All Questions Flashcards
In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two)
A. gathering of underlay infrastructure data
B. delivery of crypto keys
C. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes
D. segmentation and differentiation of traffic
E. configuration of control and data policies
B. delivery of crypto keys
C. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes
When is an external antenna used inside a building?
A. when it provides the required coverage
B. only when using 2.4 GHz
C. only when using 5 GHz
D. only when using Mobility Express
A. when it provides the required coverage
Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?
A. marking
B. policing
C. classification
D. shaping
C. classification
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two)
A. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing
B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
C. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
D. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default
E. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces
B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
C. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
The network provides client access, location-based services, and is monitored using Cisco DNA Center. The security department wants to locate and track malicious devices based on threat signatures. Which feature is required for this solution?
A. malicious rogue rules on the WLC
B. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center
C. malicious rogue rules on Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco aWIPS policies on the WLC
B. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center
Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?
A. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
B. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network
C. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
D. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
D. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch
Configuration Management
mutable infrastructure
designed to install and manage software on existing servers
Orchestration
immutable infrastructure
designed to provision the servers
In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?
A. VXLAN
B. LISP
C. SXP
D. DHCP
B. LISP
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB
B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
C. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions
D. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions
two commands ensure that a switch becomes root bridge in MST
spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096
spanning-tree mst 1 root primary
Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)
A. HMAC algorithm
B. proxy ETR
C. spoke
D. route reflector
E. egress tunnel router
B. proxy ETR
E. egress tunnel router
What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?
A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. EIRP
C. mW
Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect with LAG?
A. On
B. Passive
C. Auto
D. Active
A. On
What is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?
A. All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.
B. All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.
C. The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers.
D. Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.
B. All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.
An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?
A. WPA3 Personal
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA3 Enterprise
D. WPA2 Enterprise
A. WPA3 Personal
What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)
A. border node
B. edge node
C. core switch
D. access switch
E. vBond controller
A. border node
B. edge node
Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?
A. The network device is not configured to use NTP
B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded.
C. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.
D. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded
A. The network device is not configured to use NTP
An engineer reviews a router’s logs and discovers the following entry. What is the event’s logging severity level?
Router# *Feb 03 11:13:44 334: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up
A. informational
B. error
C. warning
D. notification
B. error
Refer to the exhibit.
Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?
A. print(response[‘result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])
B. print(response[‘result’][0][‘simple_time’]
C. print(response[result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])
D. print(response[‘body’][‘simple_time’])
A. print(response[‘result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])
An engineer is configuring a new SSID to present users with a splash page for authentication. Which WLAN Layer 3 setting must be configured to provide this functionally?
A. CCKM
B. WPA2 Policy
C. Web Policy
D. Local Policy
C. Web Policy
What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?
A. EIRP
B. dBm
C. mW
D. dBi
A. EIRP
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100mW?
A. 150dBm
B. 6dBm
C. 125dBm
D. 75dBm
B. 6dBm
When is the Design workflow used in Cisco DNA Center?
A. in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data
B. in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices
C. in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network
D. in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure
D. in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on Switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable
B. Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto
C. Change the VTP domain to match on both switches
D. Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto
C. Change the VTP domain to match on both switches
The default administrative distance is equal to 110
OSPF
It requires a process ID that is local to the router
OSPF
It uses virtual links to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a non-backbone area
OSPF
It is an Advanced Distance Vector routing protocol
EIGRP
It relies on the Diffused Update Algorithm to calculate the shortest path to a destination
EIGRP
It requires an Autonomous System number to create a routing instance for exchanging routing information
EIGRP
An engineer must configure the strongest password authentication to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used?
A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$bfjk$kdiSiDKKdkXksufZ2
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf83kdDJ9kdjDdjdu/dkfhZiz
C. username netadmin secret $1$bfjk$kdiSiDKKdkXksufZ2
D. line console 0
password $1$bfjk$k
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf83kdDJ9kdjDdjdu/dkfhZiz
Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF?
A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths
B. load balance over four equal-costs paths
C. uses interface bandwidth to determine best path
D. per-packet load balancing over multiple paths
A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths
What is one benefit of adopting a data modeling language?
A. refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations
B. augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions
C. deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices
D. augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models
A. refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations
A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECUR DOWN:
Tunnel0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing error.
Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two)
A. There is link flapping on the tunnel
B. Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel
C. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface
D. The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured
E. There is instability in the network due to route flapping
C. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface
E. There is instability in the network due to route flapping
An engineer must configure the wireless endpoints to authenticate using Active Directory credentials in an encrypted tunnel in addition to using a hashed password. Which action is required?
A.Configure EAP-TLS with GTC
B.Configure EAP-TLS with MSCHAP v2
C.Configure PEAP with MSCHAP v2
D.Configure PEAP with GTC
C. Configure PEAP with MSCHAP v2
Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt?
A.dBi
B.mW
C.dBw
D.dBm
D.dBm
Which two parameters are examples of a QoS traffic descriptor? (Choose two)
A. bandwidth
B. DSCP
C. MPLS EXP bits
D. packet size
E. ToS
B. DSCP
C. MPLS EXP bits
Which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor?
A. Microsoft Virtual PC
B. VMware server
C. Citrix XenServer
D. Oracle VM VirtualBox
C. Citrix XenServer
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilities a migrate from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer?
A. routed access
B. Layer 2 access
C. three-tier
D. two-tier
A. routed access
Which PAgP mode combination prevents an Etherchannel from forming?
A. auto/auto
B. desirable
C. desirable/desirable
D. auto/desirable
A. auto/auto
Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN?
A. vEdge
B. vBond
C. vManage
D. vSmart
C. vManage
Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment?
A. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers
B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge router
C. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric
D. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric
B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge router
Which statement about a Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN controller is true?
A. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol
B. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions
C. APIC uses an imperative model
D. APIC does support a Southbound REST API
B. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions
Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true?
A. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay
B. The access point is part of the fabric underlay
C. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay
D. The access point is part the fabric overlay
D. The access point is part the fabric overlay
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. Cisco TrustSec
B. IS-IS
C. VXLAN
D. LISP
C. VXLAN
Cisco SD-Access fabric data plane is based in wich protocol?
VXLAN
Cisco SD-Access fabric control plane is based in wich protocol?
LISP
What the role of a fusion in an SD-Access solution?
A. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services
B. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric
C. acts as a DNS server
D. provides connectivity to external networks
A. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services
How does a fabric AP fit in the network?
A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch
C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch
D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node
B. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch
In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored?
A. ARP probing
B. with IP SLA
C. with OMP
D. using BFD
D. using BFD
Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN?
A. vBond
B. vEdge
C. vSmart
D. vManage
A. vBond
In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric edge node?
A. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric
B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric
D. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network
B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric
In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings?
A. fabric edge node
B. fabric wireless controller
C. fabric control plane node
D. fabric border node
C. fabric control plane node
What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?
A. It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments.
B. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric
D. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.
C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric
Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture?
A. easy virtual network
B. underlay network
C. VPN routing/forwarding
D. overlay network
D. overlay network
In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for?
A.gather telemetry data from vEdge routers
B.distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric
C.onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric
D.handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric
B.distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric
What is the role of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment?
A.It manages the data plane.
B.It performs authentication and authorization
C.It is the centralized network management system.
D.It manages the control plane.
D.It manages the control plane.
Which tunneling technique is used when designing a Cisco SD-Access fabric data plane?
A.LISP
B.VRF
C.VRF Lite
D.VXLAN
D.VXLAN
Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers?
A.BGP
B.UDP
C.TCP
D.OMP
D.OMP
In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC?
A.inter-xTR
B.auto anchor
C.fast roam
D.Layer 3
A.inter-xTR
Which two LISP infrastructure elements are needed to support LISP to non -LISP internetworking? (Choose two)
A.MR
B.ALT
C.PITR
D.MS
E.PETR
A. MR
E. PETR
Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments in a VXLAN environment?
A.VNID
B.VTEP
C.switch fabric
D.host switch
A. VNID
Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two)
A.TLOC
B.VTEP
C.EID
D.DNS
E.RLOC
C.EID
E.RLOC
Which statement about VXLAN is true?
A.VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data center network
B.VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention
C.VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network
D.VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries
D. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries
Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site?
A.MS
B.ETR
C.ITR
D.MR
B. ETR
What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?
A.It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.
B.It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.
C.It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.
D.It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.
C. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.
Which LISP component do routers in the public IP network use to forward traffic between the two networks?
A. EID
B. RLOC
C. map resolver
D. map server
B. RLOC
Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination?
A. map server
B. PETR
C. PITR
D. map resolver
C. PITR
Which QoS mechanism will prevent a decrease in TCP performance?
A. LLQ
B. Fair-Queue
C. Policer
D. Shaper
E. Rate-Limit
F. WRED
F. WRED
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
C. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
D. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
Which marking field is used only as an internal marking within a router?
A. Discard Eligiblity
B. MPLS Experimental
C. QOS Group
D. IP Precedence
C. QOS Group
How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion?
A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate.
B. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery.
C. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues.
D. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.
D. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.
Which statement about the default QoS configuration on a Cisco switch is true?
A. All traffic is sent through four egress queues
B. The Port Cos value is 0
C. The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified
D. Port trust is enabled
B. The Port Cos value is 0
Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network?
A. Classification
B. Policing
C. Marking
D. Shaping
C. Marking
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
C. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB
D. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions
D. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions
Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true?
A. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions
B. It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table
C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler
D. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane
B. It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table.
What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB?
A. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB
B. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions
C. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored
D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content
D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content
How does the RIB differ from the FIB?
A. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination.
B. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route.
C. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations.
D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations
B. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route.
What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two)
A. The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.
B. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.
C. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.
D. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB.
E. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet
B. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB.
E. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.
What is the difference between CEF and process switching?
A. Process switching is faster than CEF.
B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching.
C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.
D. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage
C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet.
Which two statements about Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing are true? (Choose two)
A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB
B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
E. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations
C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table
D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination
What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two)
A. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based
B. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet
C. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments
D. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode
E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based
B. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet
C. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments
Which two statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose two)
A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch
B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF
C. It should be used when a customer’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF
D. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets
E. It can increase the packet switching rate
A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch
C. It should be used when a customer’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF
Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors?
A. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server
B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server
C. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server
D. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes
D. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes
Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
*Jun19 11:12: BGP(4):10.1.1.2 rcvd UPDATE w/ attr:nexthop 10.1.1.2, origin ?, localpref 100,metric 0,extended community RT:999:999
*Jun19 11:12: BGP(4):10.1.1.2 rcvd 999:999:192.168.1.99/32,label 29–DENIED due to:extended community not supported
A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3
B. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted
C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted
D. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3
E. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering
C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted
E. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering
Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?
A. Default VRF
B. VRF VPN_B
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A
A. Default VRF
Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite?
A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table
B. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses
C. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table
D. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities
A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two)
A. increased security
B. reduced IP and MAC address requirement
C. speedy deployment
D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
E. smaller Layer 2 domain
C. speedy deployment
D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two)
A. increased security
B. reduced IP and MAC address requirements
C. speedy deployment
D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
E. smaller Layer 2 domain
C. speedy deployment
D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements
What is the main function of VRF-lite?
A. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone
B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes
C. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device
D. To allow devices to use labels to make Layer 2 Path decisions
C. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device
Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two)
A. VMware ESX
B. Microsoft Hyper-V
C. Microsoft Virtual PC
D. VMware server
E. Oracle VM VirtualBox
A. VMware ESX
B. Microsoft Hyper-V
Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type 2 hypervisor?
A. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques
B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it
C. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS
D. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources
C. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS
A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?
A.hardware pass-through
B.Type 1 hypervisor
C.Type 2 hypervisor
D.container
C.Type 2 hypervisor
A customer has deployed an environment with shared storage to allow for the migration of virtual machines between servers with dedicated operating systems that provide the virtualization platform. What is this operating system described as?
A.container oriented
B.hosted virtualization
C.decoupled
D.type 1 hypervisor
D.type 1 hypervisor
Which two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two)
A.Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch
B.Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunnelling drivers on the virtual machines
C.Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine
D.Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor
E.Use a single routed link to an external router on stick
A.Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch
D.Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor
Refer to the exhibit.
interface Vlan10 ip vrf forwarding Customer1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan20 ip vrf forwarding Customer2 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan30 ip vrf forwarding Customer3 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200?
A.
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20
B.
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20
C.
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer1 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2
D.
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer1
A.
ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20
Into which two pieces of information does the LISP protocol split the device identity? (Choose two)
A. Device ID
B. Enterprise Identifier
C. LISP ID
D. Routing Locator
E. Resource Location
F. Endpoint Identifier
D. Routing Locator
F. Endpoint Identifier
What is the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture?
A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.
B. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router.
C. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.
D. It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.
A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.
In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router?
A.type 1
B.type 3
C.type 2
D.type 4
D.type 4
Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?
A.point-to-multipoint to broadcast
B.broadcast to point-to-point
C.broadcast to nonbroadcast
D.point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast
C.broadcast to nonbroadcast
Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state?
A.Mismatched MTU size
B.Mismatched OSPF network type
C.Mismatched areas
D.Mismatched OSPF link costs
A.Mismatched MTU size
Which EIGRP feature allows the use of leak maps?
A.offset-list
B.address-family
C.neighbor
D.stub
D.stub
Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?
A.OTP maintains the LISP control plane
B.LISP learns the next hop
C.OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D.OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C.OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OSPF debug output is true?
R1#debug ip ospf hello
R1#debug condition interface fa0/1
Condition 1 set
A.The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received
B.The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1
C.The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces
D.The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1
D.The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1
Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two)
A.Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces
B.A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
C.EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
D.Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing
E.EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default
B.A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
C.EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency?
R1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.1 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf hello-interval 2 ip ospf cost 1 R2 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf cost 500
A.2WAY/DROTHER on both routers
B.Full on both routers
C.not established
D.FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2
C.not established
Refer to the exhibit. Which IPv6 OSPF network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default?
A. broadcast
B. point-to-point
C. multipoint
D. Ethernet
A. broadcast
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router?
A.Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0
B.Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0
C.Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0
D.Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0
C. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0
Refer the exhibit.
Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24?
A.Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID
B.This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.
C.Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID
D.This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.
B. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.
Refer to the exhibit.
A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal?
A.
R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out
B.
R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast
C.
R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1 R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1
D.
R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point
D.
R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form?
A. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0
B. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0
D. network 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
E. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255.255 area 0
B. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0
How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric?
A.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only.
B.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only.
C.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.
D.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.
A. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only.
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue?
Option A
router eigrp 1
network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0
network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0
network 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0
Option B
router eigrp 1
network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
network 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0
network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0
Option C
interface Vlan10
no ip vrf forwarding Clients
!
interface Vlan20
no ip vrf forwarding Servers
!
interface Vlan30
no ip vrf forwarding Printers
Option D
interface Vlan10
no ip vrf forwarding Clients
ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface Vlan20
no ip vrf forwarding Servers
ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0
!
interface Vlan30
no ip vrf forwarding Printers
ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0
A.Option A
B.Option C
C.Option B
D.Option D
D.Option D
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task?
A.R3(config)#router bgp 200
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100
R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3
R4(config)#router bgp 100
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200
R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4
B.R3(config)#router bgp 200
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source loopback0
R4(config)#router bgp 100
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source loopback0
C.R3(config)#router bgp 200
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source loopback0
R4(config)#router bgp 100
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 update-source loopback0
A.R3(config)#router bgp 200
R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100
R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3
R4(config)#router bgp 100
R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200
R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4
A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router?
A.The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router.
B.The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighboring router
C.The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighboring router and adding them in RIB-IN
D.The local router has active prefix in the forwarding table firom the neighboring router
A.The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router.
Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two)
A.R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
B.R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
C.R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0
D.R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
E.R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
D.R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0
E.R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the next active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails?
A.192.168.101.18
B.192.168.101.6
C.192.168.101.14
D.192.168.101.10
A.192.168.101.18
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?
A.R3(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200
B.R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200
C.R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200
D.R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200
C. R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200
Explanation
Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100.
Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute that routers exchange in the same AS. The local preference is set with the “bgp default local-preference value” command.
In this case, both R3 & R4 have exit links but R4 has higher local-preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.
What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses?
A.local preference, weight, MED, AS path
B.weight, local preference, AS path, MED
C.local preference, weight, AS path, MED
D.weight, AS path, local preference, MED
B.weight, local preference, AS path, MED
Explanation
Path Selection Attributes: Weight > Local Preference > Originate > AS Path > Origin > MED > External > IGP Cost > eBGP Peering > Router ID
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer must ensure that all traffic entering AS 200 from AS 100 chooses Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task?
Option A
R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R3(config)# router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND out
Option B
R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R4(config)# router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND in
Option C
R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R3(config)# router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND in
Option D
R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R4(config)# router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND out
A.Option A
B.Option B
C.Option C
D.Option D
A.Option A
Explanation
R3 advertises BGP updates to R1 with multiple AS 200 so R1 believes the path to reach AS 200 via R3 is farther than R2 so R1 will choose R2 to forward traffic to AS 200.
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?
A.
R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0
B.
R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0
C.
R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 update-source lo0 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 update-source lo0 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0
D.
R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0
A.
R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0
Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two)
A. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure
B. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs
C. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other
D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller
E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments
D.When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller
E.FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect?
A.Active
B.On
C.Auto
D.Passive
B.On
Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two)
A.querying other APs
B.DHCP Option 43
C.broadcasting on the local subnet
D.DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain
E.Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor
B.DHCP Option 43
C.broadcasting on the local subnet
A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement?
A.Mobility express
B.SD-Access wireless
C.Local mode
D.Autonomous
A.Mobility express
An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OLTIs?
A.adaptive R
B.802.11V
C.802.11k
D.over the DS
A.adaptive R
Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery?
A.CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
B.CISCO-DNA-CONTROILLER.local
C.CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
D.CISCO-CONTROLLER.local
C. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present?
A.Omnidirectional
B.Dipole
C.Yagi
D.Patch
D.Patch
Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting. Which method can a client use to authenticate to the network?
A.text string
B.RADIUS token
C.certificate
D.username and password
A.text string
Which statement about Cisco EAP-FAST is true?
A.It does not require a RADIUS server certificate
B.It requires a client certificate
C.It is an IETF standard.
D.It operates in transparent mode
A.It does not require a RADIUS server certificate
Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported?
A.Layer 3 intercontroller
B.Indirect
C.Intercontroller
D.Layer 2 intercontroller
A.Layer 3 intercontroller
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A.anchor WLC
B.local WLC
C.ISE server
D.RADIUS server
B. local WLC
A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue?
A.The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID.
B.The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client.
C.The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID.
D.The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.
D. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two)
A.noise floor
B.transmit power
C.EIRP
D.RSSI
E.antenna gain
A.noise floor
D.RSSI
When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required?
A.NTP server
B.RADIUS server
C.PKI server
D.TACACS server
B.RADIUS server
What are two common sources of interference for WI-FI networks? (Choose two)
A.fire alarm
B.LED lights
C.radar
D.conventional oven
E.rogue AP
C.radar
E.rogue AP
Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the connection reestablishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs.
AP ‘AP2’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM
AP ‘AP4’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49 PM
AP ‘AP7’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM
Which action reduces the user impact?
A.increase the AP heartbeat timeout
B.increase BandSelect
C.increase the dynamic channel assignment interval
D.enable coverage hole detection
C.increase the dynamic channel assignment interval
Refer to the exhibit.
Assuming the WLC’s interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which interface would the WLC use as the source for all RADIUS-related traffic?
A.the interface specified on the WLAN configuration
B.the controller management interface
C.any interface configured on the WLC
D.the controller virtual interface
A. the interface specified on the WLAN configuration
A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points joined to the same controller and configuration in local mode. The access points are in different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the group same. What type of roam occurs?
A.intra-VLAN
B.inter-controller
C.intra-controller
D.inter-subnet
C.intra-controller
Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent?
A.omnidirectional
B.Yagi
C.directional patch
D.multidirectional
B.Yagi
