A

a. decreased IgA (selective absence of IgA in 50-80% of patients), IgE and IgG can also be low

36
Q
  1. 18 mo M with knee arthritis, aspirate grew N. meningitidis. This is the same organism that grew in his
    CSF when he had meningitis at 10 months. Which of the following tests is most likely to be abnormal in
    this child?
A

b. C3,C4, total hemolytic complement

C3, C4 - assesses number
CH50 - assesses classical pathway function
AH50 - assesses alternate pathway function

37
Q
  1. A 4 month old baby presents with eczema, recurrent pneumonias and absent thymus shadow on
    CXR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A

a) SCID

All SCIDs lack T cells, some also have no B or NK cells

  • lack all Ig classes and subclasses
  • extreme susceptibility to bacterial, viral and parasitic infections
  • DO NOT give live vaccines
38
Q
  1. What is true for X linked agammaglobulinemia?
    a. respond to protein antigens (no they do not)
    b. no live vaccines
    c. at risk for PCP (rare)
    d. risk of lymphoma, LIP (no lymph tissue)
    e. risk of EBV associated diseases (EBV infect B cell thus immune)
A

b. no live vaccines

39
Q

S. aureus. What finding would confirm your diagnosis?

a. absent radius
b. no LNs/tonsils
c. draining ears
d. hypoplastic patellae

A

c. draining ears

(Wiskott-Aldrich)

40
Q

Patients with hyperIgE syndrome are classically infected with which bacteria:

A

● Recurrent severe staphylococcal abscesses of skin, lungs, other + elevated serum IgE

41
Q

10 year old Lebanese girl with recurrent self limited fevers and abdominal pains. Her albumin is low, and her AST and ALT are slightly elevated (ie: 60-80 range). The remainder of investigations are negative (they don’t tell you what those investigations are!). What is the most likely
diagnosis?
a. Familial Mediterranean Fever
b. SLE
c. Cyclic Neutropenia

A

a. Familial Mediterranean Fever (more in keeping w/ abdo pain + fever)
- fever for 1-2 days every 1-2 months + serositis, arthritis, erysipeloid rash (over dorsum of foot)

o ESR, CRP, fibrinogen, serum AA (amyloid A) often increased

42
Q

What are some diagnostic criteria for SLE?

A

SOAP BRAIN MD
serositis (pleuritis, pericarditis)
oral ulcers
arthritis
photosensitivity
blood low (anemia, TCP, leukopenia)
renal - protein loss
ANA positive
Immune markers (dsDNA) positive
Neuro (psych, seizures)
Malar or discoid rash

43
Q

1.You are seeing a 14 month old boy with a history of severe atopic dermatitis and frequent infections.
On his CBC you find that he has a platelet count of 80.
What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome

44
Q
  1. After how many invasive infections would you be concerned about an immunodeficiency?
A

Nelson’s- 1 o r more systemic (sepsis, meningitis) bacterial infections; 2 or more serious or
documented bacterial infections in 1 year.

45
Q

b.) List 4 investigations for work-up of a patient with suspected immunodeficiency

A
  1. CBC + Diff
  2. Immunoglobulins
  3. Vaccine Titres
  4. Flow cytometry

Note:

  • normal ESR rules out chronic bacterial or fungal infection
  • normal neuts rules out congenital and acquired neutropenias and leukocyte adhesion defects
  • normal lymphs rules out severe T cell defect
  • normal platelet size and count rules out Wiskott
46
Q

6 week old baby with erythema and induration around his umbilical cord which is still firmly attached.
What underlying condition should you be suspicious of?

A

LAD I – (Leukocyte Adhesion defect type I)

  • recurrent bacterial and fungal infections, despite lots of neutrophils
  • note: more than 3 weeks is considered delayed separation of umbilical cord,but 10% of normal infants take >3 weeks
  • diagnosis: flow cytometry
47
Q

Name two organ systems and two organisms that are typically affected by granulocyte defects.

A

Skin (skin & soft tissue infections) and lungs (pneumonia)
Staphylococcus spp, Serratia marcescens , Klebsiella spp, other Gram negative organisms

(Granulocytes are the precursor to neutrophils, eosinophils & basophils)

48
Q

Kid has had several infections. What other 4 findings would suggest immunodeficiency?

A

Failure to thrive
Family history of primary immune deficiency
Need for IV antibiotics to clear infections
Two or more months on antibiotics with little effect
Persistent thrush

49
Q

Description of a child who is having multiple episodes of otitis media and pneumonia. Lab results given
are IgG 8(normal), IgM normal and IgA 0.01(decreased). What important piece of advice would you warn
this child about? (and what do they have?)

A

Selective IgA deficiency

Anaphylaxis to blood transfusions → Serum antibodies to IgA are reported in as many as 44%
of patients with selective IgA deficiency

50
Q
  1. Which is true regarding allergic rhinitis:
    a. indoor mould is not a trigger
    b. long term follow up shows that symptoms persist into adulthood
    c. these children go on to develop asthma
    d. ingested substances are more significant than inhaled substances in perennial rhinitis
    e. it always starts less than 5 years of age
A

b. long term follow up shows that symptoms persist into adulthood

o Rare if <1 year (need two seasons of exposure)

51
Q
  1. The best therapy for perennial allergic rhinitis:
    a) avoid exposure to allergens
    b) intranasal corticosteroids
    c) oral antihistamines
    d) oral corticosteroids
    e) sodium cromolyn
A

a) avoid exposure to allergens
Nasal steroids also very effective

52
Q
  1. Boy with runny nose and itchy eyes in summertime. List 3 signs on physical exam that you’d see with this diagnosis.
    b. ) Initial treatment x1
A

Allergic rhinitis

  1. allergic shiners
  2. nasal crease
  3. pale boggy nasal turbinates

Also:
allergic conjunctivitis
dry skin (xerosis)
keratosis pilaris

Tx: avoidance of trigger, antihistamines, inhaled steroids

53
Q

Name 2 advantages of second generation anti-histamines

A

● Typically lipophobic – therefore less likely to have CNS effects
o i.e. less sedation, better school outcomes in children
● Quick onset of action (w/in 1 hr) and peak levels w/in 2-3 hrs
● Longer acting and less frequency

54
Q

6 year old Mom concerned about chronic nasal congestions. What 4 things on history would suggest
allergic rhinitis? 3 Physical finding which support allergic rhinitis.

A

Hx: ● Seasonal appearance of symptoms
● Specific environmental triggers
● Positive family history - risk of allergic disease in a child approaches 50% when one parent is allergic and 66% when both parents are allergic.
● History of particular maneuvers: rubbing eyes, nose, allergic cluck

PE:
● Nasal crease
● Pale to purple/blue mucosa
● Thin, clear nasal secretions
● Cheilitis or dry lips → mouth breathing
Allergic shiners

55
Q
  1. A child is brought to the emergency room after being stung by a bee. He is wheezing
    and moderately tachypneic and tachycardic. BP=100/70. First step in management:
    a. 0.01mg/kg SC epinephrine
    b. 0.01 mg/kg IV epinephrine
    c. oxygen
    d. methylprednisolone
    e. Benadryl
A

c. oxygen
Definitely to also need to give epi but IM
O2 should be given to all patients with suspected anaphylaxis

56
Q
  1. A child who is known to be allergic to peanuts presents to emergency after having eaten some 30
    minutes ago. He is very itchy and has hives all over his body. His vitals including BP are stable and
    there is no wheezing. Which of the following is correct?
    a) IV epinephrine would be the preferred medication
    b) Benadryl can be given IV, IM or PO
    c) ventolin and Pulmicort should be administered
    d) hydrocortisone does not prevent the late onset effects
    e) desensitization therapy should be undertaken
A

b) Benadryl can be given IV, IM or PO

57
Q

a possible anaphylactic reaction. Where will you give it:

a. SC in the abdomen
b. IM
c. SC in the thigh
d. IV

A

b. IM

58
Q
  1. Child with signs of anaphylaxis after the transition to cow milk formula.
    a) Most important medication in the immediate management and route?
    b) When can the patient go home (i.e. how long does she need to be observed)?
    c) List 4 preventative recommendations for the non acute management.
A

a) IM Epinephrine
b) More than 90% of biphasic responses occur within 4 hr, so patients should be observed
for at least 4 hr before being discharged from the ED.
c) 1. Allergen avoidance
2. Education of symptoms of anaphylaxis
3. Carrying epinephrine (an EpiPen)
4. Written emergency plan should be prepared ( www.foodallergy.org )

59
Q
    1. Kid ate Chinese food at birthday party. Since then has had 2 weeks of angioedema, urticaria.
      Rx? (and diagnosis?)
A

b. Antihistamine (second generation like cetirizine best option)
If H1 antihistamine does not achieve sufficient control, then can add H2 blocker (ranitidine)
Prednisone for severe angioedema or unresponsive to H1 and H2 blockers

acute urticaria (<6 weeks) - wheals or angioedema

60
Q

Causes of acute urticaria?

A

● Acute < 6 weeks
o Food
o Meds
o Insect Stings
o Infection
o Contact allergy
o Transfusion Reaction

61
Q

Causes of chronic urticaria?

A

● Chronic > 6 weeks
o Idiopathic (2/3 of cases)
o Physical (1/3 of cases)
o AI (Thyroid, JIA, SLE, Celiac etc.)
o Periodic fever syndromes
o Neoplastic

62
Q

Differential diagnosis of urticaria? (important stuff not to miss)

A

● KEY DDX: Erythema Multiforme (targetoid, central necrosis or vesicles, duration> 7 d on palms
and soles ++, no dermographism, MM can be involved)
● Key DDX: utrticaria pigmentosa (type of mastocytosis; reddish brown macules that may wheal
when stroked)

63
Q
  1. Child has recurrent episodes of face and ear swelling. Father has a similar history. This has stopped
    in the past four weeks as he has stopped drinking milk and eating cheese. He still eats ice cream. The
    rash is not itchy. What is the diagnosis?
    a) acute intermittent urticarial (just means < 6 weeks and NYD)
    b) chronic urticarial (just means > 6 weeks)
    c) cow’s milk protein allergy ( but has ice cream)
    d) C1 esterase deficiency
A

d) C1 esterase deficiency (aka hereditary angioedema)

C1 esterase inhibits the complement system to prevent spontaneous activation -without it get complement activation and leaky blood vessels causing edema

Tx: replace C1 esterase

64
Q
  1. Which is true regarding penicillin anaphylaxis
    a. it is mediated by IgG against a major determinant
    b. it is mediated by IgG against a minor determinant
    c. it is mediated by IgE against a minor determinant
    d. it is mediated by IgE against a major determinant
    e. it is mediated by IgM against a major determinant
A

d. it is mediated by IgE against a major determinant

65
Q
  1. 13 month old with diarrhea and diaper rash what is cause?
    a. cow milk protein allergy
    b. carbohydrate intolerance
    c. immunodeficiency
A

b. carbohydrate intolerance

66
Q

Investigations for carbohydrate malabsorption (12 month old with diarrhea and diaper rash)

A

● TESTING
o Maldigested carb emptied into colon = osmotic effect
o + colonic bacteria ferment these carb= gas + acids
o Testing therefore = stool pH < 5.5, hydrogen breath test (+)

67
Q
  1. Picture of a 7 year old boy’s thigh, linear vesicles with some excoriation. He comes to your office, in
    July, with a rash on his left thigh, It is itchy and has seemed to spread where he scratches.
    a)What is your diagnosis
    b)what is your treatment
A

● Washing the skin and other items that may have come in contact with the plant
● If patient develops skin lesions, systemic antihistamines are usually needed.
● Mild to moderate strength (class 7 to 4) topical steroids are appropriate.
● Topical pramoxine (an antihistamine) is safe and can be used over large areas of the body 2–3
times a day
● If lesions are more extensive, systemic steroid therapy for 2 weeks at a beginning dose of
0.5–1.0 mg/kg, followed by a rapid taper over the subsequent 2 weeks.

68
Q
  1. Neutropenic child with central line site red.
    Which antibiotics?
A

● Anti-pseudomonal beta-lactam: cefepime, ceftazidime, meropenem or pip-tazo
● Anti staph: vancomycin

69
Q

A mother has come in with her 12 month old, and is concerned by the “number of shots” that is getting
today. She has read in the paper about how is it bad to expose a child to a large number of “antigens” all
at once, and is worried about overwhelming his immune system. What advice can you give to help
alleviate this motherʼs worries? (2 points)

A

● Children are often exposed to more antigens from routine daily activities as compared to the routine vaccine schedule
● Few are aware of Canada’s robust vaccine safety system or that vaccines are held to a higher
safety standard than drugs.

70
Q

What are THREE indications for giving the conjugated quadrivalent vaccine for meningococcus?

A

Risk increased because of underlying medical conditions
● Asplenia or functional asplenia, including those with sickle cell anemia
● Properdin, factor D or complement deficiency (including those with acquired complement
deficiency from eculizumab (Soliris); primary antibody deficiency)
● HIV
Risk increased because of the potential for exposure
● Travellers to endemic areas (currently, travellers to sub-Saharan Africa and Hajj pilgrims)
● Close contacts of a case of invasive meningococcal disease

RC Study Cards (23 decks)

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