Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology/anatomy Workbook > All Of Biology Workbook > Flashcards

All Of Biology Workbook Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

list some dissacharides

A

sucrose Melrose lactose cellubiose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

carbons in a hexosugar

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

systematic name for glucose

A

aldohexose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

difference between a and b glycosidic bond

A

analyse can not digest b cellubiose and the group points up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

2 functions of phospholipids

A

cell membrane, Store FA, lipoproteins( ldl hdl)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

2 functions of TAG

A

energy storage, temp regulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

3 functions cholesterol

A

cell membrane, steroid hormones, bile, vitamin D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

triglycerol composed of

A

glycerol and 3 FA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

functional group of FA

A

carboxyl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cholesterol is the precursor of

A

bile, vitamin D, steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

FA 18C 2 double bonds

A

linoleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

FA 18C 3 double bonds

A

Linoleinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

FA 16C no double bonds

A

palmitic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

FA omega 3

A

linoleinic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

omega

A

number of C at the end of chain to last double bond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

surfactant and it’s precursor

A

Lowes surface tension of liquid in alveoli to prevent lung collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

lipoprotein that causes heart disease

A

IDL, HDL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

serine belongs to

A

polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

glycine belongs to

A

non polar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

glutamate belongs to

A

negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

lysine belongs to

A

positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

tyrosine belongs to

A

aromatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

a helix is a _ structure of proteins

A

secondary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

SS bridge is a covalent bond between what AA

A

cystine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

3 types RNA and functions

A

Rrna-compose ribosomes Mrna genetic info from nucleus to cytoplasm Trna translates nucleotide language to AA language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

type of bond between nucleotides on same strand of DNA

A

phosphodiester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

type of bond between anti parallel strand of DNA

A

hydrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

difference DNA and RNA

A

DNA: double strand ATCG deoxyribose in nucleus RNA single strand AUCG ribose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

nuclear membrane composed of

A

phospholipids cholesterol proteins carbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

transport across nuclear membrane is always

A

selective only NLS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

DNA is copied to form another strand of DNA

A

replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DNA copied to form a strand of RNA

A

transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DNA read to form a protein

A

translation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

cell structure organelles in protein synthesis

A

rough endoolasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where does transcription occur

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

where does translation occur

A

ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

where does protein sorting occur

A

golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

structure of mitochondria

A

outer permeable and inner permeable membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

name of the inner folds formed by invaginationor the mitochondrial inner membrane

A

crista

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

functions of golgi apparatus

A

sorting of proteins destined for various destinations in the cell, modifying proteins destined for secretion, packaging enzymes destined for lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

PH in the lysosome

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

protozoa is

A

unicellular eukaryote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

role of cytoskeleton in the cell

A

intracellular communication intracellular also structural rigidity cellular division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

3 types of cytoskeleton structure and function

A

microtubules- hollow proteins a tubulin B tubulin, intracellular transport , formation ofncillia microfilament- actin protein, form ring structure that divides the cell during mitosis , meosis responsible for shape found on outside intermediate filament- made of collagen, rigidity, intracellular communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

difference between eukaryotes and prokaryotes

A

E= true nucleus, organelles, chromosomes P= before nucleus, no organelles, DNA in 1 circular segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

role of pores in nuclear membrane

A

Aquaeous channel that regulate passage of materials between nucleus and cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

3 main characteristics of the nucleus

A

genetic material, DNA synthesis (replication), RAN synthesis(transcription)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

significance or mitochondria

A

site of aerobic respiration (production of ATP in presence of oxygen) and the apoptosis starts here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

makeup of mitochondrial matrix

A

enzymes DNA ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

role of cholesterol in cell membrane

A

liquid crystal configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

3 main characteristics or plasma membrane

A

assymetey phospholipids intracellular communication, liquid crystal is biological flexibility, mosaic appearance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

difference between perieral and integral proteins

A

I= transmembrane span entire membrane hydrophilicaly bonded to the membrane, function is transport across membrane P=attached to one aspect of membrane inside or out hydrophillicly bonded to membrane attached to CH forming a glycoprotein function is receptors enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

difference between passive and active transport

A

p=no atp along concentration gradient high to low only small lipid soluble molecules A= atp against concentration gradient Low to high direct yield of atp (primary NA+/K+ pump) leftover atp (NA+ glucose)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

physiological importance of NA/K pump

A

The NAK pump pumps 3NA out of the cell and 2K into the cell against concentration of gradient the N AKA TP is very important in establishing the membrane resting potential responsible for the movement of action potential which is critical for innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the significance of cell junctions plus 2 examples

A

Some organs require selective environments example is the blood brain barrier the heart requires free passage of ions between the cells so it has gap Junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The cellular membrane is composed of

A

Phospholipids cholesterol proteins and carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Transportation across the membrane that doesn’t require a transporter is called

A

Diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Transportation across the membrane that does not require an active transporter is

A

Passive transport and diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Passive transport and diffusion What is the role of glycolipids in the cellular membrane

A

Intercellular communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Name of the process by which insertion of particles into the cell results in the shortening of the membrane

A

endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Process by which one molecule is transported into the cell

A

uniport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

exocytosis results in

A

lengthening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Process by which 2 molecule is transported into the cell in the same direction

A

symport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Process by which 2 molecules are transported in-and-out of the cell in the opposite direction

A

antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Entry of a glucose molecule in the intestinal brush border is an example of

A

Symport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

For the same data entry of glucose what kind of transport is it

A

secondary active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

NA/K pump is an example of

A

antiport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what kind of transport is NA/K

A

primary active

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

LDL entry into the cell is an example of

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How many ions of K plus enter the cell per each power stroke of the NAK pump

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How many ions of NA plus leave the cell per each power stroke of the NAK pump

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Tight Junction

A

No passage is allowed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

From what kind of protein does the tight Junction made of

A

oclodine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

gap junction

A

enable free passage of water soluble molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What kind of protein are the gap junctions made of

A

connexin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Explain the significance of anchoring junctions

A

Serves as a point of attachment between neighboring cells and acts as a belt that bound the tissue together also attaches to neighboring cells via the cytoskeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What kind of proteins are anchoring junctions made of

A

Cadherins and integrins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which proteins are the anchoring attached to

A

intermediate filament and actin filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

ATP is made of

A

adenine , ribose, 3 phosphates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

an enzyme is

A

A catalyst made of protein, a catalyst made of RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Describe energy and oxidative coupling significance

A

ATP catabolism is coupled to anabolism of organic molecules then catabolism of organic molecules is coupled to anabolism of ATP then oxidation of NADH plus H and FAD H2 is coupled to reduction of molecules or glucose derivative then reduction of NAD plus and FAD is coupled to oxidation of molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Explain the difference between in trust cellular mechanism of aerobic and and anaerobic respiration

A

Aerobic is O2 present highly efficient produces 36 to 38 ATP and and aerobic has no presence of 02 is less efficient produces only 2 APT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

2 functions of ATP

A

Energy and nucleotides AKA RNA building block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How many ATP are synthesized during glycolysis per one molecule of glucose

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How many ATP are invested during glycolysis

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

How many ATP are gained during on anaerobic respiration from one molecule of glucose

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

3 examples of cells that can perform only aerobic glycolysis

A

white skeletal muscles, kidney medulla, RBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

How many NADH are synthesized during the PDH complex phase per one molecule of glucose

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How many GTP (=ATP) Are synthesized during the citric acid cycle AKA Krebs cycle

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How many GTP are synthesized during the citric acid cycle phase from one molecule of glucose

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

How many NADH synthesize during the citric acid cycle from one molecule of glucose

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

How many FADH2 are synthesize during the citric acid cycle phase from a one molecule of glucose

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Hello many ATP are synthesized in aerobic conditions during the bio energetics from a one molecule of glucose

A

36-38

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

How does glycolisis provide ATP during fermentation

A

Pyruvate is reduced by NADH producing NAD+ which keeps glycolysis going

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Describe the process in the Cori Cycle

A

GluconeoGenesis in the liver where lactate is converted to pyruvate and then glucose glycolysis in muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Under aerobic conditions pyruvate is decarboxylated to

A

acetyl COA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex

A

pyruvate and Coa and NAD+ is converted to Acetyl CoA +carbon dioxide +NADH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

glycogen is

A

the storage carbohydrate in animals insects and fungj

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the structure and significance of the Elektron transport chain

A

This phase takes place on top of the inner membrane of the mitochondria or the Crysta the NADH and FADH2 molecules gained from earlier phases are now being oxidized and used to produce ATP molecules by the pumping action of protons to the intermembranous space as a result of the Electron that is being transported through the complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the mechanism of action of the Elektron transport chain

A

redox reactions

101
Q

Describe mechanism of action of ATP synthase

A

Channel for H+ that enters the atp synthase according to its electro chemical gradient from the inner membranous space to the matrix the energy generated by movement of protons via the ATPase is harvested and transforms to mechanical energy that catalyzes the production of ATP from ADP + P

102
Q

define the term “ uncoupling protein “

A

Uncoupling protein inhibits the ATP synthesis by enabling free passage of H+ into the mitochondrial matrix uncoupling proteins play a role in normal physiology in hibernation for example because the energy from the ETC is used to generate heat instead of producing ATP

103
Q

Describe the significance of ATP/ADP transporter

A

Transports ATP to the cytoplasm for an ADP that enters the mitochondria

104
Q

what is the end product of anaerobic glycolisis in humans

A

Lactate that then travels to the liver and goes back to pyruvate and then to glucose and back to the muscle in Corrie cycle

105
Q

oxygen consumption during aerobic catabolism of glucose

A

Oxygen is the final acceptor of electrons in the Elektron transport chain it received electrons and protons forming a water molecule

106
Q

mechanism of action of cyanide and CO

A

Cyanide and CO bind complex 4 in the Elektron transport chain instead of oxygen and blocks it completely thus interrupting with the normal cellular respiration

107
Q

chromosome

A

single piece of DNA genes nucleotides DNA bound proteins package DNA

108
Q

chromosome is made of

A

proteins and DNA

109
Q

each autosomal cell in the human body has

A

46 chromosome, 23 pairs of homologous chromosomes, one sex chromosome pair

110
Q

describe cell cycle and significance of each phase

A

s phase - DNA replication/synthesis ( 46-92 chromosomes) M phase- mitosis/ cell division (92-46 chromosomes) G1 and G2 are preparatory phases ( G1- preparatory phase to S phase , G2 preparatory phase to M phase )

111
Q

difference between autosomal cell and germ cell (regarding the number of chromosomes)

A

germ cell - 23×1 chromosomes, haploid cell autosomal cell - 23x2 chromosomes, diploid cell

112
Q

3 conditions required for the cell to enter S phase

A

proper energy source, temperature and proteins

113
Q

how many chromosomes does a cell have before entering M phase

A

46

114
Q

how many chromosomes does a cell have before entering M phase?

A

46

115
Q

how many sister chromatids does a cell have before entering M phase ?

A

92

116
Q

how many tetrads align at the meiotic spindle or the metaphase 1

A

23

117
Q

centromere

A

region in sister chromatic where they are attached one to another it is also the location of the kinetochore complex

118
Q

kinetochore

A

protein structure in eukaryotes which assembles on the centromere and links the chromosome to microtubules polymers fromnyhe miotic spindle during mitosis and meiosis

119
Q

telomere

A

region of DNA at start and end of each chromosome dictates number of divisions a cell can do protects end of chromosome from deterioration or from fusion with neighboring chromosomes telomere regions deter the degradation of genes near the ends of chromosomes by allowing chromosome ends to shorten which necessarily occurs during chromosome replication without telomeres the genomes would progressively lose info and be turncated after cell division because the synthesis of ozaki strands require RNA primers attaching ahead on the lagging strand over time due to each cell division the telomere ends become shorter

120
Q

miotic spindle

A

separates sister chromatids/homologous chromosomes into the daughter cells during cell division

121
Q

miotic spindle

A

separates sister chromatids/homologous chromosomes into the daughter cells during cell division

122
Q

centrioles

A

microtubules that are involved in the organization of the miotic spindle and in the completion of cytokenisis

123
Q

how many chromosomes does a cell have after meiosis is complete 1 and 2

A

23

124
Q

name 2 processes in which meiosis occurs in the human body

A

spermatogenisis and oogenisis

125
Q

how many oocytes are produced during meiosis in a human female

A

1

126
Q

how many sperms are produced during meiosis in a human male

A

4

127
Q

during which meiotic phase crossing over occurs?

A

prophase 1

128
Q

during which meiotic phase crossing over occurs?

A

prophase 1

129
Q

how many polar bodies are generated in the complete synthesis of an oocyte ?

A

2

130
Q

during which meiotic /miotic phase nuclear fragmentation occurs

A

prophase

131
Q

which miotic phase does sister chromatids separate

A

anaphase

132
Q

which meiotic phase do homologous chromosomes separate

A

anaphase 1

133
Q

which meiotic phase does sister chromatids separate?

A

anaphase 2

134
Q

which meiotic phase are the female oocytes arrested?

A

prophase 1

135
Q

difference between spermatogensis and oogenisis

A

oogenisis = forms only one primary oocyte that become a mature egg cell (ovum) while two other oocytes form polar bodies (degenerate) it happens in the ovaries. oocytes are arrested in prophase 1 until puberty. occurs from puberty to menopause. spermatogenisis = 4 haploid cells are formed. happens in the testes. occurs from puberty till death.

136
Q

which meiotic phase cytoplasm separates

A

cytokenisis 1 and cytokenisis 2

137
Q

which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell

A

metaphase

138
Q

DNA synthesis occurs in the

A

S phase

139
Q

1.building blocks of DNA 2.how are they arranged in space 3.what are the names of the bonds between the building block of the same strand and between two different strands?

A
  1. deoxynucleotidses 2.each is made of deoxy ribose sugar phosphate at its 5 carbon and amine base at its 1 carbon. 3. nucleotides in the same strand attached by phosphor-di-ester bond and the bond between 2 strands is H bond
140
Q

enzyme responsible for DNA synthesis /replication in the lagging strand

A

DNA polymarse

141
Q

enzyme that unwind DNA

A

helicase

142
Q

enzyme that unwind DNA

A

helicase

143
Q

enzyme responsible for relieving tension caused by the unwinding of the DNA is called

A

topoisomerase

144
Q

enzyme responsible for insertion of an DNA primer

A

primase

145
Q

enzyme responsible for connecting the DNA fragments in the lagging strand

A

ligase

146
Q

enzyme responsible for error repair

A

DNA polymarse

147
Q

explain meaning and significance of DNA synthesis

A

a part of the cell cycle taking place in s phase resulting in two complete DNA molecules

148
Q

difference between leading strand and lagging strand

A

leading strand = grows in direction of replication form can be directly read by DNA polymarse 3 to 5 new molecule is synthesized in the 5 to 3 direction lagging strand = 5 to 3 grows away from replication form and cannot be read by DNA polymarse in continuous manner therefore DNA polymarse synthesized ozaki fragments

149
Q

DNA packing

A

at first DNA wraps around histones (H2A H2B H3 H4) creating the beads on a string structures called nucleosomes then 30 nm fibers are formed as a result of the H1 linker histone finally the 30 m3n fibers are arranged into loops along a protein scaffolds to form euchromatin

150
Q

ozaki fragments

A

when lagging strand is being replicated on the original strand the 5 to 3 pattern must be used this a discontinuity occurs and the ozaki fragments are formed. these ozaki fragments are processed by the replication machinery to produce a continuous strand of DNA and hence a complete daughter DNA helix

151
Q

enzyme responsible for connecting DNA fragments in the lagging strand

A

ligase

152
Q

enzyme responsible for error repair is called

A

DNA polymarse

153
Q

limitation of the DNA polymarse

A

works in 5 to 3 of the synthesized strand , requires RNA primer, requires DNA template strand

154
Q

enzyme responsible for DNA replication in the leading strand

A

DNA polymarse

155
Q

DNA synthesis is a _process

A

semi conservative

156
Q

what enzyme replaces RNA primer on the lagging strand with DNA

A

DNA polymarse 1

157
Q

name of the fragments of the lagging strand

A

ozakis fragments

158
Q

what enzyme will solve this problem in the lagging strand?

A

ligase

159
Q

mutation is best described as

A

a change in DNA sequence

160
Q

difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic transcription

A

P= occurs only in cytoplasm (DNA-mrna) E= occurs in nucleus (DNA -hrna aka pre mrna) to mrna after those 3 post transcriptional changes

161
Q

redundancy

A

most of the amino acid has more than one codon (nucleotide triplet) only Met and Trp has only one codon

162
Q

wobble

A

61 AA encoding codons and roughly 31 tRNA molecule types this is due to the amino acid base inosin at the wobble position in the anticodon if the tRNA which can bind U C and A

163
Q

capping and tailing

A

make mrnas life longer since once it gets out of nucleus it become a target for digestive enzymes the longer are the tails the longer the mrnas life span and more proteins will be synthesized from it and splicing is editing the mrna. specificies proteins function the removal of introns and connecting the exons generates the final mrna. which then leaves the nucleus to the cytoplasm

164
Q

steps of elongation

A

1 trna enters A site of ribosome 2 peptidyl transferase enzyme transfers the amino acid from the P site to the A site where the amino acids are bonded to eachother by a peptide bond 3 whole complex moves a triplet so that the elongating chain rest on the P site and the A site is free to receive a new tRNA

165
Q

UTR

A

untranslated region at the 5 direction (upstream to the gene) it serves as the binding site for the ribosome small unit the small sub unit travels upon it and reads it until it reaches the start codon (AUG)

166
Q

protein sorting

A

targeting newly synthesized protein to it’s functional site happens in the golgi

167
Q

protein synthesis occurs mostly at the

A

G1 and G2 phase

168
Q

enzyme responsible for transcription

A

DNA dependent RNA polymarse

169
Q

enzyme responsible for trna binding to an amino acid

A

aminoacyl tRNA synthase

170
Q

enzyme responsible for adding an Amino acid to the lengthening polypeptide chain

A

peptidyl transferace

171
Q

the enzyme responsible for adding an Amino acid to the lengthening polypeptide chain

A

peptidyl transferace

172
Q

organelles where translation occurs

A

ribosome

173
Q

protein synthesis is _ _ and _

A

universal , redundant and wobbled

174
Q

ribosome is made of

A

protein rRNA small sub unit large subunit

175
Q

transcription occurs at locations

A

5 to 3 direction

176
Q

stages of translation are

A

initiation elongation termination

177
Q

initiation of transcription requires

A

promoter transcriptional factors DNA dependent RNA polymarse

178
Q

what is the start codon

A

AUG

179
Q

for what amino acid does the start codon code for

A

met

180
Q

the initiation complex is made of

A

small and large ribosomal subunits. mrna tRNA with methionine

181
Q

termination of translation occurs when

A

ribosome reaches a stop codon

182
Q

what is true regarding transfer DNA

A

binds specifically to mrna and amino acids

183
Q

termination of transcription process happens when a stop codon is reached true or false

A

F

184
Q

stop codon encode for the specific kind of amino acid true or false

A

false

185
Q

start codon encodes for the amino acid methionine in eukaryotes as well as in prokaryotes

A

true

186
Q

how does synthesis of proteins that are destined to be secreted differ from that of proteins with functions inside the cell

A

proteins destined to be secreted have a signal sequence

187
Q

what is produced during transcription in eukaryotes

A

hrna

188
Q

what is produced during translation in eukaryotes

A

proteins

189
Q

chromosome

A

linear segment of DNA and protein

190
Q

a somatic human cell at G1 phase of the cell cycle contains

A

23 pairs of homologous chromosomes and 44 autosomal chromosomes and two sex chromosomes

191
Q

phenotype is

A

physical and chemical expression of the genotype

192
Q

an example of a homozygous dominant

A

AA

193
Q

an example of a homozygous recessive

A

aa

194
Q

an example of a heterozygote

A

Aa

195
Q

karyotype is

A

chromosomal map of a cell

196
Q

in complete dominance of allele A over allele a heterozygote Aa will have which type of phenotype

A

the same as the dominant homozygote

197
Q

the physical appearance and properties of an organism which is the expression of its genetic makeup is called the

A

phenotype

198
Q

the offspring of a cross breeding of two equal homozygotes (monohybrid cross)

A

must be again homozygotes

199
Q

gene

A

heredity unit composed of a sequence of DNA which occupies a specific location on a chromosome and determines particular characteristics in the organism

200
Q

allele

A

a particular form of a gene that is found in a specific location on a specific chromosome

201
Q

genotype

A

the sum total of all the alleles present in an individual both expressed and not expressed for the specified trait

202
Q

law of segregation

A

in the meiotic process homologous chromosomes separate before gametes are formed (each gene is comprised of 2 alleles a parent only give a one allele to a child so child received 2 in total )

203
Q

law of independent assortment

A

genes of different traits assort independently of one another during gamete production alleles of different genes assort independently of one another this accounts for genetic variability

204
Q

dominant allele

A

only one allele of a gene necessary to express the trait

205
Q

recessive allele

A

both alleles of a gene must be identical to express the trait (expressed only homozygote )

206
Q

karyotiping

A

characterization of the chromosomal complement of an individual including number form and size karyotiping may reveille chromosomal abnormalities diseases intrauterine like down syndrome kneifleter syndrome 13/18 tridonmy etc

207
Q

what is the role of the promoter

A

binds the rna polymerse

208
Q

promoter is a

A

DNA

209
Q

role of the operator

A

binds the repressor protein

210
Q

role of operator in eukaryote

A

same as in prokaryotes

211
Q

role of tata box in eukaryote binds

A

binds rna polymerse and transcription factors, core sequence of the promoter

212
Q

role of lactose in the lacoperon

A

acts as an inducer by binding the repressor protein and disabling it

213
Q

role of tryptophan in the tropoperon

A

act as a repressor by binding the repressor protein and enables it

214
Q

when growing e coli on a growing medium containing only glucose the mRNA level of the enzymes responsible for the catabolism of lactose will be

A

basal amount (small)

215
Q

when growing e coli on a growing medium containing only lactose the mRNA level of the enzymes responsible for the catabolism of lactose will be

A

high level of mrna

216
Q

When the levels of glucose are high the level of Camp in a prokaryotes cell will be

A

low

217
Q

role of camp in the lacoperon

A

binds the cap protein and enables it

218
Q

rb (retino blastoma) is

A

a tumor suppressor protein

219
Q

The role of catabolic activating protein in the lacoperon

A

Finds the promoter when camp levels are high causing an increase in the promoter

220
Q

gene regulation

A

Defines the rate by which genes are transcripted and/or translated to form proteins it is very important to define the characteristics of each cell and in tumor processes

221
Q

difference in gene regulation in prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

P= simple cell, simple needs for homeostasis happens in cytoplasm E= complex cell, fine tuning happens in the nucleus and cytoplasm

222
Q

What is the role of the repressor

A

Binds the operator causing a decrease in the amount of transcription by the RNA polymers it works by creating a spherical interference for the RNA polymarse

223
Q

Operon

A

Is that Polygene sequence found in prokaryote the operon is a family of genes which encodes for a common function like the catabolism of lactose or for the synthesis of TRP amino acid the operon gene sits under a common promoter and under a joint regulation

224
Q

operon is in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

false

225
Q

LAC operon is in an induced or repressed system

A

both

226
Q

TRP peron is an induced or repressed system

A

repressed

227
Q

transcription factors in eukaryotes

A

8 enzymes essential for the initiation elongation and terminations of the transcription process

228
Q

significance of the poly A tail on the mRNA in eukaryotes

A

Stabilization of the MRNA upon entering the cytoplasm a longer poly a tail will result in and MRNA with a loner lifetime

229
Q

what are enhancers and silencers in eukaryotes

A

enhancers and silencers are special regions of DNA found thousands of base pairs upstream or downstream Of the gene and affect the level of transcription for the certain gene

230
Q

Mutation caused by the substitution of nucleotides and result in a different type of amino acid is

A

missense mutations

231
Q

,Mutation caused by the substitution of nucleotides and result in the same kind of amino acid or an amino acid with the same properties is called

A

Silently mutation

232
Q

Mutation caused by the substitution of nucleotides and result in a new codon that encodes for a STOP codon upstream to the original S TOP codon of the gene is called

A

nonsense mutation

233
Q

Insertion of a single nucleotide in the replication process will result in a

A

Frame shift mutation

234
Q

deletion of a single nucleotide in the replucation process will result in a

A

frame shift mutation

235
Q

Deletion of a 2 nucleotide in the replication process will result in a

A

Frame shift mutation

236
Q

deletion of a 3 nucleotide in the replication process will result in a

A

could be missense or nonsense or silent mutation

237
Q

name two autosomal recessive diseases

A

cystic fibrosis tay sachs G6p deficiency albinisn

238
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

AR disease

239
Q

hemophilia is

A

XR disease

240
Q

Huntington is

A

AD disease

241
Q

vitamin D resistance is

A

XD disease

242
Q

down syndrome is

A

trisomy 21

243
Q

patau syndrome

A

trisomy 13

244
Q

Edward syndrome

A

trisomy 18

245
Q

Turner syndrome

A

monotony

246
Q

kleinfelter syndrome

A

trisomy XXY

247
Q

Cri du chat syndrome is caused by

A

deletion

248
Q

mutation

A

change in DNA sequence in a gene or chromosome of an organism. can result inn the creation of a new trait not found in the parental type mutation can be silent with no effect harmful in rare cases

249
Q

germ line mutation

A

Is a mutation that is further transmitted to the progeny whereas a somatic mutation is an acquired mutation frequently caused by environmental factors such as UV light and smoking

Biology/anatomy Workbook (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions