All Questions Flashcards by Pedro Ivo Silva

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, which two functions are performed by OMP? (Choose two)

A. gathering of underlay infrastructure data
B. delivery of crypto keys
C. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes
D. segmentation and differentiation of traffic
E. configuration of control and data policies

B. delivery of crypto keys

C. advertisement of network prefixes and their attributes

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When is an external antenna used inside a building?

A. when it provides the required coverage
B. only when using 2.4 GHz
C. only when using 5 GHz
D. only when using Mobility Express

A. when it provides the required coverage

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Which QoS feature uses the IP Precedence bits in the ToS field of the IP packet header to partition traffic into different priority levels?

A. marking
B. policing
C. classification
D. shaping

C. classification

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Which two statements about EIGRP load balancing are true? (Choose two)

A. Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing
B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor
C. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths
D. EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default
E. Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces

B. A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor

C. EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths

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The network provides client access, location-based services, and is monitored using Cisco DNA Center. The security department wants to locate and track malicious devices based on threat signatures. Which feature is required for this solution?

A. malicious rogue rules on the WLC
B. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center
C. malicious rogue rules on Cisco DNA Center
D. Cisco aWIPS policies on the WLC

B. Cisco aWIPS policies on Cisco DNA Center

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Which feature does Cisco TrustSec use to provide scalable, secure communication throughout a network?

A. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network
B. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network
C. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch
D. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

D. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch

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Configuration Management

mutable infrastructure

designed to install and manage software on existing servers

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Orchestration

immutable infrastructure

designed to provision the servers

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In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints?

A. VXLAN
B. LISP
C. SXP
D. DHCP

B. LISP

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How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?

A. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB
B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
C. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions
D. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table

C. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions

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two commands ensure that a switch becomes root bridge in MST

spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096

spanning-tree mst 1 root primary

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Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two)

A. HMAC algorithm
B. proxy ETR
C. spoke
D. route reflector
E. egress tunnel router

B. proxy ETR

E. egress tunnel router

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What is used to measure the total output energy of a Wi-Fi device?

A. dBi
B. dBm
C. mW
D. EIRP

C. mW

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Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect with LAG?

A. On
B. Passive
C. Auto
D. Active

A. On

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What is a characteristic of a WLC that is in master controller mode?

A. All wireless LAN controllers are managed by the master controller.
B. All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.
C. The master controller is responsible for load balancing all connecting clients to other controllers.
D. Configuration on the master controller is executed on all wireless LAN controllers.

B. All new APs that join the WLAN are assigned to the master controller.

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An engineer must configure a new WLAN that allows a user to enter a passphrase and provides forward secrecy as a security measure. Which Layer 2 WLAN configuration is required on the Cisco WLC?

A. WPA3 Personal
B. WPA2 Personal
C. WPA3 Enterprise
D. WPA2 Enterprise

A. WPA3 Personal

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What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two)

A. border node
B. edge node
C. core switch
D. access switch
E. vBond controller

A. border node

B. edge node

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Why would a log file contain a * next to the date?

A. The network device is not configured to use NTP
B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded.
C. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging.
D. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded

A. The network device is not configured to use NTP

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An engineer reviews a router’s logs and discovers the following entry. What is the event’s logging severity level?

Router# *Feb 03 11:13:44 334: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up

A. informational
B. error
C. warning
D. notification

B. error

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Refer to the exhibit.

python_parse_code.jpg

Which python code parses the response and prints “18:32:21.474 UTC sun Mar 10 2019?

A. print(response[‘result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])
B. print(response[‘result’][0][‘simple_time’]
C. print(response[result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])
D. print(response[‘body’][‘simple_time’])

A. print(response[‘result’][‘body’][‘simple_time’])

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An engineer is configuring a new SSID to present users with a splash page for authentication. Which WLAN Layer 3 setting must be configured to provide this functionally?

A. CCKM
B. WPA2 Policy
C. Web Policy
D. Local Policy

C. Web Policy

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What is the calculation that is used to measure the radiated power of a signal after it has gone through the radio, antenna cable, and antenna?

A. EIRP
B. dBm
C. mW
D. dBi

A. EIRP

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Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?

A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane

B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling

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What is the difference in dBm when an AP power increases from 25 mW to 100mW?

A. 150dBm
B. 6dBm
C. 125dBm
D. 75dBm

B. 6dBm

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**When** is the **Design workflow used in Cisco DNA Center**? A. in a greenfield or brownfield deployment, to wipe out existing data B. in a brownfield deployment, to provision and onboard new network devices C. in a brownfield deployment, to modify configuration of existing devices in the network D. in a greenfield deployment, with no existing infrastructure

D. in a **greenfield** deployment, with **no existing infrastructure**

Refer to the exhibit. [exhibit](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/VTP/VTP_Domain.jpg) An engineer implemented several configuration changes and receives the logging message on Switch1. Which action should the engineer take to resolve this issue? A. Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic desirable B. Change Switch2 to switch port mode dynamic auto C. Change the VTP domain to match on both switches D. Change Switch1 to switch port mode dynamic auto

C. **Change the VTP domain to match** on both switches

The default administrative distance is equal to 110

OSPF

It requires a process ID that is local to the router

OSPF

It uses virtual links to connect two parts of a partitioned backbone through a non-backbone area

OSPF

It is an Advanced Distance Vector routing protocol

EIGRP

It relies on the Diffused Update Algorithm to calculate the shortest path to a destination

EIGRP

It requires an Autonomous System number to create a routing instance for exchanging routing information

EIGRP

An engineer must configure the **strongest password authentication** to locally authenticate on a router. Which configuration must be used? A. username netadmin secret 5 $1$bfjk$kdiSiDKKdkXksufZ2 B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf83kdDJ9kdjDdjdu/dkfhZiz C. username netadmin secret $1$bfjk$kdiSiDKKdkXksufZ2 D. line console 0 password $1$bfjk$k

B. username netadmin **secret 9** $9$vFpMf83kdDJ9kdjDdjdu/dkfhZiz

Which **feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF**? A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths B. load balance over four equal-costs paths C. uses interface bandwidth to determine best path D. per-packet load balancing over multiple paths

A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths

What is **one benefit of** adopting a **data modeling** language? A. refactoring vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations B. augmenting the use of management protocols like SNMP for status subscriptions C. deploying machine-friendly codes to manage a high number of devices D. augmenting management process using vendor centric actions around models

A. **refactoring** vendor and platform specific configurations with widely compatible configurations

A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECUR DOWN: **Tunnel0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing error.** Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two) A. There is link flapping on the tunnel B. Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel C. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface D. The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured E. There is instability in the network due to route flapping

C. The **tunnel destination** is being routed **out of the tunnel** interface E. There is **instability** in the network due to **route flapping**

An engineer must configure the wireless endpoints to authenticate using Active Directory credentials in an encrypted tunnel in addition to using a hashed password. Which action is required? A.Configure EAP-TLS with GTC B.Configure EAP-TLS with MSCHAP v2 C.Configure PEAP with MSCHAP v2 D.Configure PEAP with GTC

C. Configure PEAP with MSCHAP v2

Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to 1 milliwatt? A.dBi B.mW C.dBw D.dBm

D.dBm

Which two parameters are examples of a **QoS traffic descriptor**? (Choose two) A. bandwidth B. DSCP C. MPLS EXP bits D. packet size E. ToS

B. DSCP C. MPLS EXP bits

Which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor? A. Microsoft Virtual PC B. VMware server C. Citrix XenServer D. Oracle VM VirtualBox

C. Citrix XenServer

A company plans to **implement intent-based** networking in its campus infrastructure. **Which design facilities a migrate** from a traditional campus design to a programmer fabric designer? A. routed access B. Layer 2 access C. three-tier D. two-tier

A. **routed access**

Which PAgP mode combination **prevents an Etherchannel from forming**? A. auto/auto B. desirable C. desirable/desirable D. auto/desirable

A. **auto/auto**

Which controller **is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN**? A. vEdge B. vBond C. vManage D. vSmart

C. **vManage**

Which action is the **vSmart controller responsible for** in an SD-WAN deployment? A. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers B. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge router C. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric D. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric

B. **distribute security information for tunnel establishment** between vEdge router

Which statement about a **Cisco APIC controller versus a more traditional SDN** controller is true? A. APIC supports OpFlex as a Northbound protocol B. APIC uses a policy agent to translate policies into instructions C. APIC uses an imperative model D. APIC does support a Southbound REST API

B. **APIC uses a policy agent** to translate policies into instructions

Which description of an SD-Access wireless network infrastructure deployment is true? A. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay B. The access point is part of the fabric underlay C. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay D. The access point is part the fabric overlay

D. The **access point** is part the fabric **overlay**

On which **protocol** or technology is the **fabric data plane** based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. Cisco TrustSec B. IS-IS C. VXLAN D. LISP

C. **VXLAN**

Cisco **SD-Access** fabric **data plane** is based in wich protocol?

**VXLAN**

Cisco **SD-Access** fabric **control plane** is based in wich protocol?

**LISP**

What the **role of a fusion** in an **SD-Access** solution? A. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services B. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric C. acts as a DNS server D. provides connectivity to external networks

A. **performs route leaking** between user-defined virtual networks and shared services

How does a **fabric AP fit in the network**? A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node B. It is in local mode an must connected directly to the fabric edge switch C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node

B. It is in **local mode** an must connected directly to the fabric **edge** switch

In a Cisco SD-WAN solution, how is the health of a data plane tunnel monitored? A. ARP probing B. with IP SLA C. with OMP D. using BFD

D. using BFD

Which component handles the **orchestration** plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vEdge C. vSmart D. vManage

A. vBond

In an SD-Access solution what is the role of a fabric **edge node**? A. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoint to the SD-Access fabric C. to connect external Layer 3- network to the SD-Access fabric D. to advertise fabric IP address space to external network

B. **to connect wired endpoint** to the SD-Access fabric

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to Edge Node bindings? A. fabric edge node B. fabric wireless controller C. fabric control plane node D. fabric border node

C. fabric control plane node

What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments. B. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric D. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric.

C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric

Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD-Access architecture? A. easy virtual network B. underlay network C. VPN routing/forwarding D. overlay network

D. overlay network

In an SD-WAN deployment, which action in the vSmart controller responsible for? A.gather telemetry data from vEdge routers B.distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric C.onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric D.handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD-WAN fabric

B.distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the SD-WAN fabric

What is the role of the **vSmart controller** in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A.It manages the data plane. B.It performs authentication and authorization C.It is the centralized network management system. D.It manages the control plane.

D.It manages the control plane.

Which tunneling technique is used when designing a Cisco SD-Access fabric data plane? A.LISP B.VRF C.VRF Lite D.VXLAN

D.VXLAN

Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers? A.BGP B.UDP C.TCP D.OMP

D.OMP

In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one access point to another on a different access switch using a single WLC? A.inter-xTR B.auto anchor C.fast roam D.Layer 3

A.inter-xTR

Which two LISP infrastructure elements are needed to support LISP to non -LISP internetworking? (Choose two) A.MR B.ALT C.PITR D.MS E.PETR

A. MR E. PETR

Which **entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation** between segments in a VXLAN environment? A.VNID B.VTEP C.switch fabric D.host switch

A. **VNID**

Which two **namespaces** does the **LISP** network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two) A.TLOC B.VTEP C.EID D.DNS E.RLOC

C.**EID** E.**RLOC**

Which **statement about VXLAN** is true? A.VXLAN uses TCP 35 the transport protocol over the physical data center network B.VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention C.VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network D.VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries

D. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an **IP-UDP header**, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries

Which LISP **device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC** mappings for a site? A.MS B.ETR C.ITR D.MR

B. ETR

What is the purpose of the **LISP routing and addressing** architecture? A.It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. B.It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation. C.It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network. D.It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network.

C. **It creates two entries for each network node**, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.

Which **LISP component** do routers in the public IP network use **to forward traffic between the two networks**? A. EID B. RLOC C. map resolver D. map server

B. **RLOC**

Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination? A. map server B. PETR C. PITR D. map resolver

C. PITR

Which QoS mechanism will prevent a **decrease in TCP performance**? A. LLQ B. Fair-Queue C. Policer D. Shaper E. Rate-Limit F. WRED

F. WRED

During deployment, a network engineer notices that **voice traffic** is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which **COS to DSCP** map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly? A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46 B. COS of 6 to DSCP 46 C. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26 D. COS of 7 to DSCP 48

A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46

Which **marking field** is used only as an **internal marking** within a router? A. Discard Eligiblity B. MPLS Experimental C. QOS Group D. IP Precedence

C. QOS **Group**

How does QoS traffic **shaping** alleviate network congestion? A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. B. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. C. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. D. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.

D. It buffers and queue packets above the committed rate.

Which statement about the **default QoS configuration** on a Cisco **switch** is true? A. All traffic is sent through four egress queues B. The Port Cos value is 0 C. The Cos value of each tagged packet is modified D. Port trust is enabled

B. The Port Cos value is 0

Which **QoS** component alters a packet to **change the way that traffic is treated** in the network? A. Classification B. Policing C. Marking D. Shaping

C. Marking

**How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related** to each other? A. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table B. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices C. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB D. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions

D. **Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based** switching decisions

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? A. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions B. It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency table C. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler D. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane

B. **It maintains two tables in the data plane the FIB and adjacency** table.

What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB B. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions C. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content

D. The FIB is populated based on RIB content

How does the RIB differ from the FIB? A. The FIB includes many routes a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. B. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route. C. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. D. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations

B. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route.

What are **two differences** between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two) A. The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. B. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. C. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. D. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. E. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet

B. **The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB**. E. **The RIB is a database of routing prefixes**, and the FIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet.

What is the difference between CEF and process switching? A. Process switching is faster than CEF. B. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching. C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. D. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage

C. **CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table** to make forwarding decisions, whereas **process switching punts each packet**.

Which two statements about **Cisco Express Forwarding load balancing** are true? (Choose two) A. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the RIB B. It combines the source IP address subnet mask to create a hash for each destination C. Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table D. It combines the source and destination IP addresses to create a hash for each destination E. Cisco Express Forwarding can load-balance over a maximum of two destinations

C. **Each hash maps directly to a single entry in the adjacency table** D. **It combines the source and destination IP addresses** to create a hash for each destination

What are two reasons why **broadcast radiation** is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two) A. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based B. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet C. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments D. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based

B. vSwitch must **interrupt the server CPU** to process the broadcast packet C. The Layer 2 domain **can be large** in virtual machine environments

Which two statements about VRF-lite are true? (Choose two) A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch B. It supports most routing protocols, including EIGRP, ISIS, and OSPF C. It should be used when a customer’s router is connected to an ISP over OSPF D. It supports MPLS-VRF label exchange and labeled packets E. It can increase the packet switching rate

A. It can support multiple customers on a single switch C. It should be used when a customer’s router is connected to an **ISP over OSPF**

Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on type 1 hypervisors? A. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server C. Each virtual machines requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the address of the physical server D. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes

D. **Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses** to be able to reach to other nodes

Refer to the exhibit. You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug ip bgp vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two) *Jun19 11:12: BGP(4):10.1.1.2 rcvd UPDATE w/ attr:nexthop 10.1.1.2, origin ?, localpref 100,metric 0,extended community RT:999:999 *Jun19 11:12: BGP(4):10.1.1.2 rcvd 999:999:192.168.1.99/32,label 29–DENIED due to:extended community not supported A. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3 B. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted C. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted D. address-family ipv4 vrf is not configured on PE3 E. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering

C. After you configure **route-target import 999:999** for a VRF on **PE3**, the route will be accepted E. **PE1 will reject the route** due to automatic route filtering

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? A. Default VRF B. VRF VPN_B C. Management VRF D. VRF VPN_A

A. Default VRF

Which statement about **route targets** is true when using VRF-Lite? A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table B. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses C. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table D. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities

A. Route targets **control the import and export** of routes into a customer routing table

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two) A. increased security B. reduced IP and MAC address requirement C. speedy deployment D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements E. smaller Layer 2 domain

C. speedy deployment D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements

What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in data center environment? (Choose two) A. increased security B. reduced IP and MAC address requirements C. speedy deployment D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements E. smaller Layer 2 domain

C. speedy deployment D. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements

What is the main function of **VRF-lite**? A. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes C. To segregate multiple routing tables on a single device D. To allow devices to use labels to make Layer 2 Path decisions

C. To **segregate multiple routing tables** on a single device

Which **two** entities are **Type 1 hypervisors**? (Choose two) A. VMware ESX B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. Microsoft Virtual PC D. VMware server E. Oracle VM VirtualBox

A. VMware ESX B. Microsoft Hyper-V

Which statement explains **why Type 1 hypervisor is** considered **more efficient** than Type 2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques B. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it C. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS D. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources

C. Type 1 hypervisor **runs directly on the physical hardware** of the host machine **without** relying on the **underlying OS**

A server running Linux is providing support for **virtual machines** along **with DNS and DHCP** services for a **small business**. Which technology does this represent? A.hardware pass-through B.Type 1 hypervisor C.Type 2 hypervisor D.container

C.**Type 2 hypervisor**

A customer has deployed an environment with **shared storage** to allow for the migration of virtual machines between **servers with dedicated operating systems** that provide the virtualization platform. What is this operating system described as? A.container oriented B.hosted virtualization C.decoupled D.type 1 hypervisor

D.type 1 hypervisor

Which two actions provide **controlled Layer 2** network **connectivity** between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two) A.Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch B.Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunnelling drivers on the virtual machines C.Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine D.Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor E.Use a single routed link to an external router on stick

A.Use a single trunk link to an **external Layer2 switch** D.Use a **virtual switch provided** by the hypervisor

Refer to the exhibit. ``` interface Vlan10 ip vrf forwarding Customer1 ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan20 ip vrf forwarding Customer2 ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan30 ip vrf forwarding Customer3 ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 ``` Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200? A. ``` ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 ``` B. ``` ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 ``` C. ``` ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer1 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2 ``` D. ``` ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer1 ```

A. ``` ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 ```

Into which **two pieces of information** does the **LISP** protocol split the **device identity**? (Choose two) A. Device ID B. Enterprise Identifier C. LISP ID D. Routing Locator E. Resource Location F. Endpoint Identifier

D. **Routing Locator** F. **Endpoint Identifier**

What is the purpose of the **LISP** **routing and addressing architecture**? A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network. B. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. C. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network. D. It allows LISP to be applied as a network visualization overlay though encapsulation.

A. **It creates two entries for each network node**, one for its identity and another for its location on the network.

In **OSPF**, which **LSA** type is responsible for **pointing** to the **ASBR** router? A.type 1 B.type 3 C.type 2 D.type 4

D.**type 4**

Which **OSPF** network **types** are **compatible** and allow communication through the two peering devices? A.point-to-multipoint to broadcast B.broadcast to point-to-point C.broadcast to nonbroadcast D.point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C.**broadcast** to **nonbroadcast**

Which reason could cause an **OSPF** neighborship to be in the **EXSTART/EXCHANGE** state? A.Mismatched MTU size B.Mismatched OSPF network type C.Mismatched areas D.Mismatched OSPF link costs

A.Mismatched MTU size

Which **EIGRP** feature allows the use of **leak maps**? A.offset-list B.address-family C.neighbor D.stub

D.**stub**

Which statement about **LISP** encapsulation in an **EIGRP OTP** implementation is true? A.OTP maintains the LISP control plane B.LISP learns the next hop C.OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling D.OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors

C.**OTP uses LISP** encapsulation for **dynamic multipoint** tunneling

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the **OSPF debug output** is true? R1#debug ip ospf hello R1#debug condition interface fa0/1 Condition 1 set A.The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received B.The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1 C.The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces D.The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1

D.The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1

Which two statements about **EIGRP load balancing** are true? (Choose two) A.Cisco Express Forwarding is required to load-balance across interfaces B.A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor C.EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths D.Any path in the EIGRP topology table can be used for unequal-cost load balancing E.EIGRP supports unequal-cost paths by default

B.A path can be used for load balancing only if it is a feasible successor C.EIGRP supports 6 unequal-cost paths

Based on this interface configuration, what is the **expected state** of **OSPF adjacency**? ``` R1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.1 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf hello-interval 2 ip ospf cost 1 R2 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 192.0.2.2 255.255.255.252 ip ospf 1 area 0 ip ospf cost 500 ``` A.2WAY/DROTHER on both routers B.Full on both routers C.not established D.FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2

C.not established

Refer to the exhibit. Which **IPv6 OSPF** network type is applied to interface Fa0/0 of R2 by default? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/OSPF/default_OSPF_network_type.jpg) A. broadcast B. point-to-point C. multipoint D. Ethernet

A. broadcast

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/OSPF/OSPF_summary.jpg) Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router? A.Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0 B.Atlanta(config-route)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 C.Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 D.Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0

C. Atlanta(config-route)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0

Refer the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/OSPF/OSPF_DR_elect.jpg) Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24? A.Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID B.This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type. C.Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID D.This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type.

B. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type.

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/OSPF/OSPF_not_elect_DR_BDR.jpg) A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal? A. ```R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf database-filter all out``` B. ```R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network broadcast``` C. ```R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1 R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf priority 1``` D. ```R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point```

D. ```R1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)#ip ospf network point-to-point```

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/OSPF/OSPF_neighbor_form.jpg) Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form? A. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0 B. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0. area 0 D. network 20.1.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 E. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255.255 area 0

B. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric? A.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only. B.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only. C.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. D.The EIGRP metric is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay.

A. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only.

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/VRF/VRF_router_on_a_stick.jpg) Option A router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0 Option B router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Option C interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers Option D interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 A.Option A B.Option C C.Option B D.Option D

D.Option D

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/BGP/BGP_peers.jpg) An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task? A.R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4 B.R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source loopback0 C.R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 update-source loopback0

A.R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4

A local router shows an **EBGP neighbor** in the **Active state**. Which statement is true about the local router? A.The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router. B.The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighboring router C.The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighboring router and adding them in RIB-IN D.The local router has active prefix in the forwarding table firom the neighboring router

A.The local router is **attempting to open a TCP session** with the neighboring router.

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between **AS 1000 and AS 2000**? (Choose two) [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/BGP/BGP_full_reachability.jpg) A.R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 B.R1#network 19.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 C.R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0 D.R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 E.R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

D.**R2**#**network 192**.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 E.**R2**#**no network 10**.0.0.0 255.255.255.0

Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the next active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails? [Image](https://i.imgur.io/bNVFcHy_d.webp?maxwidth=10000&shape=thumb&fidelity=medium) A.192.168.101.18 B.192.168.101.6 C.192.168.101.14 D.192.168.101.10

A.192.168.101.18

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/BGP/BGP_local_preference.jpg) A.R3(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 B.R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 C.R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 D.R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200

C. R4(config-router)#bgp default local-preference 200 ## Footnote Explanation Local preference is an indication to the AS about which path has preference to exit the AS in order to reach a certain network. A path with a higher local preference is preferred. The default value for local preference is 100. **Unlike the weight attribute, which is only relevant to the local router, local preference is an attribute that routers exchange in the same AS.** The local preference is set with the “bgp default local-preference value” command. In this case, both R3 & R4 have exit links but R4 has higher local-preference so R4 will be chosen as the preferred exit point from AS 200.

What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to the least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses? A.local preference, weight, MED, AS path B.weight, local preference, AS path, MED C.local preference, weight, AS path, MED D.weight, AS path, local preference, MED

B.weight, local preference, AS path, MED ## Footnote Explanation Path Selection Attributes: Weight > Local Preference > Originate > AS Path > Origin > MED > External > IGP Cost > eBGP Peering > Router ID

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/BGP/BGP_local_preference.jpg) An engineer must ensure that all traffic entering AS 200 from AS 100 chooses Link 2 as an entry point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplish task? **Option A** ``` R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R3(config)# router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND out ``` **Option B** ``` R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R4(config)# router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND in ``` **Option C** ``` R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R3(config)# router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND in ``` **Option D** ``` R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R4(config)# router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND out ``` A.Option A B.Option B C.Option C D.Option D

A.Option A ## Footnote Explanation R3 advertises BGP updates to R1 with multiple AS 200 so R1 believes the path to reach AS 200 via R3 is farther than R2 so R1 will choose R2 to forward traffic to AS 200.

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/BGP/BGP_Neighbors.jpg) A. ``` R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 ``` B. ``` R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 ``` C. ``` R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 update-source lo0 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 update-source lo0 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 ``` D. ``` R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 ```

A. ``` R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 ```

Which two **descriptions of FlexConnect** mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two) A. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP-enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure B. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs C. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other D. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments

D.When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel **traffic back** to the controller E.FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for **branch** office **and remote office** deployments

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect? A.Active B.On C.Auto D.Passive

B.On

Which **two** methods are used by an AP that is **trying to discover** a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two) A.querying other APs B.DHCP Option 43 C.broadcasting on the local subnet D.DNS lookup cisco-DNA-PRIMARY.local domain E.Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor

B.DHCP **Option 43** C.**broadcasting** on the local subnet

A customer has **several small branches** and wants to deploy a WI-FI solution with **local management** using **CAPWAP**. Which deployment model meets this requirement? A.Mobility express B.SD-Access wireless C.Local mode D.Autonomous

A.**Mobility express**

An engineer configures a WLAN with **fast transition** enabled. Some **legacy clients** fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OLTIs? A.adaptive R B.802.11V C.802.11k D.over the DS

A.**adaptive R**

Which **DNS lookup** does an access point perform when attempting **CAPWAP discovery**? A.CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local B.CISCO-DNA-CONTROILLER.local C.CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local D.CISCO-CONTROLLER.local

C. **CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local**

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the **radiation patterns** present? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/Patch_atenna_radiation.jpg) A.Omnidirectional B.Dipole C.Yagi D.Patch

D.Patch

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the configuration in this **WLAN security** setting. Which **method** can a client **use to authenticate** to the network? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/WLC_implement_Layer2_Security.jpg) A.text string B.RADIUS token C.certificate D.username and password

A.**text string**

Which statement about **Cisco EAP-FAST** is true? A.It does not require a RADIUS server certificate B.It requires a client certificate C.It is an IETF standard. D.It operates in transparent mode

A.It does **not** require a **RADIUS** server **certificate**

Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has **Mobility Role Anchor** configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/client-details_WLC.jpg) A.Layer 3 intercontroller B.Indirect C.Intercontroller D.Layer 2 intercontroller

A.**Layer 3 intercontroller**

An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for **Web Policy**. Which device presents the **web authentication** for the WLAN? A.anchor WLC B.local WLC C.ISE server D.RADIUS server

B. **local WLC**

A client device **fails to see the enterprise SSID**, but other devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue? A.The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID. B.The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. C.The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. D.The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client.

D. The **hidden SSID** was **not manually configured** on the client.

Which two pieces of information are **necessary to compute SNR**? (Choose two) A.noise floor B.transmit power C.EIRP D.RSSI E.antenna gain

A.**noise floor** D.**RSSI**

When configuration WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required? A.NTP server B.RADIUS server C.PKI server D.TACACS server

B.RADIUS server

What are two **common sources of interference** for WI-FI networks? (Choose two) A.fire alarm B.LED lights C.radar D.conventional oven E.rogue AP

C.radar E.rogue AP

Wireless users report **frequent disconnections** from the wireless network. While troubleshooting a network engineer finds that after the user a disconnect, the **connection reestablishes automatically** without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs. AP ‘AP2’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM AP ‘AP4’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49 PM AP ‘AP7’ is down Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM Which action reduces the user impact? A.increase the AP heartbeat timeout B.increase BandSelect C.increase the dynamic channel assignment interval D.enable coverage hole detection

C.increase the **dynamic channel** assignment **interval**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/WLC_interface_RADIUS.jpg) Assuming the WLC’s interfaces are not in the same subnet as the RADIUS server, which **interface** would the **WLC use** as the source for **all RADIUS**-related **traffic**? A.the interface specified on the WLAN configuration B.the controller management interface C.any interface configured on the WLC D.the controller virtual interface

A. the **interface specified** on the WLAN **configuration**

A client **device roams** between access points located on **different floors** in an atrium. The access points joined to the **same controller** and configuration in local mode. The access points are in different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the group same. What type of roam occurs? A.intra-VLAN B.inter-controller C.intra-controller D.inter-subnet

C.**intra**-controller

Which type of antenna does the **radiation pattern** represent? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/Yagi_3d_pattern.jpg) A.omnidirectional B.Yagi C.directional patch D.multidirectional

B.**Yagi**

What is **calculated** using the numerical values of the **transmitter** power level, **cable loss** and **antenna gain**? A.RSSI B.SNR C. EIRP D.dBi

C. **EIRP**

Which **DHCP option** helps **lightweight APs** find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller? A.Option 150 B.Option 43 C.Option 60 D.Option 67

B.**Option 43**

What does the LAP send when **multiple WLCs** respond to the **CISCO_CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname** during the CAPWAP discovery and join process? A.unicast discovery request to each WLC B.broadcast discover request C.Unicast discovery request to the first WLC that resolves the domain name D.join request to all the WLCs

A. **unicast discovery** request to **each WLC**

Why is an **AP** **joining** a **different** **WLC** than the one specified through option 43? A.The AP multicast traffic unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 B.The AP is joining a primed WLC C.The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2 D.The WLC is running a different software version

B.The AP is joining a **primed WLC**

Which access point **mode allows** a supported **AP to function like a WLAN client** would, associating and identifying client connectivity issues? A.client mode B.sniffer mode C.sensor mode D.SE-connect mode

C.**sensor** mode

When a wireless **client roams** between two **different** wireless **controllers**, a network connectivity **outage** is experience for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem? A.All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name B.Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address C.All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address D.Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name

B.**Not all of the controllers** within the mobility group **are using the same virtual interface IP address**

You are configuring a **controller** that runs Cisco **IOS XE** by using the **CLI**. Which three configuration options are used for 802.11w Protected Management Frames? (Choose three) A.association-comeback B.SA teardown protection C.mandatory D.saquery-retry-time E.enable F.comeback-time

A. association-comeback C. mandatory D. saquery-retry-time

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/roaming_same_mobility_group.jpg) Both **controllers** are in the **same mobility group**. Which result occurs when **Client 1 roams between APs** that are registered to different controllers in the **same WLAN**? A.Client 1 contact controller B by using an EoIP tunnel B.CAPWAP tunnel is created between controller A and controller B C.The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B D.Client 1 users an EoIP tunnel to contact controller A

C. **The client database entry moves from controller A to controller B**

Which **DHCP option** provides the CAPWAP APs with the **address of** the wireless **controller**(s)? A.66 B.150 C.43 D.69

C.43

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/Wireless_AVPs.jpg) A wireless client is connecting to FlexAP1 which is currently working **standalone mode**. The AAA authentication process is returning the following AVPs: ``` Tunnel-Private-Group-Id(81): 15 Tunnel-Medium-Type(65): IEEE-802(6) Tunnel-Type(64): VLAN(13) ``` Which **three behaviors** will the client **experience**? (Choose three) A.When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will be de-authenticated. B.While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. C.While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. D.When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 13. E.When the AP transitions to connected mode, the client will remain associated. F.When the AP is in connected mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 15. G.While the AP is in standalone mode, the client will be placed in VLAN 10.

A. When the AP **transitions to connected mode**, the client will be **de-authenticated.** F. When the AP is in **connected mode**, the client will be placed in **VLAN 15.** G. While the AP is in **standalone mode**, the client will be placed in **VLAN 10.**

An engineer has deployed a **single Cisco 5520 WLC** with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer must register **50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9** access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows: Network 172.16.100.0 255.255.255.0 Default Router 172.16.100.1 Option 43 Ascii 172.16.50.5 The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue? A.configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205 B.configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205 C.configure dns-server 172.16.50.5 D.configure dns-server 172.16.100.1

A. configure **option 43 Hex** F104.**AC10.3205**

Refer to the exhibit. Which **level message** does the WLC send to the **syslog server**? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Wireless/WLC_Syslog_level.jpg) A.syslog level errors and greater severity messages B.syslog level errors and less severity messages C.all syslog levels messages D.syslog level errors messages

B. syslog level errors and **less severity messages**

Which two **sources** cause **interference** for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two) A.900MHz baby monitor B.DECT 6.0 cordless C.incandesent lights D.mirrored wall E.fish tank

D.mirrored wall E.fish tank

A wireless consultant is designing a high-density wireless network for a l**ecture hall for 1000 students**. Which antenna type is recommended for this environment? A.parabolic dish B.sector antenna C.dipole antenna D.omnidirectional antenna

D. omnidirectional antenna

What is the **responsibility** of a **secondary** **WLC**? A.It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between itself and the primary controller. B.It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs. C.It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller. D.It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

D. It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails.

What is used to measure the **total output energy** of a Wi-Fi **device**? A.mW B.dBm C.EIRP D.dBi

A.mW

Which antenna type should be used for a **site-to-site** **wireless** connection? A.patch B.Yagi C.dipole D.Omnidirectional

B.Yagi

Using the EIRP formula, what parameter is **subtracted** **to determine the EIRP** value? A.antenna cable loss B.antenna gain C.transmitter power D.signal-to-noise ratio

A. antenna cable loss

How does **EIGRP differ from OSPF**? A.EIGRP is more prone to routing loops than OSPF B.EIGRP supports equal or unequal path cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost. C.EIGRP has a full map of the topology, and OSPF only knows directly connected neighbors D.EIGRP uses more CPU and memory than OSPF

B. EIGRP **supports equal or unequal path** cost, and OSPF supports only equal path cost.

Refer to the exhibit. ``` vlan 222 remote-span ! vlan 223 remote-span ! monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 tx monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/2 rx monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 5 monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 222 ``` **What happens to access interfaces** where VLAN 222 is assigned? A.They are placed into an inactive state B.STP BPDU guard is enabled C.They cannot provide PoE D.A description “RSPAN” is added

A. They are placed into an **inactive state**

Which **two components** are supported by **LISP**? (Choose two) A.route reflector B.proxy ETR C.HMAC algorithm D.spoke E.egress tunnel router

B.proxy ETR E.egress tunnel router

A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements: * FHRP redundancy * **multivendor** router environment * IPv4 and **IPv6** hosts Which protocol does the design include? A.GLBP B.HSRP version 2 C.VRRP version 2 D.VRRP version 3

D. VRRP version 3

What is the **function of a control-plane node** in a Cisco SD-Access solution? A.to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric B.to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships C.to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD Access fabric D.to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric

B. **to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships**

After a **redundant route processor failure** occurs on a Layer 3 device, which mechanism allows for packets to be forwarded from a neighboring router based on the most recent tables? A.BFD B.NSF C.RPVST+ D.RP failover

B.**NSF**

Which **two southbound interfaces** originate from Cisco DNA Center and **terminate** at fabric **underlay switches**? (Choose two) A.UDP 67: DHCP B.TCP 23: Telnet C.UDP 6007: NetFlow D.ICMP: Discovery E.UDP 162: SNMP

B.TCP 23: **Telnet** D. **ICMP**: Discovery

Which two results occur if Cisco **DNA Center loses connectivity to devices** in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two) A.Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance B.Users lose connectivity C.Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect D.All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center E.User connectivity is unaffected

A. Cisco DNA Center is **unable to collect** monitoring data in Assurance E. User **connectivity is unaffected**

What is the **differences between TCAM and the MAC address table**? A.The MAC address table is contained in CAM. ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM B.Router prefix lookups happens in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM C.The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match D.TCAM is used to make Layer 2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables

A. The MAC address table is contained in CAM. **ACL and QoS** information is stored in **TCAM**

What is a characteristic of **para-virtualization**? A.Para-virtualization lacks support for containers B.Para-virtualization allows the host hardware to be directly accessed C.Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor D.Para-virtualization guest servers are unaware of one another

C. **Para-virtualization allows direct access between the guest OS and the hypervisor**

Refer to the exhibit. What is the result when a **switch** that is **running PVST+ is added to this network**? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/show_spanning-tree_vlan_10.jpg) A.Both switches operate in the Rapid PVST+ mode B.DSW2 operates in Rapid PVST+ and the new switch operates in PVST+ C.Spanning tree is disabled automatically on the network D.Both switches operate in the PVST+ mode

B. DSW2 operates in **Rapid PVST+** and the **new switch operates in PVST+**

What is a characteristic of a **next-generation firewall**? A.only required at the network perimeter B.provides intrusion prevention C.filters traffic using Layer 3 and Layer 4 information only D.required in each layer of the network

B.provides **intrusion prevention**

What is a characteristic of **MACsec**? A.802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful 802.1X session B.802.1AE provides encryption and authentication services C.802.1AE is built between the host and switch using the MKA protocol using keys generated via the Diffie-Hellman algorithm (anonymous encryption mode) D.802.1AE is negotiated using Cisco AnyConnect NAM and the SAP protocol

A. 8**02.1AE is built between the host and switch** using the **MKA protocol**, which negotiates encryption keys based on the master session key from a successful **802.1X** session

A customer has recently implemented a new wireless infrastructure using WLC-5520S at a site directly next to a **large commercial airport** Users report that they intermittently lose Wi-Fi connectivity, and troubleshooting reveals it is due to frequent channel changes. Which two actions fix this issue? (Choose two) A.Remove UNII-2 and Extended UNII-2 channels from the 5 GHz channel list B.Restore the DCA default settings because this automatically avoids channel interference C.Enable DFS channels because they are immune to radar interference D.Disable DFS channels to prevent interference with Doppler radar E.Configure channels on the UNII-2 and the Extended UNII-2 sub-bands of the 5 GHz band only

A. **Remove** **UNII-2** and **Extended UNII-2** channels from the 5 GHz channel list D. **Disable DFS** channels to prevent interference with **Doppler radar**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/show_spanning_tree_vlan_20.jpg) What does the output confirm about the switch’s **spanning tree configuration**? A.The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is IEEE B.The spanning-tree mode stp ieee command was entered on this switch C.The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST D.The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is PVST+

D. The spanning-tree operation mode for this switch is **PVST+**

Which unit measures the power of a radio signal with reference to **1 milliwatt**? A.mW B.dBw C.dBi D.dBm

D. dB**m**

Which measure is used by an **NTP server to indicate its closeness** to the authoritative time source? A.hop count B.stratum C.latency D.time zone

B.stratum

Which solution do **IaaS service providers** use to **extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network**? A.VLAN B.VTEP C.VRF D.VXLAN

D.VXLAN

Which solution do **IaaS service providers** use to **extend a Layer 2 segment across a Layer 3 network**? A.VLAN B.VTEP C.VRF D.VXLAN

D. VXLAN

applied on traffic to **convey** information to a **downstream device**

Marking

process used to **buffer traffic** that exceeds a predefined rate

**Shaping**

**distinguishes** traffic types

**classification**

**permits** traffic to pass through the device while **retaining DSCP/COS value**

**trust**

VMX

configuration file containing settings for a virtual machine such as guest OS

vNIC

component of a virtual machine responsible for sending packets to the hypervisor

OVA

zip file containing a virtual machine configuration file and a virtual disk

VMDK

file containing a virtual machine disk drive

Refer to the exhibit. R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 interface. Why do the extended pings fail? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Miscellaneous/extended_ping_DF_bit_result.jpg) A.R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency B.The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 1476 bytes C.The DF bit has been set D.R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30

C.The DF bit has been set

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Security/login_local.jpg) Which password allows access to line con 0 for a username of “tommy” under normal operation? A.Tommy B.Cisco C.local D.0 Cisco

B.Cisco

Refer to the exhibit. ``` aaa new-model aaa authentication login authorizationlist tacacs+ tacacs-server host 192.168.0.202 tacacs-server key ciscotestkey line vty 0 4 login authentication authorizationlist ``` What is the effect of the configuration? A.The device will allow only users at 192 168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 B.When users attempt to connect to vty lines 0 through 4, the device will authenticate them against TACACS+ if local authentication fails C.The device will allow users at 192.168.0.202 to connect to vty lines 0 through 4 using the password ciscotestkey D.The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

D.The device will authenticate all users connecting to vty lines 0 through 4 against TACACS+

Which two statements about AAA authentication are true? (Choose two) A.Local user names are case-insensitive B.KRB5 authentication disables user access when an incorrect password is entered C.RADIUS authentication queries the router’s local username database D.Local authentication is maintained on the router E.TACACS+ authentication uses an RSA server to authenticate users

A. Local user names are **case-insensitive** D.Local authentication is **maintained on the router**

The login method is configured on the VTY lines of a router with these parameters. – The first method for authentication is TACACS – If TACACS is unavailable, login is allowed without any provided credentials Which configuration accomplishes this task? A.R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login telnet group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 R1#sh run | include username R1# B.R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 C.R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 transport input none R1# D.R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login VTY group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748 R1#sh run | include username R1#

B.R1#sh run | include aaa aaa new-model aaa authentication login default group tacacs+ none aaa session-id common R1#sh run | section vty line vty 0 4 password 7 0202039485748

Refer to the exhibit. ``` aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local-case enable aaa authentication login ADMIN local-case username CCNP secret Str0ngP@ssw0rd! line 0 4 login authentication ADMIN ``` An engineer must create a configuration that executes the show run command and then terminates the session when user CCNP logs in. Which configuration change is required? A.Add the access-class keyword to the aaa authentication command B.Add the access-class keyword to the username command C.Add the autocommand keyword to the aaa authentication command D.Add the autocommand keyword to the username command

D. Add the **autocommand** keyword **to the username** command

A network administrator applies the following configuration to an IOS device. ``` aaa new-model aaa authentication login default local group tacacs+ ``` What is the process of password checks when a login attempt is made to the device? A.A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a database is checked B.A local database is checked first. If that fails, a TACACS+server is checked, if that check fails, a RADIUS server is checked C.A TACACS+ server is checked first. If that check fail, a RADIUS server is checked. If that check fail, a local database is checked D.A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked

D. A local database is checked first. If that check fails, a TACACS+server is checked

Which two statements about HSRP are true? (Choose two) A. Its virtual MAC is 0000.0C07.ACxx B. Its multicast virtual MAC is 0000.5E00.01xx C. Its default configuration allows for pre-emption D. It supports tracking E. It supports unique virtual MAC addresses

A. Its virtual MAC is 0000.**0C07.AC**xx D. It supports **tracking**

Which **behavior** can be expected when the **HSRP versions** is changed from **1 to 2**? A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed B. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router

A. Each HSRP group **reinitializes** because the virtual **MAC address** has changed

If a **VRRP master** router fails, which router is selected as the new master router? A. router with the highest priority B. router with the highest loopback address C. router with the lowest loopback address D. router with the lowest priority

A. router with the **highest priority**

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol **maximizes uplink** utilization and **minimizes** the amount of **configuration** that is necessary? A. GLBP B. HSRP v2 C. VRRP D. HSRP v1

A. **GLBP**

What are three valid **HSRP states**? (Choose three) A. listen B. learning C. full D. established E. speak F. INIT

A. **listen** B. **learning** E. **speak**

Which two **statements about VRRP** are true? (Choose two) A. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.8. B. The TTL for VRRP packets must be 255. C. It is assigned multicast address 224.0.0.9. D. Its IP address number is 115. E. Three versions of the VRRP protocol have been defined. F. It supports both MD5 and SHA1 authentication.

B. The **TTL** for VRRP packets must be **255**. E. **Three versions of the VRRP** protocol have been defined.

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/VRRP/VRRP_interfaces.jpg) On which interfaces should **VRRP commands** be applied to provide first hop redundancy to **PC-01 and PC-02**? A. G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02 B. G0/1 on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02 C. G0/0 and G0/1 on Core D. G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01

B. G0/1 on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02

Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirements for more **efficient default bandwidth usage** across multiple devices? A. GLBP B. LCAP C. HSRP D. VRRP

A. **GLBP**

How does **SSO work with HSRP** to minimize network disruptions? A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, while the routing protocol reconverges D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device

D. **It enables HSRP to failover** to the standby RP on the same device

An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for **VRRP group 10**. When the **router** has the **highest priority** in the group, it must assume the **master** role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/VRRP/initial_config.jpg) A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt B. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 10 priority 120 C. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 120 D. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt

A. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 **vrrp 10 preempt**

****Refer to the exhibit. Edge-01 is currently operational as the **HSRP primary** with priority 110. Which command on Edge-02 causes it to take over the forwarding role when Edge-01 is down? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/HSRP/HSRP_primary_preempt.jpg) A. standby 10 priority B. standby 10 timers C. standby 10 track D. standby 10 preempt

D. standby 10 **preempt**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/HSRP/HSRP_virtual_MAC_address.jpg) An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which **protocol** ensures that traffic is not **disrupted** in the event of a **hardware failure**? A. HSRPv2 B. VRRP C. GLBP D. HSRPv1

D. **HSRPv1** ## Footnote The “virtual MAC address” is 0000.**0c07.ac**XX (XX is the hexadecimal group number) so it is using HSRPv1. Note: HSRP Version 2 uses a new MAC address which ranges from 0000.**0C9F**.F000 to 0000.**0C9F**.FFFF.

0000.**0c07.ac**XX 1. HSRPv1 2. HSRPv2

1. HSRPv1

0000.**0C9F.F**XXX 1. HSRPv1 2. HSRPv2

2. HSRPv2

Refer to the exhibit. R1 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.250.2 255.255.255.0 standby 20 ip 192.168.250.1 standby 20 priority 120 R2 interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 192.168.250.3 255.255.255.0 standby 20 ip 192.168.250.1 standby 20 priority 110 What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two) A. R1 becomes the active router B. R1 becomes the standby router C. If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online D. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online E. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online

A. R1 becomes the **active router** E. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active **and remains the active** device when R1 comes back online

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/HSRP/HSRP_virtual_MAC_address_hold_delay_timer.jpg) An engineer is installing a **new pair of routers** in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error? A. configure matching hold and delay timers B. configure matching key-strings C. configure matching priority values D. configure unique virtual IP addresses

B. configure matching **key-strings**

An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which three commands are required? (Choose three) A. standby 300 timers 1 110 B. standby 300 priority 90 C. standby 300 priority 110 D. standby version 2 E. standby version 1 F. standby 300 preempt

C. standby **300 priority 110** D. standby **version 2** F. standby **300 preempt** In HSRP version 1, group numbers are restricted to the range from 0 to 255. HSRP version 2 expands the group number range from 0 to 4095 -> We must configure HSRP group 300 so we must change to HSRP version 2.

Refer to this output What is the **logging severity level**? R1#Feb 14 37:15:12:429: %LINEPROTO-**5**-UPDOWN Line protocol on interface GigabitEthernet0/1. Change state to up A. Notification B. Alert C. Critical D. Emergency

A. **Notification**

When using **TLS for syslog**, which configuration allows for secure and reliable transportation of messages to its default port? A. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 6514 B. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 6514 C. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport tcp port 514 D. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport udp port 514

A. logging host 10.2.3.4 vrf mgmt transport **tcp** port **6514**

Which component of the Cisco Cyber Threat Defense solution provides **user and flow context analysis**? A. Cisco Firepower and FireSIGHT B. Cisco Stealthwatch system C. Advanced Malware Protection D. Cisco Web Security Appliance

B. Cisco **Stealthwatch** system

Refer to exhibit. What are two reasons for **IP SLA tracking failure**? (Choose two) [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ROUTE/IP_SLA/IP_SLA_reachability.jpg) R1(config)#ip sla 1 R1(config-ip-sla)#icmp-echo 172.20.20.2 source-interface FastEthernet0/0 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#timeout 5000 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#frequency 10 R1(config-ip-sla-echo)#threshold 500 R1(config)#ip sla schedule 1 start-time now life forever R1(config)#track 10 ip sla 1 reachability R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2 track 10 R1(config)#no ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.20.20.2 R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.30.30.2 5 A. The source-interface is configured incorrectly B. The destination must be 172.30.30.2 for icmp-echo C. A route back to the R1 LAN network is missing in R2 D. The default route has wrong next hop IP address E. The threshold value is wrong

A. The **source-interface** is configured **incorrectly** C. A **route back** to the R1 LAN network **is missing** in R2

Refer to the exhibit. ip sla 10 icmp-echo 192.168.10.20 timeout 500 frequency 3 ip sla schedule 10 life forever start-time now track 10 ip sla 10 reachability The IP SLA is configured in a router. An engineer must configure an EEM applet to shut down the interface and bring it back up when there is a problem with the IP SLA. Which configuration should the engineer use? A. event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event track 10 state down B. event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event track 10 state unreachable C. event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event sla 10 state unreachable D. event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event sla 10 state down

A. event manager applet EEM_IP_SLA event **track** 10 **state down**

Which two **statements about IP SLA** are true? (Choose two) A. SNMP access is not supported B. It uses active traffic monitoring C. It is Layer 2 transport-independent D. The IP SLA responder is a component in the source Cisco device E. It can measure MOS F. It uses NetFlow for passive traffic monitoring

B. It uses **active traffic monitoring** C. It is Layer 2 **transport-independent**

Which IP SLA operation requires the **IP SLA responder** to be configured on the remote end? A. ICMP echo B. UDP jitter C. ICMP jitter D. TCP connect

B. **UDP jitter**

A network engineer is configuring **Flexible NetFlow** and enters these commands: Sampler Netflow1 mode random one-out-of 100 interface fastethernet 1/0 flow-sampler netflow1 Which are two results of implementing **this feature instead of traditional NetFlow**? (Choose two) A. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported B. CPU and memory utilization are reduced C. The data export flow is more secure D. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved E. The number of packets to be analyzed are reduced

B. **CPU and memory** utilization are **reduced** E. The **number of packets** to be analyzed are **reduced**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets.jpg) Which command set must be added to the configuration to **analyze 50 packets out of every 100**? A. [Option A](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets_optionA.jpg) B. [Option B](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets_optionB.jpg) C. [Option C](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets_optionC.jpg) D. [Option D](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets_optionD.jpg)

C. [Option C](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NetFlow/NetFlow_analyze_packets_optionC.jpg)

Refer to the exhibit. How can you **configure a second export** destination for IP address 192.168.10.1? configure terminal ip flow-export destination 192.168.10.1 9991 ip flow-export version 9 A. Specify a different TCP port B. Specify a different UDP port C. Specify a VRF D. Configure a version 5 flow-export to the same destination E. Specify a different flow ID

B. Specify a **different UDP port**

A network is being **migrated from IPv4 to IPv6** using a dual-stack approach. Network management is already 100% IPv6 enabled. In a dual-stack network with **two dual-stack NetFlow collections**, how many flow exporters are needed per network device in the flexible NetFlow configuration? A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 8

B. **2**

**Notification** Severity Level

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/SPAN/show_monitor_session_all.jpg) An engineer configures **monitoring** on SW1 and enters the **show command** to **verify** operation. What does the output confirm? A. SPAN session 1 monitors activity on VLAN 50 of a remote switch B. SPAN session 2 only monitors egress traffic exiting port FastEthernet 0/14. C. SPAN session 2 monitors all traffic entering and exiting port FastEthernet 0/15. D. RSPAN session 1 is incompletely configured for monitoring

D. RSPAN **session 1** is **incompletely configured** for monitoring

Refer to the exhibit. ``` vlan 222 remote-span ! vlan 223 remote-span ! monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 tx monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/2 rx monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 5 monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 222 ``` These commands have been added to the configuration of a switch. **Which command flags an error** if it is added to this configuration? A. monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 rx B. monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 6 C. monitor session 1 source vlan 10 D. monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 7, port-channel 8

C. monitor session 1 **source vlan 10**

Refer to the exhibit. monitor session 1 source vlan 10 -12 rx monitor session 1 destination interface gigabitethernet0/1 An engineer must configure a **SPAN session**. What is the **effect of the configuration**? A. Traffic sent on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1. B. Traffic sent on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1. C. Traffic received on VLANs 10 and 12 only is copied and sent to interface g0/1. D. Traffic received on VLANs 10, 11, and 12 is copied and sent to interface g0/1.

D. Traffic **received on VLANs 10, 11, and 12** is copied and sent to interface g0/1.

Refer to the exhibit. vlan 222 remote-span ! vlan 223 remote-span ! monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/1 tx monitor session 1 source interface FastEthernet0/2 rx monitor session 1 source interface port-channel 5 monitor session 1 destination remote vlan 222 ! What is the result when a technician adds the **monitor session 1 destination** remote vlan 223 command? A. The RSPAN VLAN is replaced by VLAN 223 B. RSPAN traffic is sent to VLANs 222 and 223 C. An error is flagged for configuring two destinations D. RSPAN traffic is split between VLANs 222 and 223

A. The RSPAN VLAN is **replaced by VLAN 223**

Which feature must be configured to allow packet **capture over Layer 3** infrastructure? A. VSPAN B. IPSPAN C. RSPAN D. ERSPAN

D. **ERSPAN**

Which statement about an **RSPAN** session configuration is **true**? A. A fitter must be configured for RSPAN Regions B. Only one session can be configured at a time C. A special VLAN type must be used as the RSPAN destination. D. Only incoming traffic can be monitored

C. A **special VLAN type** must be used as the RSPAN destination.

Which two **GRE features** are configured to **prevent fragmentation**? (Choose two) A. TCP window size B. TCP MSS C. IP MTU D. DF bit Clear E. MTU ignore F. PMTUD

B. TCP **MSS** F. **PMTUD**

Which **TCP setting** is tuned to **minimize** the risk of **fragmentation** on a GRE/IP tunnel? A. MTU B. Window size C. MRU D. MSS

D. **MSS**

Refer to exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/GRE/MTU_DF_bit_GRE.jpg) MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and **no MTU command** has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. What happens when a **1500-byte IPv4 packet** traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the **DF bit is cleared**? A. The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation. B. The packet is discarded on router A C. The packet is discarded on router B D. The packet arrives on router C fragmented.

D. The **packet arrives** on router C **fragmented**.

Which statement about **dynamic GRE** between a headend router and a remote router **is true**? A. The headend router learns the IP address of the remote end router statically B. A GRE tunnel without an IP address has a status of administratively down C. GRE tunnels can be established when the remote router has a dynamic IP address D. The remote router initiates the tunnel connection

D. The **remote router initiates** the tunnel **connection**

A GRE tunnel is down with the error message %TUN-5-RECUR DOWN: Tunnel0 temporarily disabled due to **recursive routing error**. Which two options describe possible causes of the error? (Choose two) A. Incorrect destination IP addresses are configured on the tunnel B. There is link flapping on the tunnel C. There is instability in the network due to route flapping D. The tunnel mode and tunnel IP address are misconfigured E. The tunnel destination is being routed out of the tunnel interface

C. There is **instability** in the network due to **route flapping** E. The tunnel destination is being **routed out of the tunnel interface**

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a **GRE** tunnel and enters the **show interface tunnel command**. What does the output confirm about the configuration? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/GRE/GRE_Tunnel_interface_mode.jpg) A. The keepalive value is modified from the default value. B. Interface tracking is configured. C. The tunnel mode is set to the default. D. The physical interface MTU is 1476 bytes.

C. The **tunnel mode** is set to the **default**.

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/GRE/GRE_bring_up.jpg) Which command must be applied to Router1 to **bring** the GRE **tunnel** to an **up/up** state? A. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source Loopback0 B. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/1 C. Router1(config-if)#tunnel mode gre multipoint D. Router1(config)#interface tunnel0

A. Router1(config-if)#tunnel source **Loopback0**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/GRE/GRE_Tunnel_IP.jpg) > Frame 24: 138 bytes on wire (1104 bits), 138 bytes captured (1104 bits) on interface 0 > Ethernet II, Src: 50:00:00:01:00:01 (50:00:00:01:00:01), Dst: 50:00:00:02:00:01 (50:00:00:02:00:01) > Internet Protocol Version 4, Src: 209.165.202.130, Dst: 209.165.202.134 > Generic Routing Encapsulation (IP) > Internet Protocol Version 4, Src: 10.111.111.1, Dst: 10.111.111.2 > Internet Control Message Protocol A GRE **tunnel** has been created between HQ and BR routers. What is the tunnel **IP on the HQ router**? A. 209.165.202.130 B. 10.111.111.2 C. 10.111.111.1 D. 209.165.202.134

C. **10**.111.111.**1**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/GRE/GRE_Tunnel_IP.jpg) Which **configuration** must be **applied** to the **HQ router** to set up a GRE tunnel between the HQ and BR routers? A. interface Tunnel1 ip address 209.165.202.130 255.255.255.252 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129 B. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.133 C. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.134 D. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.129

C. interface Tunnel1 ip address 10.111.111.1 255.255.255.0 tunnel source GigabitEthernet0/0 tunnel destination 209.165.202.**134**

Which **IPv6** migration method relies on **dynamic tunnels** that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space? A. 6RD B. 6to4 C. ISATAP D. GRE

B. **6to4**

Refer to the exhibit. access-list 1 permit 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.255 ip nat inside source list 1 interface gigabitethernet0/0 overload The **inside and outside** interfaces in the NAT configuration of this device have been correctly **identified**. What is the effect of this configuration? A. dynamic NAT B. static NAT C. PAT D. NAT64

C. **PAT**

Refer to the exhibit. What are **two effect** of this configuration? (Choose two) ``` access-list 1 permit 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.31 ip nat pool CISCO 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.30 netmask 255.255.255.224 ip nat inside source list 1 pool CISCO ``` A. Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet B. It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation C. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range D. The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range E. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses

A. **Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet** E. The **10.1.1.0/27** subnet is assigned as the **inside local** addresses

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NAT/nat_static.jpg) R1(config)# ip nat inside source static 10.70.5.1 10.45.1.7 A network architect has **partially** configured **static NAT**. which commands should be asked to complete the configuration? A. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat outside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat inside B. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat outside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat inside C. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip nat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip nat outside D. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip pat inside R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip pat outside

B. R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config)#ip **nat outside** R1(config)#interface GigabitEthernet0/1 R1(config)#ip **nat inside**

Refer to the exhibit. interface FastEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.224 ip nat outside ! interface FastEthernet0/2 ip address 10.10.10.1 255.255.255.0 ip nat inside ! access-list 10 permit 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 ! Which command **allows hosts** that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to **access the Internet**? A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload B. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload C. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload D. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload

A. ip **nat inside** source list 10 interface **FastEthernet0/1 overload**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NAT/NAT_access_Internet.jpg) An engineer must allow all users in the 10.2.2.0/24 subnet to access the Internet. To **conserve** address space, the **public** interface **address** of 209.165.201.1 must be used for all external communication. Which command set accomplishes these requirements? A. access-list 10 permit 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 interface G0/3 ip nat outside interface G0/2 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 10 interface G0/2 overload B. access-list 10 permit 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 interface G0/3 ip nat outside interface G0/2 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 10 209.165.201.1 C. access-list 10 permit 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 interface G0/3 ip nat outside interface G0/2 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 10 interface G0/3 D. access-list 10 permit 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 interface G0/3 ip nat outside interface G0/2 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 10 interface G0/3 overload

D. access-list 10 permit 10.2.2.0 0.0.0.255 interface G0/3 ip nat outside interface G0/2 ip nat inside ip nat inside source list 10 interface **G0/3 overload**

What is the **primary effect** of the spanning-tree **portfast** command? A. It enables BPDU messages B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state

B. It **minimizes** spanning-tree **convergence time**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/bpduguard.jpg) An engineer **reconfigures the port-channel** between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this **error** in SW1’s log. %PM-SP-4-ERR_DISABLE: bpduguard error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state. Which command set resolves this error? A. Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut B. Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut C. Sw1(config)# interface G0/1 Sw1(config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut D. Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# no spanning-tree bpdufilter Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut

A. Sw1(config)# interface G0/0 Sw1(config-if)# **no spanning-tree bpduguard enable** Sw1(config-if)# shut Sw1(config-if)# no shut

Refer to the exhibit. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the **fiber port is blocked** by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-**priority 32** command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. [Image1](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/spanning_tree_port_priority.jpg) [Image2](https://i.imgur.com/jgQmGC5.png) Which **command** should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 **to resolve the issue**? A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1 B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1 C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2 D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2

A. Enter spanning-tree port-**priority 32** on **SW1**

What would be the preferred way to implement a loopless switch network where there are **1500 defined VLANs** and it is necessary to load the shared traffic through two main aggregation points based on the VLAN identifier? A. 802.1D B. 802.1s C. 802.1W D. 802.1AE

B. 802.**1s**

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that **DSW1 becomes root bridge** for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two) [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/show_spanning_tree_mst.jpg) A. spanning-tree mstp 1 priority 0 B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096 E. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1 F. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary

B. spanning-tree **mst 1 root primary** D. spanning-tree **mst 1 priority 4096**

Refer to the exhibit. Assuming all links are functional, **which path** does PC1 take **to reach DSW1**? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/Root_Bridge.jpg) A. PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW1 B. PC1 goes form ALSW1 to DSW2 to ALSW2 to DSW1 C. PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to Core to DSW1 D. PC1 goes from ALSW1 to DSW2 to DSW1

D. PC1 goes from ALSW1 to **DSW2 to DSW1**

In a **traditional 3 tier topology**, an engineer must explicitly **configure** a switch as the **root bridge** and exclude it from any further election process for the spanning-tree domain. Which action accomplishes this task? A. Configure the spanning-tree priority to 32768 B. Configure root guard and portfast on all access switch ports C. Configure BPDU guard in all switch-to-switch connections D. Configure the spanning-tree priority equal to 0

B. Configure **root guard** and **portfast** on all access switch ports

Refer to the exhibit. [Image1](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/STP/show_spanning-tree_vlan_10_bpduguard.jpg) [Image2](https://i.imgur.com/sx1dPPO.png) An engineer entered the **no spanning-tree bpduguard enable** on interface fa1/0/7 command. Which statement describes the effect of this command? A. Fa1/0/7 remains in err-disabled state until the shutdown/no shutdown command is entered in the interface configuration mode B. Interface Fa1/0/7 remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery cause bpduguard command is entered in the interface configuration mode C. Fa1/0/7 remains in err-disabled state until the errdisable recovery bpduguard command is entered in the interface configuration mode D. Interface Fa1/0/7 remains in err-disabled state until the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard disable command is entered in the interface configuration mode E. Interface Fa1/0/7 returns to an up and operational state

A. Fa1/0/7 remains in err-disabled state **until** the **shutdown/no shutdown** command is entered in the interface configuration mode

At which **layer** does Cisco DNA Center **support REST** controls? A. EEM applets or scripts B. Session layer C. YMAL output from responses to API calls D. Northbound APIs

D. **Northbound** APIs

Which **two steps** are required for a complete Cisco **DNA** Center **upgrade**? (Choose two) A. golden image selection B. automation backup C. proxy configuration D. application updates E. system update

D. **application** updates E. **system** update

Which tool is used in Cisco DNA Center to **build generic configurations** that are able to be applied on device with similar network settings? A. Command Runner B. Template Editor C. Application Policies D. Authentication Template

B. **Template** Editor

Which **devices** does Cisco DNA Center configure when deploying an **IP-based access control policy**? A. All devices integrating with ISE B. selected individual devices C. all devices in selected sites D. all wired devices

C. **all devices** in selected **sites**

What does the Cisco DNA Center use to enable the **delivery of applications** through a network and to yield **analytics for innovation**? A. process adapters B. Command Runner C. intent-based APIs D. domain adapters

C. intent-based **APIs**

An engineer uses the **Design workflow** to create a new network infrastructure in Cisco DNA Center. How is the **physical** network device **hierarchy** structured? A. by location B. by role C. by organization D. by hostname naming convention

A. by **location**

Which three **methods** does Cisco DNA Center use to **discover devices**? (Choose three) A. CDP B. LLDP C. SNMP D. ping E. NETCONF F. a specified range of IP addresses

A. **CDP** B. **LLDP** F. a specified **range of IP** addresses

Which two **characteristics** define the **Intent API** provided by Cisco DNA Center? (Choose two) A. northbound API B. southbound API C. device-oriented D. business outcome oriented E. procedural

A. **northbound** API D. **business** outcome oriented

Which method does Cisco DNA Center use to allow **management of non-Cisco devices** through southbound protocols? A. It creates device packs through the use of an SDK B. It obtains MIBs from each vendor that details the APIs available. C. It uses an API call to interrogate the devices and register the returned data. D. It imports available APIs for the non-Cisco device in a CSV format.

A. It creates **device packs** through the use of an **SDK**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/DNA_Center/DNA_Center_ISE.jpg) Cisco DNA Center has obtained the **username** of the client and the **multiple devices** that the client is using on the network. How is Cisco DNA Center getting these **context details**? A. Those details are provided to Cisco DNA Center by the Identity Services Engine B. The administrator had to assign the username to the IP address manually in the user database tool on Cisco DNA Center C. User entered those details in the Assurance app available on iOS and Android devices D. Cisco DNA Center pulled those details directly from the edge node where the user connected

A. Those details are **provided** to Cisco DNA Center **by** the **Identity Services Engine**

Refer to the exhibit. Which **privilege** level is assigned to **VTY users**? [Image](https://i.imgur.com/szs1IsH.png) A. 1 B. 7 C. 13 D. 15

A. **1** ## Footnote Explanation Lines (CON, AUX, VTY) default to level 1 privileges.

Which technology provides a **secure communication** channel for all traffic at **Layer 2** of the OSI model? A. MACsec B. IPsec C. SSL D. Cisco Trustsec

A. **MACsec**

Which feature does Cisco **TrustSec** use to provide **scalable, secure** communication throughout a network? A. security group tag ACL assigned to each port on a switch B. security group tag number assigned to each port on a network C. security group tag number assigned to each user on a switch D. security group tag ACL assigned to each router on a network

C. security group **tag number** assigned **to each user** on a switch

How does Cisco **Trustsec** enable **more access controls** for dynamic networking environments and **data centers**? A. uses flexible NetFlow B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

C. **classifies traffic** based on the **contextual identity** of the endpoint rather than its IP address

What is the **difference** between the **enable password** and the **enable secret** password when password encryption is enable on an IOS device? A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically C. The enable password cannot be decrypted D. The enable secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms

D. The **enable secret** password is protected via **stronger cryptography** mechanisms

Which **NGFW** mode **block flows crossing the firewall**? A. Passive B. Tap C. Inline tap D. Inline

D. **Inline**

Which method does the **enable secret** password option **use to encrypt** device passwords? A. AES B. CHAP C. PAP D. MD5

D. **MD5**

An engineer must protect their company against **ransomware attacks**. Which solution allows the engineer to **block the execution stage** and prevent file encryption? A. Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Malicious Activity Protection engine enabled B. Use Cisco AMP deployment with the Exploit Prevention engine enabled C. Use Cisco Firepower and block traffic to TOR networks D. Use Cisco Firepower with Intrusion Policy and snort rules blocking SMB exploitation

A. Use Cisco **AMP deployment** with the **Malicious Activity Protection** engine enabled

Which deployment option of Cisco **NGFW** provides **scalability**? A. tap B. clustering C. inline tap D. high availability

B. **clustering**

Refer to the exhibit. ``` Router#sh run | b vty line vty 0 4 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 20 0 session-limit 30 login local line vty 5 15 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 20 0 session-limit 30 login local ``` Security policy requires all idle-exec **sessions to be terminated in 600 seconds**. Which configuration achieves this goal? A. line vty 0 15 exec-timeout 10 0 B. line vty 0 15 exec-timeout C. line vty 0 15 absolute-timeout 600 D. line vty 0 4 exec-timeout 600

A. line vty **0 15** **exec-timeout 10 0**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Security/not_secured.jpg) An engineer is designing a **guest portal** on Cisco **ISE** using the default configuration. During the testing phase, the engineer **receives a warning** when displaying the guest portal. Which issue is occurring? A. The server that is providing the portal has an expired certificate B. The server that is providing the portal has a self-signed certificate C. The connection is using an unsupported protocol D. The connection is using an unsupported browser

B. The server that is providing the portal has a **self-signed certificate**

Which standard access control entry permits from **odd-numbered** hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet? A. Permit 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.1 B. Permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.0 C. Permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254 D. Permit 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.254

C. Permit 10.0.0.**1** 0.0.0.**254**

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must **block** all **traffic** from a router to its directly connected subnet 209.165.200.0/24. The engineer applies access control list **EGRESS** in the outbound direction on the GigabitEthemet0/0 interface of the router. However, the router can still ping hosts on the 209.165.200.0/24 subnet. Which explanation of this behavior is true? [Image](https://i.imgur.com/ICX6wig.png) A. Access control lists that are applied outbound to a router interface do not affect traffic that is sourced from the router B. Only standard access control lists can block traffic from a source IP address C. After an access control list is applied to an interface, that interface must be shut and no shut for the access control list to take effect D. The access control list must contain an explicit deny to block traffic from the router

A. **Access control lists** that are applied **outbound** to a router interface **do not affect traffic** that is sourced from the router

A client with IP address 209.165.201.25 must access a **web server** on port 80 at 209.165.200.225. To **allow this traffic**, an engineer must add a statement to an access control list that is applied in the inbound direction on the port connecting to the web server. Which statement allows this traffic? A. permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 eq 80 host 209.165.200.225 B. permit tcp host 209.165.201.25 host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 C. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 eq 80 host 209.165.201.25 D. permit tcp host 209.165.200.225 host 209.165.201.25 eq 80

C. permit tcp host 209.165.200.**225 eq 80** host 209.165.201.**25**

Which access controls list allows only TCP traffic with a destination port range of **22-443**, **excluding** port **80**? A. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tcp any any gt 21 lt 444 B. Permit tcp any any neq 80 C. Permit tcp any any range 22 443 Deny tcp any any eq 80 D. Deny tcp any any neq 80 Permit tcp any any range 22 443

A. Deny tcp any any eq 80 Permit tcp any any gt 21 lt 444 ## Footnote Maybe A... https://www.digitaltut.com/access-list-questions

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must **modify** the access control **list** EGRESS to allow all IP traffic from subnet 10.1.10.0/24 to 10.1.2.0/24. The access control list is applied in the **outbound direction** on router interface GigabitEthemet 0/1. Extended IP access list EGRESS 10 permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 20 deny ip any any Which configuration commands can the engineer use to allow this traffic without disrupting existing traffic flows? A. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 255.255.255.0 10.1.2.0 255.255.255.0 B. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS 5 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255 C. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS2 permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.295 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.299 permit ip 10.1.100.0 0.0.0.299 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.299 deny ip any any ! interface g0/1 no ip access-group EGRESS out ip access-group EGRESS2 out D. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.1.2.0 0.0.0.255

B. config t ip access-list extended EGRESS **5** permit ip 10.1.10.0 0.0.0.255 10.**1.2**.0 **0.0.0.255**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Access-list/Access_list_time_range.jpg) An engineer must **deny Telnet** traffic from the loopback interface of router R3 to the loopback interface of router R2 during the weekend hours. All other traffic between the **loopback** interfaces of routers R3 and R2 must be **allowed** at all times. Which command accomplish this task? A. R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic Saturday Sunday 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out B. R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic Friday Sunday 00:00 to 00:00 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in C. R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 in D. R3(config)#time-range WEEKEND R3(config-time-range)#periodic weekend 00:00 to 23:59 R3(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any time-range WEEKEND R3(config)#interface Gi0/1 R3(config-if)#ip access-group 150 out

C. R1(config)#time-range WEEKEND R1(config-time-range)#periodic **weekend 00:00 to 23:59** R1(config)#access-list 150 deny tcp host 10.3.3.3 host 10.2.2.2 eq 23 time-range WEEKEND R1(config)#access-list 150 permit ip any any R1(config)#interface Gi0/1 R1(config-if)#ip access-group 150 **in**

What is the **result** of **applying** this access control **list**? ``` ip access-list extended STATEFUL 10 permit tcp any any established 20 deny ip any any ``` A. TCP traffic with the DF bit set is allowed B. TCP traffic with the SYN bit set is allowed C. TCP traffic with the ACK bit set is allowed D. TCP traffic with the URG bit set is allowed

C. TCP traffic with the **ACK bit set** is allowed

Refer to the exhibit. PC-1 must access the **web server** on **port 8080**. To **allow** this traffic, which statement must be added to an access control list that is applied on SW2 port G0/0 in the inbound direction? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Access-list/access_web_server.jpg) A. permit host 172.16.0.2 host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 B. permit host 192.168.0.5 host 172.16.0.2 eq 8080 C. permit host 192.168.0.5 eq 8080 host 172.16.0.2 D. permit host 192.168.0.5 it 8080 host 172.16.0.2

C. permit host 192.168.0.**5 eq 8080** host 172.16.0.2

Which **outbound** access list, applied to the **WAN interface** of a router, permits all traffic **except for http** traffic sourced from the workstation with IP address 10.10.10.1? A. ip access-list extended 200 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 eq 80 any permit ip any any B. ip access-list extended 10 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 permit ip any any C. ip access-list extended NO_HTTP deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 D. ip access-list extended 100 deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 any eq 80 permit ip any any

D. ip access-list **extended 100** deny tcp host 10.10.10.1 **any eq 80** **permit ip any any**

Refer to the exhibit. [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Access-list/Blocking_ACL.jpg) The **traceroute fails** from R1 to R3. What is the **cause** of the failure? A. An ACL applied inbound on fa0/1 of R3 is dropping the traffic B. An ACL applied inbound on loopback0 of R2 is dropping the traffic C. The loopback on R3 is in a shutdown state D. Redistribution of connected routes into OSPF is not configured

A. An **ACL** applied **inbound** on **fa**0/1 of **R3** is dropping the traffic.

An engineer must configure a ACL that **permits** packets which include an **ACK** in the **TCP header**. Which entry must be included in the ACL? A. access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 tcp-ack B. access-list 10 permit ip any any eq 21 tcp-ack C. access-list 10 permit tcp any any eq 21 established D. access-list 110 permit tcp any any eq 21 established

D. access-list **110** permit tcp any any eq 21 **established**

Refer to the exhibit. ``` line vty 0 4 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 120 0 session-limit 30 login local line vty 5 15 session-timeout 30 exec-timeout 30 0 session-limit 30 login local ``` Only administrators from the **subnet 10.10.10.0/24** are permitted to have access to the router. A **secure protocol** must be used for the remote access and management of the router instead of clear-text protocols. Which configuration achieves this goal? A. access-list 23 permit 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 line vty 0 4 access-class 23 in transport input ssh B. access-list 23 permit 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 line vty 0 15 access-class 23 in transport input ssh C. access-list 23 permit 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 line vty 0 15 access-class 23 out transport input all D. access-list 23 permit 10.10.10.0 255.0.0.0 line vty 0 15 access-class 23 in transport input ssh

B. access-list 23 permit 10.10.10.0 **0.0.0.255** line vty **0 15** access-class 23 **in** transport input **ssh**

When are **multicast RPs required**? A. RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode B. RPs are required for protocol independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode C. By default, the RP is needed periodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers D. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers

D. By **default**, the RP is **needed** **only** to start **new sessions** with sources and receivers

What **mechanism** does **PIM** use to **forward** multicast traffic? A. PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic B. PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic C. PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP D. PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic

A. PIM **sparse** mode uses a **pull model** to deliver multicast traffic

What is the role of the **RP** in PIM **sparse** mode? A. The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of requested multicast group B. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers C. The RP acts as a control-plane node and does not receive or forward multicast packets D. The RP is the multicast that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree

D. The **RP** is the multicast that is the **root** of the **PIM-SM** shared multicast distribution tree

What is the purpose of an **RP** in **PIM**? A. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver. B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver. C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers. D. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT

D. **send join messages** toward a multicast source **SPT**

Which router is elected the **IGMP Querier** when **more than one router** is in the same LAN segment? A. The router with the shortest uptime B. The router with the lowest IP address C. The router with the highest IP address D. The router with the longest uptime

B. The router with the **lowest IP** address

What NTP **stratum** level is a server that is **connected** directly to an **authoritative** time source? A. Stratum 0 B. Stratum 1 C. Stratum 14 D. Stratum 15

B. Stratum **1**

Which two **security features** are available when implementing **NTP**? (Choose two) A. encrypted authentication mechanism B. clock offset authentication C. broadcast association mode D. access list based restriction scheme E. symmetric server passwords

A. **encrypted authentication** mechanism D. **access list** based restriction scheme

Which two **mechanisms** are available to **secure NTP**? (Choose two) A. IP prefix list-based B. IPsec C. TACACS-based authentication D. IP access list-based E. Encrypted authentication

D. **IP access list**-based E. **Encrypted authentication**

Why would a log file contain **a * next to the date**? A. The network device is not configured to use NTP time stamps for logging. B. The network device was unable to reach the NTP server when the log messages were recorded. C. The network device is not configured to use NTP D. The network device was receiving NTP time when the log messages were recorded

C. **The network device is not configured to use NTP**

Which configuration **restricts** the amount of **SSH** that a router accepts **100 kbps**? A. ``` class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! ``` B. ``` class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir CoPP_SSH exceed-action drop ! ! ! interface GigabitEthernet0/1 ip address 209.165.200.225 255.255.255.0 ip access-group CoPP_SSH out duplex auto speed auto media-type rj45 service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH deny tcp any any eq 22 ! ``` C. ``` class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! ``` D. ``` class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir 100000 exceed-action drop ! ! ! control-plane transit service-policy input CoPP_SSH ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 ! ```

C. class-map match-all CoPP_SSH match access-group name CoPP_SSH ! policy-map CoPP_SSH class CoPP_SSH police cir **100000** exceed-action drop ! ! ! **control-plane service-policy input CoPP_SSH** ! ip access-list extended CoPP_SSH permit tcp any any eq 22 !

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configures CoPP and enters the show command to verify the implementation. What is the result of the configuration? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/CoPP/CoPP_config.jpg) A. All traffic will be policed based on access-list 120 B. If traffic exceeds the specified rate, it will be transmitted and remarked C. Class-default traffic will be dropped D. ICMP will be denied based on this configuration

A. All **traffic** will be **policed** based on **access-list** 120

Which requirement for an **Ansible-managed node** is true? A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device B. It must have an SSH server running C. It must support ad hoc commands. D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed

B. It must have an **SSH server** running

Which statement about **TLS** is true when using **RESTCONF to write** configurations on network devices? A. It is provided using NGINX acting as a proxy web server B. It is no supported on Cisco devices C. It required certificates for authentication D. It is used for HTTP and HTTPs requests

A. It is provided using **NGINX** acting as a proxy web server

Which two **operations** are **valid for RESTCONF**? (Choose two) A. HEAD B. REMOVE C. PULL D. PATCH E. ADD F. PUSH

A. **HEAD** D. **PATCH**

Which exhibit displays a **valid JSON** file? A. ``` { “hostname”: “edge_router_1” “interfaces”: { “GigabitEthernet1/1” “GigabitEthernet1/2” “GigabitEthernet1/3” } } ``` B. ``` { “hostname”: “edge_router_1” “interfaces”: { “GigabitEthernet1/1”, “GigabitEthernet1/2”, “GigabitEthernet1/3”, }, } ``` C. ``` { “hostname”: “edge_router_1” “interfaces”: [ “GigabitEthernet1/1” “GigabitEthernet1/2” “GigabitEthernet1/3” ] } ``` D. ``` { “hostname”: “edge_router_1”, “interfaces”: [ “GigabitEthernet1/1”, “GigabitEthernet1/2”, “GigabitEthernet1/3” ] } ```

D. ``` { “hostname”: “edge_router_1”, “interfaces”: [ “GigabitEthernet1/1”, “GigabitEthernet1/2”, “GigabitEthernet1/3” ] } ```

Which method creates an **EEM applet** policy that is registered with EEM and runs **on demand** or **manually**? A. ``` event manager applet ondemand event register action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ ``` B. ``` event manager applet ondemand event manual action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ ``` C. ``` event manager applet ondemand event none action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ ``` D. ``` event manager applet ondemand action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ ```

C. ``` event manager applet ondemand **event none** action 1.0 syslog priority critical msg ‘This is a message from ondemand’ ```

What does this **EEM applet** event **accomplish**? “event snmp oid 1.3.6.1.3.7.1.5.1.2.4.2.9 get-type next entry-op ge entry-val **75 poll-interval 5**” A. It issues email when the value is greater than 75% for five polling cycles B. It reads an SNMP variable, and when the value exceeds 75%, it triggers an action C. It presents a SNMP variable that can be interrogated D. Upon the value reaching 75%, a SNMP event is generated and sent to the trap server

B. It **reads** an **SNMP variable**, and when the value **exceeds 75%**, it triggers an action

What is the structure of a **JSON web token**? A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature B. header and payload C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature D. payload and signature

A. **three parts** separated by dots **header** payload, and signature

Refer to the exhibit. Which **two** statements about the **EEM** applet **configuration** are true? (Choose two) [Image](https://i.imgur.com/Oc9URMX.png) A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI

A. The EEM applet **runs before** the CLI command is executed D. The running configuration is **displayed** only if the **letter Y** is entered at the CLI

Refer to the exhibit. Which **network script automation option** or tool is used in the exhibit? https://mydevice.mycompany.com/getstuff?queryName=errors&queryResults=yes A. EEM B. Python C. Bash script D. NETCONF E. REST

D. **NETCONF**

Which two **protocols** are used **with YANG** data models? (Choose two) A. HTTPS B. SSH C. RESTCONF D. TLS E. NETCONF

C. **RESTCONF** E. **NETCONF**

Which **protocol** does **REST API** rely on to **secure** the communication channel? A. TCP B. HTTPS C. SSH D. HTTP

B. **HTTPS**

Which JSON syntax is valid? A. `{“switch”:”name”:”dist1″,”interfaces”:[“gig1″,”gig2″,”gig3”]}` B. `{‘switch’:(‘name’:’dist1′,’interfaces’:[‘gig1′,’gig2′,’gig3’])}` C. `{“switch”:{“name”:”dist1″,”interfaces”:[“gig1″,”gig2″,”gig3”]}}` D. `{/”switch/”:{/”name/”:”dist1″,/”interfaces/”:[“gig1″,”gig2″,”gig3”]}}`

C. `{“switch”:{“name”:”dist1″,”interfaces”:[“gig1″,”gig2″,”gig3”]}}`

Which statements are used for **error handling in Python**? A. try/catch B. try/except C. block/rescue D. catch/release

B. **try/except**

Refer to the exhibit. Which **HTTP JSON response** does the python **code output** give? [Image](https://i.imgur.com/iEp8q97.png) A. NameError: name ‘json’ is not defined B. KeyError ‘kickstart_ver_str’ C. 7.61 D. 7.0(3)I7(4)

D. **7.0(3)I7(4)** [Image](https://imgur.com/a/D1Ld9wD)

Which **data modeling** language is commonly **used by NETCONF**? A. HTML B. XML C. YANG D. REST

C. **YANG**

A response code of **404** is received while using the REST API on Cisco DNA Center to POST to this URL /dna/intent/api/v1/**template-programmer/project** What does the code mean? A. The client made a request a resource that does not exist B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request C. The request accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, information about the resource is in the response body

A. The client made a request a **resource** that does **not exist**

Which HTTP **status code** is the correct response for a request with an **incorrect password** applied to a REST API session? A. HTTP Status Code 200 B. HTTP Status Code 302 C. HTTP Status Code 401 D. HTTP Status Code 504

C. HTTP Status Code **401**

In which part of the **HTTP** message is the **content type specified**? A. HTTP method B. URI C. header D. body

C. **header**

What do Cisco DNA **southbound** APIs provide? A. Interface between the controller and the network devices B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication C. RESTful API interface for orchestrator communication D. Interface between the controller and the consumer

A. **Interface between** the **controller** and the network **devices** [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/SDN/Southbound_Northbound_APIs.jpg)

Which method displays **text directly into the active console** with a synchronous **EEM** applet policy? A. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 gets ‘logging directly to console’ B. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg ‘log directly to console’ C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 puts ‘logging directly to console’ D. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 string ‘logging directly to console’

C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern ‘UP’ action 1.0 **puts** ‘logging directly to console’

Refer to the exhibit. What is the **JSON syntax** that is formed the data? Name is **Bob Johnson** Age is 76 Is alive Favorite foods are: + Cereal + Mustard + Onions A. Name: Bob, Johnson, Age: 76, Alive: true, Favourite Foods. [Cereal, “Mustard”, “Onions}} B. Name”, “Bob Johnson”, “Age”, 76, “Alive”, true, “favourite Foods”, [“Cereal, “Mustard”, Onions”}} C. Name’, ‘Bob Johnson,’ ‘Age’, 76, ‘Alive’, true, ‘favourite Foods’ ‘Cereal Mustard’, ‘Onions’} D. Name”, “Bob Johnson”, “Age”: Seventysix, “Alive” true, “favourite Foods” ,[Cereal” “Mustard” “Onions”}} E. {“Name”:”Bob Johnson”,”age”:76,”alive”:true,”favorite foods”:[“Cereal”,”Mustard”,”Onions”]}

E. **{**“Name”:”Bob Johnson”,”age”:76,”alive”:true,”favorite foods”:[“Cereal”,”Mustard”,”Onions”]**}**

Which statement about **agent-based versus agentless** configuration management tools is true? A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves. B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes. C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes. D. Agent-based tools do not require installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

A. **Agentless tools require no messaging** systems between master and slaves.

What is a **benefit of data modeling** languages **like YANG**? A. They enable programmers to change or write their own application within the device operating system. B. They create more secure and efficient SNMP OIDs. C. They make the CLI simpler and more efficient. D. They provide a standardized data structure, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

D. They **provide a standardized data structure**, which results in configuration scalability and consistency.

Which **variable** in an **EEM** applet is set when you use the **sync yes** option? A. $_cli_result B. $_result C. $_string_result D. $_exit_status

D. `$_exit_status` ## Footnote Explanation With Synchronous ( sync yes), the CLI command in question is not executed until the policy exits. Whether or not the command runs depends on the value for the variable _exit_status. If _exit_status is 1, the command runs, if it is 0, the command is skipped.

Which protocol **infers** that a **YANG** data model is being used? A. SNMP B. REST C. RESTCONF D. NX-API

C. **RESTCONF**

Which algorithms are used to **secure REST API** from **brute attacks** and minimize the impact? A. SHA-512 and SHA-384 B. MD5 algorithm-128 and SHA-384 C. SHA-1, SHA-256, and SHA-512 D. PBKDF2, BCrypt, and SCrypt

D. **PBKDF2**, **BCrypt**, and **SCrypt**

A network administrator is preparing a **Python script** to configure a Cisco IOS XE-based device on the network. The administrator is worried that colleagues will make changes to the device while the script is running. Which operation of the client manager in **prevent** colleague **making changes** to the device while the script is running? A. m.lock(config=’running’) B. m.lock(target=’running’) C. m.freeze(target=’running’) D. m.freeze(config=’running’)

B. m.**lock**(**target**=’running’)

Which method of account authentication does **OAuth 2.0 within REST APIs**? A. username/role combination B. access tokens C. cookie authentication D. basic signature workflow

B. **access** tokens

Which characteristic **distinguishes Ansible from Chef**? A. Ansible lacks redundancy support for the master server. Chef runs two masters in an active/active mode B. Ansible uses Ruby to manage configurations. Chef uses YAML to manage configurations C. Ansible pushes the configuration to the client. Chef client pulls the configuration from the server D. The Ansible server can run on Linux, Unix or Windows. The Chef server must run on Linux or Unix

C. **Ansible pushes** the configuration to the client. **Chef** client **pulls** the configuration from the server

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using **XML** in an application to send information to a **RESTCONF-enabled** device. After sending the request, the engineer gets this response message and a HTTP response code of **400**. What do these responses tell the engineer? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NETCONF_RESTCONF/HTTP_400.jpg) A. POST was used instead of PUT to update B. The Accept header sent was application/xml C. The Content-Type header sent was application/xml. D. JSON body was used

B. The **Accept header** sent was **application/xml**

**How** is a **data modeling language used**? A. To enable data to be easily structured, grouped validated, and replicated B. To represent finite and well-defined network elements that cannot be changed C. To model the flows of unstructured data within the infrastructure D. To provide human readability to scripting languages

A. To enable **data** to be **easily** **structured**, **grouped** **validated**, and **replicated**

Refer to the exhibit. What does the **error message** relay to the administrator who is trying to configure a Cisco IOS device? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/NETCONF_RESTCONF/NETCONF_error_message.jpg) A. A NETCONF request was made for a data model that does not exist. B. The device received a valid NETCONF request and serviced it without error. C. A NETCONF message with valid content based on the YANG data models was made, but the request failed. D. The NETCONF running datastore is currently locked.

A. A NETCONF request was made for a data model that **does not exist**.

Refer to the exhibit. What does the snippet of code achieve? [Image](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Python/ncclient_connect.jpg) A. It creates an SSH connection using the SSH key that is stored and the password is ignored B. It creates a temporary connection to a Cisco Nexus device and retrieves a token to be used for API calls C. It opens an ncclient connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context D. It opens a tunnel and encapsulates the login information, if the host key is correct

C. It opens an **ncclient** connection to a Cisco Nexus device and maintains it for the duration of the context

What is used to **validate the authenticity** of the client and is sent in HTTP requests as a JSON object? A. SSH B. HTTPS C. JWT D. TLS

C. **JWT**

Refer to the exhibit. Make is Gocar Model is Zoom Features are + Power Windows + Manual Drive + Auto AC What is the JSON syntax that is formed from the data? A. Make”:’Gocar, “Model’: “Zoom”, “Features”: [“Power Windows”, “Manual Dnve”, “Auto AC”]} B. (“Make”:[ “Gocar”, “Model”: “Zoom”], Features”: [“Power Windows”, “Manual Drive”, “Auto AC”]} C. {“Make”: Gocar, “Model”: Zoom, “Features”: Power Windows, Manual Drive, Auto AC} D. {“Make”: “Gocar”, “Model”: “Zoom”, “Features”: [“Power Windows”, “Manual Drive”, “Auto AC”]}

D. {“Make”: **“**Gocar**”**, “Model”: “Zoom”, “Features”: **[**“Power Windows”, “Manual Drive”, “Auto AC”**]**}

A network administrator is implementing a routing configuration change and enables routing debugs to track routing behavior during the change. The logging **output** on the terminal is **interrupting** the command **typing** process. Which two actions can the network administrator take to minimize the possibility of typing commands incorrectly? (Choose two) A. Configure the logging synchronous global configuration command B. Configure the logging delimiter feature C. Configure the logging synchronous command under the vty D. Press the TAB key to reprint the command in a new line E. Increase the number of lines on the screen using the terminal length command

C. Configure the **logging synchronous** command under the **vty** D. **Press** the **TAB** key to reprint the command in a new line

Which action is performed by **Link Management** Protocol in a Cisco **stackwise** virtual domain? A. It discovers the stackwise domain and brings up SVL interfaces B. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding C. It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the stackwise virtual domain D. It determines which switch becomes active or standby

B. It **rejects** any **unidirectional** link traffic forwarding

An engineer reviews a router’s **logs** and **discovers** the following entry. What is the event’s logging **severity** level? Router# *Feb 03 11:13:44 334: %LINK-**3**-UPDOWN: Interface GigabitEthernet0/1, changed state to up A. error B. notification C. informational D. warning

A. **error**

Error severity log

What does **Call Admission Control** require the client to send in order to reserve the bandwidth? A. SIP flow information B. Wi-Fi multimedia C. traffic specification D. VoIP media session awareness

C. **traffic** specification

What are two considerations when using **SSO** as a network **redundancy feature**? (Choose two) A. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations B. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations C. both supervisors must be configured separately D. the multicast state is preserved during switchover E. requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity

B. must be **combined with NSF** to support uninterrupted **Layer 3** operations E. **requires synchronization** between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity

[OSPF x EIGRP 1](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/OSPF_EIGRP.jpg)

**OSPF**: + link state routing protocol + makes it easy to segment the network logically + constructs three tables as part of its operation: neighbor table, topology table and routing table (?) **EIGRP**: + supports unequal path load balancing + distance vector routing protocol + metric is based on delay and bandwidth by default

[On Premise x Cloud 1](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/Infrastructure_deployment.jpg)

**On Premises**: + resources can be over or underutilized as requirements vary + customizable hardware, purpose-built systems + more suitable for companies with specific regulatory or security requirements **Cloud**: + easy to scale and upgrade + requires a strong and stable internet connection + built-in, automated data backups and recovery

[Traffic Policing x Traffic Shaping](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/Traffic_Policing_Traffic_Shaping.jpg)

**Traffic Policing**: + introduces no delay and jitter + drops excessive traffic + causes TCP retransmission when traffic is dropped **Traffic Shaping**: + buffers excessive traffic + introduces delay and jitter + typically delays, rather than drops traffic

[LISP Components](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/LISP_components.jpg)

+ accepts LISP encapsulated map requests: **LISP map resolver** + learns of EID prefix mapping entries from an ETR: **LISP map server** + receives traffic from LISP sites and sends it to non-LISP sites: **LISP proxy ETR** + receives packets from site-facing interfaces: **LISP ITR**

[OSPF x EIGRP 2](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/OSPF_EIGRP_differences.jpg)

**OSPF**: + uses areas to segment a network + summarizes can be created in specific parts of the IGP topology **EIGRP**: + summaries can be created anywhere in the IGP topology + DUAL algorithm

[REST API authentication method](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/REST_API_Authentication.jpg)

+ public API resource: **secure vault** + username and password in an encoded string: **HTTP basic authentication** + API-dependent secret: **token-based authentication** + authorization through identity provider: **OAuth**

[QoS mechanisms](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/QoS_mechanisms.jpg)

+ bandwidth management technique which delays datagrams: **shaping** + mechanism to create a scheduler for packets prior to forwarding: **policy map** + portion of the IP header used to classify packets: **DSCP** + mechanism to apply a QoS policy to an interface: **service policy** + tool to enforce rate-limiting on ingress/egress: **policing** + portion of the 802.1Q header used to classify packets: **CoS**

[On Premises x Cloud 2](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/On_Premimes_vs_Cloud.jpg)

**On Premises**: + significant initial investment but lower reoccuring costs + company has control over the physical security of equipment **Cloud**: + pay-as-you-go model + very scalable and fast delivery of changes in scale + physical location of data can be definded in contract with provider

[Infrastructure Types](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/Infrastructure_types.jpg)

**On-Premises Infrastructure**: + slow upgrade lifecycle + high capital expenditure + enterprise owns the hardware **Cloud-Hosted Infrastructure**: + low capital expenditure + provider maintains the infrastructure + fast upgrade lifecycle

[Threat Defense Solutions](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/Threat_Defense_Solutions.jpg)

+ **StealWatch**: performs security analytics by collecting network flows + **ESA**: protects against email threat vector + **AMP4E**: provides malware protection on endpoints + **Umbrella**: provides DNS protection + **FTD**: provides IPS/IDS capabilities

[OSPF x EIGRP 3](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/OSPF_EIGRP_characteristics.jpg)

**OSPF** + Link State Protocol + supports only equal multipath load balancing + quickly computes new path upon link failure **EIGRP** + selects routes using the DUAL algorithm + maintains alternative loop-free backup path if available + Advanced Distance Vector Protocol

[DHCP messages](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/DHCP_messages.jpg)

+ Step 1: DHCP **Discover** + Step 2: DHCP **Offer** + Step 3: DHCP **Request** + Step 4: DHCP **ACK** **DORA**

[LISP components 2](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Drag_Drop/LISP_components_2.jpg)

+ IPv4 or IPv6 address of an endpoint within a LISP site: **EID** + network infrastructure component that learns of EID-prefix mapping entries from an ETR: **map server** + de-encapsulates LISP packets coming from outside of the LISP site to destinations inside of the site: **ETR**

HTTP response code of 400

Accept Header

Which function does a **fabric edge node** perform in an SD-Access deployment? A. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic C. Provides reachability border nodes in the fabric underlay D. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP.

B. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic

Which protocol is responsible for **data plane forwarding in a Cisco SD-Access** deployment? A. LISP B. IS-IS C. Cisco TrustSec D. VXLAN

D. **VXLAN**

Refer to the exhibit. [Etherchannel_misconfig](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Etherchannel/Etherchannel_misconfig.jpg) ``` SW2# 08:33:23: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: channel-misconfig error detection on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state 08:33:23: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: channel-misconfig error detection on Gi0/1, putting Gi0/1 in err-disable state ``` After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2. Based on the output from SW1 and the log message received on Switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue? A. Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2. B. Correct the configuration error on interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1. C. Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1. D. Correct the configuration error on interface Gi0/0 switch SW1.

A. **Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel** on switch SW1 and SW2.

Refer to exhibit. VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50? [VTP_Pruning.jpg](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/VTP/VTP_Pruning.jpg) A. SW1(config)#vtp pruning B. SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent C. SW2(config)#vtp pruning D. SW1(config)>vtp mode transparent

**SW1**(config)#vtp pruning

Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch. Which command meets this requirement? [exhibit](https://i.postimg.cc/VkkD32dH/Capture.png) A. ``` SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning ``` B. ``` SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning vlan 110 ``` C. ``` SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310 ``` D. ``` SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 ```

D. ``` SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 ```

Refer to the exhibit. [trunking_allowed_vlan.jpg](https://www.digitaltut.com/images/ENCOR/Trunking/trunking_allowed_vlan.jpg) Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue? A. ``` SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 ``` B. ``` SW1(config)#interface gi1/1 SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 ``` C. ``` SW2(config)#interface gi1/1 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 ``` D. ``` SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 ```

D. ``` SW2(config)#interface gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 ```