All Of Anatomy And Physiology Workbook Flashcards
tissue lining upper respiratory system
pseudosratified columnar epithel
tissue lining lung alveoli
simple squamous epithel
tissue lining digestive system
columnar epithel
tissue lining epidermis
stratified squamous epithel
function of simple epithel
nutrient and gas transport
functioning of stratified epithel
mechanical protection
classification of skeletal muscles
red and white aerobic and anaerobic fast and slow
composition of blood isb
plasma RBC wbc and platelets
building unit of bone
osteon
cells composing bones are
osteocyte
cells composing cartilage
chondrocyte
connective tissue found around internal organs
reticular tissue
connective tissue found in the skin
loose connective tissue
muscles in the esophagus are classified as
smooth
type of muscle found in the blood vessels
smooth
heart muscles are
cardiac muscle
heart muscles are
cardiac muscle
conductive system of heart is made of
cardiac muscle
cells that compose nervous system
neurons
supportive cells found in CNS
neuroglia
classification of epithelial tissue
SIMPLE aka one layer (squamous -flat cells ) (cuboidal-cubic cells nucleus ) (columnar-rectangle nucleus at base) STRATISFIED aka number of layers of cells (stratified columnar -5 layers of cells) (stratisfied cuboidal - a few layers 2 of cubic cells ) (stratified columnar - few layers of rectangle cells) (pseudo stratified a number of layers all cells in basement membrane )
classification of muscle tissue
skeletal - red and white, voluntary cardiac- involuntary, smooth - involuntary
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is foubd in the
skin
epithelial cells that can stretch gonna cuboidal or columnar shape to a squamous shape are called
transitional epithelium
where is pseudosratified columnar ciliated epithelium
lining of nasal cavity and trachea
lining of blood vessels is covered with
simple squamous epithelium
dense connective tissue
collagen fibers in many different direction withstands great p pulling force in their direction
which type of tissue does not contain collagen fibers
skeletal muscle
in nerve cells the _ contains the nucleus and is the site of general cell functions
cell body
type of tissue found in tendons
dense connective tissue
striations in skeletal muscles are due to
actin and myosin
cardiac and skeletal muscles
striated
the structure which connects cardiac muscle fibers and allows free movement or ions between them is called
interrelated disc
smooth muscle cells
spindle shaped
elastic connective tissue can be found in
blood vessels
which of the following statements regarding adipose tissue is false
cells composing it are called faticytes
bone tissue is a highly dynamic tissue this means that
it is continuously built and destroyed
in the center of each osteon a _ can be found
harvestian channel
the bone functions as a mineral storage what kind of minerals does it store?
calcium and phosphate
which of the following tissues does not contain blood vessels
cartilage
cartilage can be found in
epilglotis larynx external ear ribs
protein that regulates fluid distribution between plasma and interatatial fluid
albumin
leukocytes are
white blood cells and immune cells
structure that permits one neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron describes a
synapse
tissue that forms the endoskeleton
bone
muscles thay compose muskoskeletal system
striated
types of skeletal muscles
red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic
types of skeletal muscles
red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic
examples of long bones
humerus tibia fibia
short bones
digits metacarpals metatarsals
flat bone examples
pelvis skull sternum
shoulder joint type
ball and socket
hip joint type
ball and socket
knee joint type
hinge
elbow joint type
hinge
wrist joint type
condyloid
knee joint movements
extention
hip joint movement
all
elbow joint movement
extention and flexion
cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal
important mineral storage area
cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal
important mineral storage area
how many vertical vertebrae
7
how many rib pairs are true ribs
7
the sagittal plane divides the body in to
sinister and Dexter
compared to the tibia the femur is positioned more
proximal
compared to the heart the lungs are located more
lateral
function of the muskoskeletal system
support minerals protection
structure connects muscle to bone
tendon
stabilize and support joints by holding bones in place
ligaments
example of agonistic and antagonistic muscle working together
when the bicep muscle contracts the triceps muscle relaxer
movement by which hand is brought away from the body
abduction
when you kick a ball the movement made by the knee joint is
extention
when you flex your feet palms the movement is called
Doris flexion
type of joint that allows the most movement
ball and socket
muscles in the shoulder joint
deltoid pectoralis lattismus dorsi
muscles involved in the ankle joint
gastrocnemiud and soleus
bones involved inn the wrist joint are
radius ulna capital bones
the thoracic spinal column contains _ vertebrae
12
which of the following statements regarding the sacral spinal column is true
fuses vertebrae 5 vertebrae proximal to coxxyc component of pelvis inlet
lumbar vertebrae
cranial to the sacral vertabrea and caudal to the thoracic vertebra
the 11rh and 12th ribs are
floating ribs
anterior part of the rib cage
sternum
inferior part of the thoraic cavity
diaphragam
muscle that lies in the posterior part of the thoraic cavity
lattismus dorsi
erectus abdominis
anterior border of the abdominal cavity
name of innermost layer of the heart
endocardium
middle layer of heart
myocardum
outer layer of heart
epicardium
valve between left atrium and left ventricle
mitral
right atrium and right ventricle
triscupid
outer membrane covering heart is called
pericardium
mitral valve is also called
biscupid
main blood vessels supplying the heart muscles are
coronary arteries
the normal blood pressure is approximately
120/80
normal heart rate
80
definition of brachychardia and tachycardia
B= below 60bpm T= above 100 bpm
blood pressure is usually measured at the
brachial artery
sympathetic activation of the heart results in
increase heart rate and increase contractility
parasympathetic activation in the heart results in
decrease heart rate
neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system
norepinephrine
neurotransmitters of the parasympathetic nervous system
acetyl-choline
primary pace maker of the heart
SA node
conducting system is made of
specialized muscle fibers and specialized epithelium
highest blood pressure in the artery
systolic
pathway of the conductive system
innervation independent it has own pace maker called SA nose located in right atrium electrical pulses are conducted to the ventricles through the AV node which is the only spit in the atrio ventricular septum through which electrical pulses can pass the pulse pass bundle of his and then to the right and left ventricles through the RBB= right bundle branch and LBB= left bundle branch that branch into the purkinje fibers
how do you call inflamattion of myocardium pericardium epicardium
myocarditid pericarditis epicarditis
how do you call inflamattion of the aortic valve
endocarditis
risk factors for myocardial infarction
smoke obesity male gender age
describe the systemic and pulmonary blood flow
left ventricle- aorta - arterioles - capillaries - venules- veins - right atrium - right ventricles - pulmonary arteries - lungs - pulmonary veins- left atrium- left ventricle
cardiac cycle value
0.8 seconds
heart rate cycle
72 BPM
stroke volume
80-100ml per bit
CO (cardiac output)
HR × SV = 5-6 liters per minute
lining of inner walls of heart chambers
endocardium
Livermore layer of heart pericardium
parietal pericardium
hearts natural pacemaker
SA node
hearts electrical conduction network found within the ventricular myocardium
purkinje fibers
if hearts natural pacemaker fails to fire then.
the node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker
the exchanges of gas and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of
capillaries
which of the following best describes arteries
all arteries carry blood away from the heart
blood returning to the heart from the inferior vena cava would enter the
right atrium
blood in the pulmonary arteries
is heading towards the lungs
located between the right atrium and right ventricles is the
triscupid atrioventricular valve
the pulmonary veins
carry oxygenated blood towards the heart
which arterial tunic modification is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure
a thick tunica media
normally blood leaving the right ventricle immediately flows through the
pulmonary seminular valve
blood leaving the left atrium normally immediately flows through the
biscupid mitral atriocentrular valve
deoxygenated blood is normally found only
in the right side of the heart
closing of the __ normally prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle
pulmonary seminular valve
when evaluating the dynamics of capillary blood flow hydrostatic pressure
is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than it’s venous end
structures directly involved in the pulmonary circuit
right ventricle pulmonary arteries and left atrium
histologically the _ is simple squamous epithelium surrounded by a connective tissue
tunica interna intima
sympathetic stimulation to the hearts natural pacemaker normally results in
a faster heart rate and a greater force of myocardial contraction
the left ventricles myocardium is thicket than the right ventricles myocardium in order to
contract with greater pressure
a heart rate of 90 bpm means that the duration of one cardiac cycle is about _ seconds
0.67 seconds
a person who’s heart rate is 70 bpm and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min
has a stroke volume of 0.07 liters per beat
the first two branches stemming of the aortic arch are the
braciocephalic trunk and left common cartoid artery
the third branch off the aortic arch services the
left subclavian
which blood vessel receives blood from the right ventricle during systole ?
pulmonary trunk
which blood vessel receives blood from the left ventricle during systole
aorta
which of the following statements about the movement of materials at the systemic capillary level is correct
CO2 moves from its site of production into the interatatial fluid
the deflection waves of an ECG EKG include
the t wave which indicates ventricular repolarization
an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood is termed
an embolus
an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood
an embolus
The innermost layer of the kidney
medulla
Outermost layer of the Kidney
cortex
Factional unit of the kidney
nephron
Outer covering of the Kidney
capsule
parts of the nephron
Nephron consists of Bowman’s capsule connected to a long renal tubule inside the Bowman’s capsule is a cluster of capillaries is called glomerulus 3 main regions and the renal tubule proximal convoluted tubule that conducts the ultra filtrate from Bowman’s capsule the loop of Henley an elongated shaped portion and the distal convoluted tubule that conducts the filtrate to a collecting duct
which kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity and why
The right kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity below the liver making it lower than the left kidney that is located below the spleen
second name suprarenal gland
adrenal
main blood vessels supplying the kidneys
renal arteries
normal GFR
120 L /min
What does GFR stand for
glomerular filtration rate
describe the path of urine from the circulation to the urethra
blood //glumeruli - ultrafiltrate //tubular system-urine
functions of the kidney
filtration of blood maintenance of blood composition maintenance of blood pressure and volume acid base balance endocrine function
ph relation to the Kidney
pppp=6.1 +log [hhhh3/hhh2] regulated by kidneys
part of the nephron that absorbs the majority of water
proximal tubule
part of the nephron in which aldesterone acts
distal tubes and collecting ducts
part of the nephron which ADH acts
distal tubule and collecting ducts
inflammation of the Kidney
nephritis
inflamattion of the uretrr
ureteritis
inflamattion of the urethra
urethritis
inflamattion of urinary bladder
cystitis
normal urinary bladder capacity.
up to 800 ml
normal daily urine voiding volume
2 liters
about parts of excretory system of healthy man
one urethra 2 ureters
tip of renal pyramid
renal Papilla
major calyces of kidney converge to form an enlarged channel called
renal pelvis
basic histological and functional unit of the Kidney
nephron
order of fluid flowing from filtration membrane through the nephron
glomeruli-proximal tubule- loop of henle- distal tubule - collecting duct
part of a nephron between bowman capsule and loop of henle
proximal tubule
Part of the plasma volume that passes through the filtration membrane
filtration fraction
Blood supply to the kidneys is approximately
20% of cardiac output
The renal arteries arise from
Aorta
What substance does not go through filtration in a normal state
amalyse
Of the filtrate that enters the nephron about what percent is reabsorbed during urine formation
99%
Which of the following is secreted by the kidney
Renin
Which of these conditions increases the amount of urine produced
Decreased ADH secretion
angiotensin 2 causes
increased ADH secretion increased aldesterone secretion increased thirst increased peripheral resistance
The movement of substances from the filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries is called
Tubular reabsorption
When the tubular load of a substance exceeds the tubular absorption maximum that substance will
appear in the urine
what is not a major function of the Kidney
Regulation of blood cell size
Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances
Proximal convoluted tubule
the structure of nephron that filters blood
glomerular capsule
This is a nephron process that results in a substance and blood entering that already formed filtrate
secretion
Increase secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a _ of blood
Increase in PH
increased secretion of renin would result in a _ of blood
increase in volume
this transports urine from the Kidney to the bladder
ureter
The kidneys are positioned
retroperitonealy
The kidneys are positioned
retroperitonealy
The venous blood from the kidneys drains into
Inferior vena cava
Cortical nephrons
Small glomeruli
Fluid found inside the glomeruli is
blood
ADH is secreted from
pituitary gland
The hormone secreted by the kidney that acts upon the bone marrow is called
erythropoeitin
CO2 dissolved in blood acts as
acid
vitamin D
increases calcium absorption from the GI
name of oral cavity
stoma
part of stomach most proximal to the esophagous is called
cardia
part of the stomach that drains into the duodenum is called
pylorus
area in stomach designed for storage
fundus
parts of the esophagus
Lined with mucous membrane and is more deeply lined with muscle and acts with peristaltic action to move swallowed food down to the stomach
significance of UES and LES
UES=Superior position of the esophagus because prevents the food bolus from getting back into the oro pharynx LES= Aimed to keep the acidity of the stomach from entering the esophagus
path of food
oral cavity-pharynx-esophagus-stomach-duodenum-jujunum-illeum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon - descending colon -sigmoid colon -rectum -anus
bile function
important in lipid digestion (emulsifying lipids)
fundus gastric volume
1-2 Liters
function of pancreas with relation to the GI tract
the exocrine pancreas secretes enzymes into duodenum enabling digestion trypsin breaks down polypetitdes into surprised and then into amino acids ligase breaks down lipids amylase breaks down CH into dissacharides ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease breakdown nucleic acids
function of the liver in relation to the GI tract
secretes bile it is a cholesterol derivative synthesized in the liver stored in the gall bladder and secreted to the duodenum. as we eat the gall bladder contacts and the bile enters the duodenum through a duct called the common bile duct the bile is an allopathic molecule that acts as a detergent
the correct order of the parts of the small intestine
duodenum ileum jejnum
main blood vessels supplying the GI
all are correct
. parts of the large intestine
cecum ascending transverse descending colon sigmoid colon rectum anus
inflammation of oral cavity
stomatitis
inflammation of the ileum
ileitis
part of the GI where majority of nutrient absorption occurs
jejunum
inflammation of the small intestine
enteritis
site of food sterilization
stomach
inflamattion of the large intestine
colitis
part of GI where absorption of vit B12 occurs
ileum
inflammation of the rectum
proctitis
amalyse enzyme participates in the digestion of which substances ?
polysacharrides
bile is produced in
liver
name of stomach cell that secretes hydrochloric acid
parietal cell
which of the following is an accessory of the GI tract
pancreas
which of the following macromolecules is digested in the small intestine
all of them
enzyme amalyse is secreted into the
mouth and small intestine
the major movement of food through the GI tract is called
peristalsis
which enzyme digests protein
Pepsin and trypsin
in which gastrointestinal organ does the majority of digestion and absorption occur
small intestine
which two secretions need to be present for lipid digestion
pepsin and lipase
which organ secretes majority of digestive enzymes
pancreas
what is the major cause of stomach ulcers
helicobacter pylori
what important nutrient is made in the large intestine
vitamin k
in which digestive organ is chyme produced
stomach
villi and microvilli increase the surface area of the
small intestine
the endocrine part of the pancreas secretes
insulin and glucagon
the appendix is an outgrowth of the
cecum
which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system
peristalsis
which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system
peristalsis
which is a primary function of the mouth
ingestion
which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine
absorption
which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food ?
salivary glands
following organs proeuces a fluid that functions to emulsify fat
liver
structure of the stomach allows greater distention for food storage
fundus
this major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate
pancreatic duct
which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins
chymotripsin
the digestive aid produced by the stomach begins digestion by denaturing proteins
hydrochloric acid
this structure regulates the flow of material into the colon
ileoceal valve
which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine
faeces information
the name of the site for gas exchange in the lung
alveoli
the name or the anatomical site where the trachea divides into two
bifurcation and carina
name of the functional unit of the lung
alveoli
name of the outer covering of the lung
visceral pleura
the anatomical dead space is composed of
trachea and bronchial tree
the main blood vessel supplying the lungs
bronchial arteries
normal tidal volume TV is
500 ml
normal pulmonary blood flow (BF)
5000 ml min
which phase Is active and which is passive during the breathing cycle
inspiration is active and expiration is passive
the stimulator of the respiratory system is
increase in CO2
inflammation of the bronchial tree
bronchitis
inflammation of the lung
pneumonia
hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen occurs in
asthma
inflammation of the trachea
tracheitis
the structure which divides the two nostrils
nasal septum
describe the lobes of each lung
right lung is divided into :superior love, middle lobe, inferior lobe left lung is divided into : superior lobe inferior lobe
which lung is more susceptible to inhalation of a foreign body
RMB is a direct continuation of trachea while L MB lies in a 90ﾟ angle to the trachea therefore when a person aspirates a foreign object it is likely to be found in the R and B the medical significance is at the left long will continue to function
Path of an oxygen molecule from the air to the blood
O2 enters alveoli as we inhale the air each alveoli surrounded by capillaries rich in CO2 while the alveoli itself contains high concentration of O2 therefore the O2 from the alveoli enters the capillaries and the CO2 from capillaries enters the alveoli that way the body tissues receive oxygen supply and get rid of CO2
describe the mechanism of breathing
inspiration - active- lung is adhered to thoraic wall by the pleural fluid the intercostal muscles contract the diaphragam contracts all causing the lungs to expand negative pressure is created in the lungs rhat forces air to enter the lungs expiration- passive phase intercostal muscles relax diapragham relaxed chest wall returns to original size the lung compress and air is forced out
PH relation to the lungs
respiratory system has the ability to control CO2 level thus controlling PH level of blood PH= 6.1 + log (HCO3/CO2)
value of normal function residual capacity (FRC)
3L
what is the normal respiratory rate
12-14 breaths per minute
TV and TRV define and give values
TV (tidal volume) 500 ml amount of air inhaled and exhaled in each breath RV (residual volume) 1.5 L amount of air that remains in lungs after forced exhale
which of following is not part of upper respiratory system
trachea
conducting zones role is to
filter air conduct air into lungs add water to air warm air
following is a passageway for air food and water
pharynx
structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea
epiglottis
primary gas exchange site
alveolus
point where trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called
carina
forms exchange surfaces of alveolus
simple squamous epithelium
direction of diffusion of gases at capillaries near tissue cells
oxygen out of blood - carbon dioxide into blood
conducting airways with the air that does not undergo respiratory exchange are known as the
respiratory dead space
when blood PH drops then the amount of oxyhaemoglobin _ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells_
decreases, increases
surfactant allows the lung to
to be elastic
pharynx is a part of the _ respiratory tract
upper
during expiration the inthrathoracic pressure
becomes more positive compared to the atmospheric pressure
largest volume capacity for the respirstory system
total lung capacity
volume of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximum respiration
residual volume
oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and out of cells by the process if
diffusion
hyperventilation produces
decreases blood PCO2 and increase in PH
volume of gas inspired or expired in an unforced respirstory cycle
tidal volume
if a person has a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a tidal volume of 500 ml what is the volume od air inspired in one minute
10000 ml
hypoventilation may cause
acidosis
IRDS is most frequently seen in
premature infants
narrowing of the airways is most likely to be seen in which disorder
asthma
if someone had an upper respiratory tract infection where would it be located
sinuses
the membranous sac that attached directly to the lung is called
visceral pleura
the vocal chords are contained within the
larynx
contraction of the intercostal muscles and diaphragam cause the thoraic cavity to _ and the air pressure in the lungs to _
expand, decrease
the amount of air that leaves the lungs under normal conditions is the
tidal volume
nearly all of the oxygen is carried in the blood as
oxyhemeglobin
a hormone is
a molecule secreted into the blood by an endocrine organ a lipid a protein
Gland that secretes ACTH
anterior pituitary gland
Gland that secretes LH and FSH
Anterior pituitary gland
Gland that secretes oxytocin
Posterior pituitary glad
Gland that secretes ADH
Posterior pituitary gland
gland that secretes prolactin
anterior pituitary gland
Gland that secretes cortisol
Adrenal
Glands that secretes TRH
Hypothalamus
Glands that secrete TSH
anterior pituitary glad
gland that secretes aldesterone
adrenal gland
Glands that secrete sex hormones
adrenal gland
role of aldosteron
Maintains blood volume and pressure by absorbing water and sodium
role of progesterone
Mantine’s pregnancy and promotes the uterine lining
name of gland that secretes T3 and The
thyroid gland
gland that secretes PTH
parathyroid gland
Role of PTH with vitamin D
Maintain level of CA2 in blood by re absorbing calcium in the kidney and GI and by bone reabsorption they act to increase CA2 plus concentration in the blood
gland that secretes insulin
pancreas
role of insulin and glucagon
I = home and released when the body is in wealth fed state acts to decrease the glucose level in the blood G = hormone and released when the body is in a state of starvation acts to increase glucose level in the blood
name of gland that secretes GnRH
Hypothalamus
cortisol
Immune system suppressor a inhibits pain fever illnesses increase the glucose level used by the brain in order to respond faster medicine will use it to treats auto immune diseases
One effect of ADH is to
Decrease urine volume
Oxytocinwe secretion causes
Milk ejection in lactating females and uterine contractions
Factors that stimulate secretion of ADH
Decrease blood pressure
Hyper secretion of GH in adults produces
acromegaly
What hormone is a neurohormone that is not produced in the hypothalamus
FSH
Which of these symptoms is the result of hyperthyroidism
Rapid heart rate
when parathyroid hormone increased
bone destruction increased
The adrenal medulla
Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine
Which does not cause an increase secretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla
sleep
If cortisol secretion increases
If cortisol secretion increases The inflammatory response decreases
Glucagon increases
Breakdown of clock into glucose and glucose synthesis from aminoacids and fat and blood sugar levels and fat breakdown
hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are synthesized in the
Hypothalamus
The following can be classified as endocrine glands except
sebaceous gland
hormones regulating blood calcium level
Parathyroid hormone and and vitamin D
Plans that can be classified as and endocrine and exocrine is
pancreas
mineral corticoids
Produced in the adrenal cortex and R steroids hormones and help to regulate homeostasis of sodium and potassium
antigen is
Molecule that provokes immune response part of a pathogen and a protein
Role of CD4T lymphocyte
Destroys infected cells and destroys cancerous cells
NK lymphocyte
Can produce cytokines destroy cells by lysis destroys infected cells is part of the innate immune response destroys cancerous cells destroys graft cells
Role of B lymphocyte
Produces antibodies that will neutralize the antigen
role of macrophages
Is an agranulocyte provokes an immune response is a phagocyte is part of the innate immune response is part of the adaptive immune response
neutrophils
contains granules
role or eosinophils
Participates in allergic reactions contains granules destroy cells infected with parasites has a lobed nucleus and is part of the innate immunity
Maturation of immune cells occurs in
Lymph nodes and the thymus
The complement system
Destroys pathogens
mast cell role
produce histamines
Which cells are considered as antigen-presenting cells
microphages and T helpers
Which of the cells can affect pathogen without a direct contact
B cells
5 examples of WBC aka leukocytes
T8 T4 NK B lymphocytes neutrophils
Mechanism of bacterial lysis by macrophages
engulfment insertion oxidative burst
autoimmunuty
body attacks itself
example of pathogen
Plasmodium streptococcus HIV
Maintaining electrolyte and temperature homeostasis is a function of the lymphatic and immune system true or false
false
lymph nodes
located inside the body
What macromolecule causes lymph from the small intestine to appear white
lipids
the pancreas is an organ of the immune system true or false
false
The left subclavian vein receives lymph from
The thoracic duct
Homeopoetic tissues found in
bone marrow
Skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in
Lymphatic immune and cardiovascular systems
Which does not provide a physical or chemical Barrier
macrophages
function of the spleen
removes worn out blood cells
Which provides a non specific cellular disease resistance mechanism
macrophages
Which is mainly used to kill infectious microbes and tumor cells
natural killer cells
Which is not a sign of inflammation
Mucus production
This induces production of a specific antibody
Antigen
This class of cells includes macrophages B cells and dendritic cells
Antigen-presenting cells
These display CD4 in the membrane
helper T cells
the thymus
decreases in size in order adults
A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva
lyzozome
A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva
lyzozome
A _ is a group of proteins activated by a series of reactions in which one activated so chemical than activates another and promotes inflammation phagocytosis and cell lysis
complement
Most important phagocytes is
Neutrophils and macrophages
Natural killer cells
Natural killer cells Exhibit no memory response
t cells
are produced in the thyumus
Activations of B cells
Results in production of antibodies
B cells are stimulated by
helper T cells
Activations of T cells can result in
License of virus infected cells production of memory T cells production of cytokines
MHC molecules are
Cell surface glycoprotein that display antigens
MHC class number 2 molecule
Are found in antigen-presenting cells
_ are responsible for the secondary antibody response
Plasma B cells
vaccination is a way of acquiring
Active artificial immunity
Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to
Active immunity
The lymph from the right foot’s empties into the
Thoracic duct
Contract tile unit of the muscle composing muskoskeletal system
Sacromere
skeletal muscle types
Red and white and fast and slow and aerobic and anaerobic
ATP
binds Myosin to provide energy for muscle contraction
Troponin
Binds tropo myosin to disable muscle contraction
What are the characteristics of myosin when bonded to ATP
Has low affinity towards Actin
Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP
Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP Has high affinity towards Actin
Binding sites for myosin
ATP ATPase and actin
Composition of a Sacromere
Sacra mere unit functional units composed of multi protein complex consists of thin and thick filaments attached together actin -thin filament attached to 2 globular proteins called tropomyosin and troponin Myosin thick filament composed of myosin head and two binding sites actin and ATP binding site Z line disc attached to actin
rigor mortis is a condition which results from
Lack of ATP
role of oxygen in muscle contraction
Roe is to participate in aerobic respiration final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
ATP would be required for
contraction and relaxation
During contraction
During contraction Z line brought closer to each other
skeletal muscles are bonded to the bone by
tendon
the 3 different kinds of muscle tissue differ each other by
Microscopic and anatomy and location and the type of control
According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction during contraction
The sacromeres shorten
biceps muscle is an Extensor and its antagonist tricep is a flexor
False
Which is an important function of ATP in the skeletal muscle
Required for dissociation of Actin from myosin
basic unit of muscle tissue composed of repeating sections of sacromere describes
Myofibril
Myosin binds calcium true or false
False
The borders of sacromeres are called
Z line
Hydrolysis of ATP enables
Myosin heads become re oriented and energize
Hydrolysis of ATP enables
Myosin heads become re oriented and energize
ATP binding site is found on
Myosin
Cross bridges are
Binding between myosin and actin
frontal lobe is the _ center
motor
That parietal lobe is the blank center
Sensory
The occipital lobe is the blank center
visual
temporal lobe is
auditory center
hypothalamus is the blank center
Temperature regulation and endocrine
Brian stem is the
vital function center
parts of spinal cord
Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns
parts of spinal cord
Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns
Ventral horns are blank
Moto
dorsal horns are
sensory
Characteristics of action potential
All-or-none response propagation without Decorah ment threshold level has to be reached refractory period
What are the phases of action potential
Threshold and then depolarizarion Re polar ization after potential hyper polarization Return to the resting state
Resting membrane potential is established by
The sodium potassium pump
Repolarization is a consequence of
Opening of voltage dependent K plus channels
Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of
Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of NAK plus pump
During resting state blank is exerted upon an a plus to force it _the cell
Electro chemical gradient into the cell
During resting state _ is exerted upon K plus to force it _ the self
Chemical gradient out of the cell and then electrical gradient into the cell
12 cranial nerves
olfactory optic oculomotor trochlear trigeminal abducens facial vestibucholear glossypharygneal vagus accessory hypoglossal
Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptor to the central nervous system
sensory neurons
carry nerve impulses away from the cell
axons
part of nervous system considered involuntary
autonomic nervous system
Different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest
Resting membrane potential
The stage in an action potential that immediately follows depolarization is
Repolarization
junction between two nerves cells
synapse
output of ANS does NOT control
skeletal muscle
Correct combination of the spinal nerve pairs
8 servico 12 thoracic 5 lumber 5 sacral 1 coccygeal
parts of neurons
dendrite axon cell body
neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the
neurons
A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors’ to the
central nervous system
SCH WAN cells are one of several types of _ cells
neurological
nociceptors
Respond to painful stimuli excessive heat nerve endings chemical secreted by cells of the immune system
SCHWANN are the main neurons for the spinal cord
false
SCHWANN cells Produce layers of membrane containing myellin which provides nutrition for the den drives
false
Action potential changes the charge inside axon from positive to negative true of false
false
A nerve fiber obeys and all or none law in so far as it either fires or a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold
A nerve fiber obeys and all a nun law in so far as it either spires a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold True
the sodium potassium pump pumps
Sodium ions out and potassium ions in
With an action potential depolarization of the XO membrane is recorded as the gates open allowing _ into the flow of the axon
Sodium ions
a refactory period Is
A brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an impulse
acetylcholine and norepinephrine 2 well known
neurotransmitters
The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic system or the
autonomic system
somatic system contains nerves that control
skeletal muscles
characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system
Causes the pupil to contract promotes digestion retards the heartbeat
characteristics of the sympathetic system
Inhibits digestive tract dilates the Bronchi accelerates heartbeat
Integrates information it receives from all over in order to make decisions
central nervous system
Brian and spinal cord are protected by membranes known as the
meininges
medulla oblongata
contains centers for heartbeat breathing and blood pressure
main function of the cerbellum
muscle coordination
paccinian receptors
Mechanoreceptors that a sensitive to deep touch
receptors involved in reception of information concerning body positions and movements
proprioceptive receptors
chemoreceptors
taste buds and olfactory receptors
afferent nervous system
Ascending and sensory
cranial nerves
emerge directly from the brain
muscle responsible for change of shape of the lens
ciliary muscle
contains photoreceptor
retina
Contains the highest concentration of cone
fovea centralis
clear jelly like substance behind the lens of the eye
vitreous humor
bending of light that happens at the cornea and lens
refraction
which of the following belongs to the middle ear
ossicles
receptors for hearing
chochlea
senses for dynamic equilibrium
semicircular canals
Vestibular system consists of
utricle and saccule and semicircular canals
The macule is found in the
vestibule
myopia
short sightedness
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule and semicircular canals
correction the macule is found in the
vestibule
myopia
short sightedness
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule semicircular canals
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule semicircular canals
expanded area of the semicircular canals is
ampulla
auditory tube forma a connection between
middle ear and nasopharynx
hair cells of the organ of corti sit on which of the following structure
tectorial membrane
