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1
Q

Theories of Development

Define: Developmental Theory

A

a set of statements that are an orderly, integrated description, explanation and prediction of human behaviour in various developmental domains/cultures

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2
Q

Theories of Development

Explain: Psychodynamic/Psychoanalytic developmental theories

A

help us to understand:

  • attachments/emotional bonds between caregivers/infants
  • development of autonomy and self control during infancy/childhood
  • development of intimate relationships during adolescence/adulthood
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3
Q

Who’s theory of the structure of the personality involved the id, ego and superego

A

Freud

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4
Q

Theories of Development- Freud

Explain: Id, Ego and Superego

A

Id- unconscious, instinctual desires
Ego- all 3 areas, reasoning and rationality, conscious, problem solving
Superego- all 3 areas, moral and ethical drives, voice of conscience

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5
Q

Theories of Development- Freud

What are the Stages of Freuds ‘psychosexual theory of human development’

A 
Oral (0-1)
Anal (1-3)
Phallic (3-6)
Latency (6-12)
Genital (12-adulthood)
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6
Q

Theories of Development- Freud

List some of the defence mechanisms Freud mentions

A

Repression
Regression
Transference
Rationalisation

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7
Q

Theories of Development- Erikson

List the 8 Stages of Eriksons ‘psychosocial theory of development’

A
  1. Trust v Mistrust (0-18months)
  2. Autonomy v Shame & Doubt (1-2yrs)
  3. Initiative v Guilt (3-6yrs)
  4. Industry v Inferiority (7-11yrs)
  5. Identity v Role Cofusion (12-19yrs)
  6. Intimacy v Isolation (20-30yrs)
  7. Generativity v Stagnation (40-60yrs)
  8. Integrity v Despair (60+yrs)
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8
Q

Theories of Development- Erikson

Explain: Eriksons Psychosocial Theory of development

A

the 8 stages of development- need to positively resolve conflicts at each stage of development for full functioning personality and normal social relationships

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9
Q

Theories of Development- Bronfenbrenner

Explain: Bronfenbrenner’s ‘ecological system theory of child development’

A

stresses the role of the environment and is more a sociological theory of individual development (rather than psychological)

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10
Q

Theories of Development- Bronfenbrenner

List the 5 Environmental layers of Bronfenbrenners theory of child development

A
  1. Microsystem (home, family, immediate setting)
  2. Mesosystem (interrelationships/connections)
  3. Exosystem (neighbourhood, workplace)
  4. Macrosystem (social system/culture, values, beliefs)
  5. Chronosystem (social and historical time frame)
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11
Q

Define: Maturation

A

refers to developmental changes that seem to be determined largely by biology because they occur in all individuals relatively independent of their particular experiences

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12
Q

Physical and Cognitive Developments in Older Adults

Define: Ageing

A

growing older, the degeneration of health and decline in activity

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13
Q

Physical and Cognitive Developments in Older Adults

Define: Ageism

A

is systemic stereotyping and discrimination of people because they are old

2 types- positive and negative

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14
Q

Define: Social convoy

A

are lifelong but dynamic social networks

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15
Q

At approximately what age can an infant roll from stomach to back or side, pull up with assistance, and sit with assistance once up?

A

3-6 months

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16
Q

By the second year of life a securely attached child will have developed a basic sense of

A

trust vs mistrust

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17
Q

Can men experience post-natal distress?

A

A man’s transition to parenting is different to a woman’s but men can still experience post-natal distress.

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18
Q

A supportive way of nurturing the new mother is to

A

ensure that the mother’s own needs for well-being are met in whatever way she needs.

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19
Q

Stranger anxiety in infants typically occurs at what age

A

between 6 and 9 months

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20
Q

Joey, who is three years old, tends to stutter when he gets very excited about something. His mother has decided that at this time it is nothing to be really concerned about because of what she has learned in developmental psychology. Which reason for studying development is most relevant to this situation?

A

Gaining knowledge about normative aspects of human development

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21
Q

Research has shown that new mothers often experience…

A

a feeling of being undermined or criticised by others in their transition to mothering

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22
Q

All infants may not necessarily develop at the same time due to…

A

Milestone and stages of development vary to a degree between all children

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23
Q

Play in which children pretend that one object is another object is..

A

a sign of cognitive development

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24
Q

The “self” is largely a part of our conscious personality. Self identity is:

A

often determined by the social role or roles we hold in society

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25
Q

Research has shown that new mothers often find motherhood…

A

unrelenting and more difficult than they expected.

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26
Q

One major reason for the difficulties that sometimes occur between people of different cultures is that…

A

some cultures encourage behaviours that other cultures find offensive

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27
Q

According to the phases of attachment, when does an infant begin to develop separation and stranger anxiety?

A

between 7 to 24 months

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28
Q

A theory is…

A

open to scientific observation

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29
Q

Sense of self is primarily apart of which developmental domain

A

Psychosocial

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30
Q

The defence mechanism of Rationalisation involves…

A

thinking of a logical, reasonable excuse for doing what you want to do

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31
Q

Erikson describes development in terms of..

A

Conflict

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32
Q

At the macrosystem level of Bronfenbrenner’s approach, one might examine…

A

social and cultural beliefs and practices of a society

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33
Q

Define: Cognitive development

A

is concerned with the development of our ability to engage in higher mental processes to enable s to make reasonable choices and decisions about our behaviour

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34
Q

Define: Cognition

A

the mental acitivites associated with though, decision making, lnaguage, and other higher mental processes

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35
Q

Jean Paiget developed what theory?

A

Theory of cognitive development

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36
Q

Jean Paiget

What are the 4 developmental stages

A
  1. Sensorimotor (birth-2yrs)
  2. Preoperational (2-7yrs)
  3. Concrete Operational (7-10yrs)
  4. Formal Operational (11yrs-adulthood)
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37
Q

Jean Paiget- Cognitive development

Describe: Stage 1 Sensorimotor

A

Birth-2yrs

  • experiences world through senses
  • stranger anxiety
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38
Q

Jean Paiget- Cognitive development

Describe: Stage 2 Preoperational

A

2-7yrs

  • develops language
  • aware of self, develops self concept/identity
  • pretend play
  • Assimilations and Accommodation
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39
Q

Jean Paiget- Cognitive development

Describe: Stage 3 Concrete operational

A

7-10yrs

  • experience problems with reasoning
  • begin thinking logically
  • Conservation of numbers etc
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40
Q

Jean Paiget- Cognitive development

Describe: Stage 4 Formal operations

A

11yrs- adulthood

  • abstract logic
  • deducing and understanding consequences
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41
Q

Define: Stranger anxiety

A

is exhibited by many infants between six and nine months of age and often continues throughout the first year.

  • It is thought to be tied to an infant’s increasing ability to recognise and distinguish between familiar and unfamiliar people and to actively make sense of their interpersonal world
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42
Q

Define: Separation anxiety

A

generally appears between nine and twelve months

  • involves displays of fear, clinging, crying and related distress when an infant’s parent or other caregiver leaves them
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43
Q

Define: Anxious-resistant attachment

A
  • showed some signs of anxiety and, even in the periods preceding separation, stuck close to their mothers and explored only minimally.
  • They were intensely upset by separation. When reunited with their mothers, they actively sought close contact with them but at the same time angrily resisted the mothers’ efforts to comfort them by hitting them and pushing them away.
  • They refused to be comforted by the stranger as well
44
Q

Define: Anxious-avoidant attachment

A
  • initially showed little involvement with their mothers, treating them and the stranger in much the same way.
  • They rarely cried when separated
  • mixed response when reunited
45
Q

Define: Disorganised-disorientated attachment

A
  • This pattern indicates the greatest degree of insecurity. When reunited with their parent, these infants exhibit confused and contradictory behaviours.
  • They may be unresponsive and turn away when held, display ‘frozen’ postures and cry out unexpectedly after being comforted
46
Q

Piaget

Define: Assimilation

A

is the process by which an infant interprets and responds to a new experience or situation in terms of an existing scheme

47
Q

Piaget

Define: Accommodation

A

a child changes, adjusts or modifies existing schemes, or ways of thinking, when faced with new ideas or situations in which the old schemes no longer work.

48
Q

Piaget

Define: Adaption

A

results when schemes are deepened or broadened by assimilation and stretched or modified by accommodation, through interaction with the environment.

49
Q

Explain: Authoritative parenting style

A

Parents who exert firm, consistent and age-appropriate control over their children’s behaviour and at the same time are both responsive and respectful of their children’s thoughts and feelings exhibit an authoritative parenting style

50
Q

Explain: Authoritarian parenting style

A

Parents exhibiting an authoritarian parenting style exert a high level of control over their children’s behaviour, is inflexible, does not permit child participation, child has no autonomy, rules are enforced with threats

51
Q

Explain: Permissive parenting style

A

a low level of parental control, with parents reluctant to put limits on their child’s behaviour. parents are typicall warm and child-centred and puts childrens in control of their own behaviour etc

52
Q

Explain: Uninvolved parenting style

A

Parents who exhibit an uninvolved parenting style show low levels of control, similar to parents who adopt a permissive parenting style.
However, they are emotionally detached from their offspring, inconsistent in setting behavioural limits

53
Q

At what gestation is a fetus considered full term

A

38weeks

54
Q

Experiencing unrelenting stress in pregnancy is which of the following?

A

a teratogen

55
Q

Self concept begins in…

A

in infancy with self-recognition and the infant knowing that they are separate from others

56
Q

Quickening occurs around 16 to 18 weeks of pregnancy, and refers to…

A

the movement of the foetus inside the womb

57
Q

Physical development is concerned with…

A

physical changes such as growth, motor skill development and basic aspects of perception and cognition

58
Q

What activity represents play and encourages the development of fine motor coordination

A

finger painting

59
Q

Define: Developmental diversity

A

refers to differences in patterns of development caused by individual experiences as well as social and cultural circumstances

60
Q

Which theorist theorised that cognitive development advances within children’s zone of proximal development

A

Vygotsky

61
Q

Vygotsky

Explain: Zone of proximal development

A

refers to the level of difficulty at which children can almost, but not quite, solve a problem independently

62
Q

Define: Attention

A

is the ability to focus on particular environmental stimuli so information can be further processed, remembered and used in learning and problem solving

63
Q

Define: Selective attention

A

improves over time, so children are better able to screen out irrelevant stimuli and can focus on stimuli relevant to the task at hand

64
Q

Define: Perimenopause

A

the first stage, the ovaries gradually decrease hormone production.
This decrease begins around age forty and continues until menstruation stops
- woman may notice a change in her menstrual cycle, with periods becoming more closely spaced, more widely spaced, or irregular.

65
Q

Define: Menopause

A

itself is actually the second stage of the female climacteric.
Hormone production declines further, the ovaries cease to produce eggs, and menstruation ceases.
At that point the woman is sterile, and pregnancy is no longer possible

66
Q

Define: Postmenopause

A

the third stage of the female climacteric, hormonal levels stabilise and menopausal signs subside.
A woman is not totally without oestrogen during postmenopause, because the ovaries continue to produce small amounts of it and the adrenal glands produce the precursors of oestrogen, which are converted to oestrogen by stored body fat

67
Q

Define: Oophorectomy

A

surgical removal of the ovaries

68
Q

Define: Hysterectomy

A

Surgical removal of the uterus

69
Q

What are the 2 types of hormone replacement therapy for women

A

Oestrogen replacement therapy (ERT)- the taking of replacement oestrogen
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT)- the taking of a combination of oestrogen and progestin (artificial progesterone)

70
Q

Define: Male climacteric

A

The male climacteric is a gradual process that produces changes in the reproductive system and reduces fertility but, unlike menopause, it does not lead to sterility.

71
Q

Define: Crystallised intelligence

A

refers to learnt cognitive processes and primary abilities, such as vocabulary, general information and word fluency, which remain relatively stable with increasing age

72
Q

Define: Fluid intelligence

A

is the ability to process new information in novel situations. Fluid intelligence includes reasoning, which is central to almost any definition of intelligence

73
Q

Explain: peak periods of Crystallised and fluid intelligence

A

Crystallised intelligence improves until about age 36, and thereafter stabilises with age — as you have probably noticed, older adults are frequently better informed than younger adults.

Fluid intelligence peaks in the early 20s and declines as individuals go from early adulthood to old age

74
Q

Define: Middlescence

A

refers to mid-career restlessness that includes feelings of frustration and alienation, but also involves a focus on self-discovery and new opportunities

75
Q

Define: Glass ceiling

A

refers to the invisible barriers minorities and women confront as they approach the top of the corporate hierarchy.

76
Q

Multiinfarct dementia accounts for what % of organic brain syndrome in adults

A

10-20%

77
Q

Explain: Multiinfarct dementia

A
  • Blockages in the blood vessels reduce or prevent blood flow to the brain, depriving it of oxygen and nutrients.
  • This results in a series of tiny strokes, which may be so small that they go unnoticed at the time or may be accompanied by headaches or dizziness.
  • distinguished from other dementias by sudden rather than gradual onset
78
Q

Alzheimers dementia accounts for what % of organic brain syndrome

A

50-60%

79
Q

Explain: Alzheimers dementia

A

is caused by degeneration of the brain cells in those portions of the cerebral cortex that are associated with memory, learning and judgement

  • progressive deterioration worsens the patient’s dementia as it affects an increasing proportion of these cells.
  • loss of brain cells, the neurotransmitter acetylcholine decreases, and lipofuscin granules (yellow-brown pigments that may interfere with cell activities)
80
Q

List the types of Long-term memory

A

Episodic- involves information acquired on a specific occasion; this includes autobiographical details for eg. what you did yesterday (Episodic memory shows slow, steady decline with age. )

Semantic- refers to factual knowledge including vocabulary and general knowledge. (remains intact with age though speed of accessing the information declines)

Procedural- refers to learning and retaining skills such as riding a bike and tying a shoe lace (shows the least change with age)

81
Q

Explain: Active theory

A

the maintenance of social, physical and intellectual activity contributes to successful ageing.
This theory assumes older people who are active will be more satisfied and better adjusted than those who are less active.

82
Q

Explain: Disengagement theory

A

views a reduction in social involvement in late adulthood as the consequence of a mutual process between older adults and society.

83
Q

Development refers to..

A

both change and continuity throughout the lifespan

84
Q

One’s sense of self (identity and concept) is primarily part of which developmental domain

A

Psychosocial

85
Q

In girls, the range of on-set of puberty is…

A

between 9-17 years

86
Q

When they become unemployed, older workers are more likley than younger workers too…

A

have negative effects such as severe depression

87
Q

When does the need for relationship intimacy and closeness begin

A

Infancy

88
Q

Friendships play an important role in early adulthood because…

A

support from friends helps in becoming less dependent on parents

89
Q

After a couple has their first child, the level of marital satisfaction typically..

A

declines

90
Q

Which part of the brain governs decision-making and is under-developed in adolescents

A

Frontal cortex

91
Q

Explain: difference between negative Reinforcement and negative Punishment

A

Negative reinforcement strengthens behaviour whereas punishment weakens it

92
Q

Piaget

Define: Schemas

A

existing mental frameworks

93
Q

Piaget

Define: Object permanence

A

the idea that objects continue to exist even when they are hidden from view.
Develops in the sensorimotor stage.

94
Q

Piaget believes that quantitative, but no further qualitative changes in cognitive function take place after approximately what age?

A

12

95
Q

True or False

Early and extended contact immediately after birth is necessary if infants are to develop a healthy attachment to their mothers

A

False

96
Q

True or False

Preschool children do not use memory strategies, like rehearsal, spontaneously

A

True

97
Q

Theories of Development- Freud

Explain the defence mechanisms of Freud’s theories

A

Repression- devoting mental energy to blocking painful or unacceptable thoughts/memories from entering consciousness

Rationalisation- respond to mental conflict by trying to find moral justification for unacceptable behaviour

Displacement- expressing undesirable feelings in a situation where it is more acceptable (directing anger at inanimate object rather than at the person with whom we’re angry)

Regression- a person responds to an anxiety-provoking situation by falling back on immature behaviour

98
Q

Behaviourism/ Learning Theory

What are 2 types of conditioning

A

Classical

Operant

99
Q

Behaviourism/ Learning Theory

Name 3 people associate with classical and operant conditioning

A

Classical- Pavlov and Watson

Operant- Skinner (reinforcement)

100
Q

Behaviourism/ Learning Theory

Explain: 2 types of reinforcement in Skinner’s operant conditioning

A

Positive reinforcement- giving something positive to facilitate a desired response, and elicits increased desirable responses in others

Negative reinforcement- removal of something undesirable through taking away something unpleasant in order to seek the desired response.

101
Q

Skinner- Operant conditioning

Define: Reinforcement

A

Both positive and negative reinforcement increase the likelihood a behaviour, whether desirable or undesirable, will occur again.

102
Q

Skinner- Operant conditioning

Explain: Punishment

A

Instead of strengthening a desired response it weakens or suppresses a behavioural response by either adding an unpleasant stimulus or removing a pleasurable one following the response’s occurrence.

103
Q

Skinner- Operant conditioning

Explain: Extinction

A

removal of the response completely. Is best done by ignoring it or reinforcing an alternatively desirable behaviour.

104
Q

Define: Classical Conditioning

A

is a form of learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a stimulus that leads to a reflexive response.

105
Q

Define: Operant Conditioning

A

is a form of learning in which an organism acts or operates on the environment through spontaneous, voluntary behaviour.

106
Q

Theories of Development- Bowlby

What are the 4 Stages of attachment formation

A

Phase 1: Indiscriminate sociability (birth-2months)
Phase 2: Attachments in the making (2-7months)
Phase 3: Specific clear-cut attachments (7-24months)
Phase 4: Goal coordinated partnerships (24+ months)

107
Q

Theories of Development- Bowlby

Describe: 4 Stages of attachment formation

A

1) Indiscriminate sociability- responds actively with coos, gazes, facial expression to promote attention from people. Limited attachment behaviour used
2) Attachments in the making- increasing preference for familiar people, responsive to needs. Accepts some attention/care from strangers, short temporary separation from parents tolerated
3) Specific clear-cut attachment- stronger preference for familiar people, increasing mobility facilitates infant choosing proximity to people (Separation and Stranger Anxiety appear)
4) Goal coordinated partnerships- understanding of parental feelings, growing capacity to tolerate parental separation

Human Relations and Life Transitions (8 decks)

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