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Biology/anatomy Workbook > All Of Anatomy And Physiology Workbook > Flashcards

All Of Anatomy And Physiology Workbook Flashcards

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AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

tissue lining upper respiratory system

A

pseudosratified columnar epithel

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2
Q

tissue lining lung alveoli

A

simple squamous epithel

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3
Q

tissue lining digestive system

A

columnar epithel

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4
Q

tissue lining epidermis

A

stratified squamous epithel

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5
Q

function of simple epithel

A

nutrient and gas transport

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6
Q

functioning of stratified epithel

A

mechanical protection

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7
Q

classification of skeletal muscles

A

red and white aerobic and anaerobic fast and slow

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8
Q

composition of blood isb

A

plasma RBC wbc and platelets

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9
Q

building unit of bone

A

osteon

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10
Q

cells composing bones are

A

osteocyte

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11
Q

cells composing cartilage

A

chondrocyte

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12
Q

connective tissue found around internal organs

A

reticular tissue

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13
Q

connective tissue found in the skin

A

loose connective tissue

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14
Q

muscles in the esophagus are classified as

A

smooth

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15
Q

type of muscle found in the blood vessels

A

smooth

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16
Q

heart muscles are

A

cardiac muscle

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17
Q

heart muscles are

A

cardiac muscle

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18
Q

conductive system of heart is made of

A

cardiac muscle

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19
Q

cells that compose nervous system

A

neurons

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20
Q

supportive cells found in CNS

A

neuroglia

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21
Q

classification of epithelial tissue

A

SIMPLE aka one layer (squamous -flat cells ) (cuboidal-cubic cells nucleus ) (columnar-rectangle nucleus at base) STRATISFIED aka number of layers of cells (stratified columnar -5 layers of cells) (stratisfied cuboidal - a few layers 2 of cubic cells ) (stratified columnar - few layers of rectangle cells) (pseudo stratified a number of layers all cells in basement membrane )

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22
Q

classification of muscle tissue

A

skeletal - red and white, voluntary cardiac- involuntary, smooth - involuntary

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23
Q

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is foubd in the

A

skin

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24
Q

epithelial cells that can stretch gonna cuboidal or columnar shape to a squamous shape are called

A

transitional epithelium

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25
Q

where is pseudosratified columnar ciliated epithelium

A

lining of nasal cavity and trachea

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26
Q

lining of blood vessels is covered with

A

simple squamous epithelium

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27
Q

dense connective tissue

A

collagen fibers in many different direction withstands great p pulling force in their direction

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28
Q

which type of tissue does not contain collagen fibers

A

skeletal muscle

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29
Q

in nerve cells the _ contains the nucleus and is the site of general cell functions

A

cell body

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30
Q

type of tissue found in tendons

A

dense connective tissue

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31
Q

striations in skeletal muscles are due to

A

actin and myosin

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32
Q

cardiac and skeletal muscles

A

striated

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33
Q

the structure which connects cardiac muscle fibers and allows free movement or ions between them is called

A

interrelated disc

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34
Q

smooth muscle cells

A

spindle shaped

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35
Q

elastic connective tissue can be found in

A

blood vessels

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36
Q

which of the following statements regarding adipose tissue is false

A

cells composing it are called faticytes

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37
Q

bone tissue is a highly dynamic tissue this means that

A

it is continuously built and destroyed

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38
Q

in the center of each osteon a _ can be found

A

harvestian channel

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39
Q

the bone functions as a mineral storage what kind of minerals does it store?

A

calcium and phosphate

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40
Q

which of the following tissues does not contain blood vessels

A

cartilage

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41
Q

cartilage can be found in

A

epilglotis larynx external ear ribs

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42
Q

protein that regulates fluid distribution between plasma and interatatial fluid

A

albumin

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43
Q

leukocytes are

A

white blood cells and immune cells

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44
Q

structure that permits one neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron describes a

A

synapse

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45
Q

tissue that forms the endoskeleton

A

bone

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46
Q

muscles thay compose muskoskeletal system

A

striated

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47
Q

types of skeletal muscles

A

red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic

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48
Q

types of skeletal muscles

A

red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic

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49
Q

examples of long bones

A

humerus tibia fibia

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50
Q

short bones

A

digits metacarpals metatarsals

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51
Q

flat bone examples

A

pelvis skull sternum

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52
Q

shoulder joint type

A

ball and socket

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53
Q

hip joint type

A

ball and socket

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54
Q

knee joint type

A

hinge

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55
Q

elbow joint type

A

hinge

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56
Q

wrist joint type

A

condyloid

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57
Q

knee joint movements

A

extention

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58
Q

hip joint movement

A

all

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59
Q

elbow joint movement

A

extention and flexion

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60
Q

cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal

A

important mineral storage area

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61
Q

cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal

A

important mineral storage area

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62
Q

how many vertical vertebrae

A

7

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63
Q

how many rib pairs are true ribs

A

7

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64
Q

the sagittal plane divides the body in to

A

sinister and Dexter

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65
Q

compared to the tibia the femur is positioned more

A

proximal

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66
Q

compared to the heart the lungs are located more

A

lateral

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67
Q

function of the muskoskeletal system

A

support minerals protection

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68
Q

structure connects muscle to bone

A

tendon

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69
Q

stabilize and support joints by holding bones in place

A

ligaments

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70
Q

example of agonistic and antagonistic muscle working together

A

when the bicep muscle contracts the triceps muscle relaxer

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71
Q

movement by which hand is brought away from the body

A

abduction

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72
Q

when you kick a ball the movement made by the knee joint is

A

extention

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73
Q

when you flex your feet palms the movement is called

A

Doris flexion

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74
Q

type of joint that allows the most movement

A

ball and socket

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75
Q

muscles in the shoulder joint

A

deltoid pectoralis lattismus dorsi

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76
Q

muscles involved in the ankle joint

A

gastrocnemiud and soleus

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77
Q

bones involved inn the wrist joint are

A

radius ulna capital bones

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78
Q

the thoracic spinal column contains _ vertebrae

A

12

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79
Q

which of the following statements regarding the sacral spinal column is true

A

fuses vertebrae 5 vertebrae proximal to coxxyc component of pelvis inlet

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80
Q

lumbar vertebrae

A

cranial to the sacral vertabrea and caudal to the thoracic vertebra

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81
Q

the 11rh and 12th ribs are

A

floating ribs

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82
Q

anterior part of the rib cage

A

sternum

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83
Q

inferior part of the thoraic cavity

A

diaphragam

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84
Q

muscle that lies in the posterior part of the thoraic cavity

A

lattismus dorsi

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85
Q

erectus abdominis

A

anterior border of the abdominal cavity

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86
Q

name of innermost layer of the heart

A

endocardium

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87
Q

middle layer of heart

A

myocardum

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88
Q

outer layer of heart

A

epicardium

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89
Q

valve between left atrium and left ventricle

A

mitral

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90
Q

right atrium and right ventricle

A

triscupid

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91
Q

outer membrane covering heart is called

A

pericardium

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92
Q

mitral valve is also called

A

biscupid

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93
Q

main blood vessels supplying the heart muscles are

A

coronary arteries

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94
Q

the normal blood pressure is approximately

A

120/80

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95
Q

normal heart rate

A

80

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96
Q

definition of brachychardia and tachycardia

A

B= below 60bpm T= above 100 bpm

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97
Q

blood pressure is usually measured at the

A

brachial artery

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98
Q

sympathetic activation of the heart results in

A

increase heart rate and increase contractility

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99
Q

parasympathetic activation in the heart results in

A

decrease heart rate

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100
Q

neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system

A

norepinephrine

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101
Q

neurotransmitters of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

acetyl-choline

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102
Q

primary pace maker of the heart

A

SA node

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103
Q

conducting system is made of

A

specialized muscle fibers and specialized epithelium

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104
Q

highest blood pressure in the artery

A

systolic

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105
Q

pathway of the conductive system

A

innervation independent it has own pace maker called SA nose located in right atrium electrical pulses are conducted to the ventricles through the AV node which is the only spit in the atrio ventricular septum through which electrical pulses can pass the pulse pass bundle of his and then to the right and left ventricles through the RBB= right bundle branch and LBB= left bundle branch that branch into the purkinje fibers

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106
Q

how do you call inflamattion of myocardium pericardium epicardium

A

myocarditid pericarditis epicarditis

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107
Q

how do you call inflamattion of the aortic valve

A

endocarditis

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108
Q

risk factors for myocardial infarction

A

smoke obesity male gender age

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109
Q

describe the systemic and pulmonary blood flow

A

left ventricle- aorta - arterioles - capillaries - venules- veins - right atrium - right ventricles - pulmonary arteries - lungs - pulmonary veins- left atrium- left ventricle

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110
Q

cardiac cycle value

A

0.8 seconds

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111
Q

heart rate cycle

A

72 BPM

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112
Q

stroke volume

A

80-100ml per bit

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113
Q

CO (cardiac output)

A

HR × SV = 5-6 liters per minute

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114
Q

lining of inner walls of heart chambers

A

endocardium

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115
Q

Livermore layer of heart pericardium

A

parietal pericardium

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116
Q

hearts natural pacemaker

A

SA node

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117
Q

hearts electrical conduction network found within the ventricular myocardium

A

purkinje fibers

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118
Q

if hearts natural pacemaker fails to fire then.

A

the node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker

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119
Q

the exchanges of gas and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of

A

capillaries

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120
Q

which of the following best describes arteries

A

all arteries carry blood away from the heart

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121
Q

blood returning to the heart from the inferior vena cava would enter the

A

right atrium

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122
Q

blood in the pulmonary arteries

A

is heading towards the lungs

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123
Q

located between the right atrium and right ventricles is the

A

triscupid atrioventricular valve

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124
Q

the pulmonary veins

A

carry oxygenated blood towards the heart

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125
Q

which arterial tunic modification is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure

A

a thick tunica media

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126
Q

normally blood leaving the right ventricle immediately flows through the

A

pulmonary seminular valve

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127
Q

blood leaving the left atrium normally immediately flows through the

A

biscupid mitral atriocentrular valve

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128
Q

deoxygenated blood is normally found only

A

in the right side of the heart

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129
Q

closing of the __ normally prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle

A

pulmonary seminular valve

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130
Q

when evaluating the dynamics of capillary blood flow hydrostatic pressure

A

is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than it’s venous end

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131
Q

structures directly involved in the pulmonary circuit

A

right ventricle pulmonary arteries and left atrium

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132
Q

histologically the _ is simple squamous epithelium surrounded by a connective tissue

A

tunica interna intima

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133
Q

sympathetic stimulation to the hearts natural pacemaker normally results in

A

a faster heart rate and a greater force of myocardial contraction

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134
Q

the left ventricles myocardium is thicket than the right ventricles myocardium in order to

A

contract with greater pressure

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135
Q

a heart rate of 90 bpm means that the duration of one cardiac cycle is about _ seconds

A

0.67 seconds

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136
Q

a person who’s heart rate is 70 bpm and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min

A

has a stroke volume of 0.07 liters per beat

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137
Q

the first two branches stemming of the aortic arch are the

A

braciocephalic trunk and left common cartoid artery

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138
Q

the third branch off the aortic arch services the

A

left subclavian

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139
Q

which blood vessel receives blood from the right ventricle during systole ?

A

pulmonary trunk

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140
Q

which blood vessel receives blood from the left ventricle during systole

A

aorta

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141
Q

which of the following statements about the movement of materials at the systemic capillary level is correct

A

CO2 moves from its site of production into the interatatial fluid

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142
Q

the deflection waves of an ECG EKG include

A

the t wave which indicates ventricular repolarization

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143
Q

an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood is termed

A

an embolus

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144
Q

an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood

A

an embolus

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145
Q

The innermost layer of the kidney

A

medulla

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146
Q

Outermost layer of the Kidney

A

cortex

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147
Q

Factional unit of the kidney

A

nephron

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148
Q

Outer covering of the Kidney

A

capsule

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149
Q

parts of the nephron

A

Nephron consists of Bowman’s capsule connected to a long renal tubule inside the Bowman’s capsule is a cluster of capillaries is called glomerulus 3 main regions and the renal tubule proximal convoluted tubule that conducts the ultra filtrate from Bowman’s capsule the loop of Henley an elongated shaped portion and the distal convoluted tubule that conducts the filtrate to a collecting duct

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150
Q

which kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity and why

A

The right kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity below the liver making it lower than the left kidney that is located below the spleen

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151
Q

second name suprarenal gland

A

adrenal

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152
Q

main blood vessels supplying the kidneys

A

renal arteries

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153
Q

normal GFR

A

120 L /min

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154
Q

What does GFR stand for

A

glomerular filtration rate

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155
Q

describe the path of urine from the circulation to the urethra

A

blood //glumeruli - ultrafiltrate //tubular system-urine

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156
Q

functions of the kidney

A

filtration of blood maintenance of blood composition maintenance of blood pressure and volume acid base balance endocrine function

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157
Q

ph relation to the Kidney

A

pppp=6.1 +log [hhhh3/hhh2] regulated by kidneys

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158
Q

part of the nephron that absorbs the majority of water

A

proximal tubule

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159
Q

part of the nephron in which aldesterone acts

A

distal tubes and collecting ducts

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160
Q

part of the nephron which ADH acts

A

distal tubule and collecting ducts

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161
Q

inflammation of the Kidney

A

nephritis

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162
Q

inflamattion of the uretrr

A

ureteritis

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163
Q

inflamattion of the urethra

A

urethritis

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164
Q

inflamattion of urinary bladder

A

cystitis

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165
Q

normal urinary bladder capacity.

A

up to 800 ml

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166
Q

normal daily urine voiding volume

A

2 liters

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167
Q

about parts of excretory system of healthy man

A

one urethra 2 ureters

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168
Q

tip of renal pyramid

A

renal Papilla

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169
Q

major calyces of kidney converge to form an enlarged channel called

A

renal pelvis

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170
Q

basic histological and functional unit of the Kidney

A

nephron

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171
Q

order of fluid flowing from filtration membrane through the nephron

A

glomeruli-proximal tubule- loop of henle- distal tubule - collecting duct

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172
Q

part of a nephron between bowman capsule and loop of henle

A

proximal tubule

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173
Q

Part of the plasma volume that passes through the filtration membrane

A

filtration fraction

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174
Q

Blood supply to the kidneys is approximately

A

20% of cardiac output

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175
Q

The renal arteries arise from

A

Aorta

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176
Q

What substance does not go through filtration in a normal state

A

amalyse

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177
Q

Of the filtrate that enters the nephron about what percent is reabsorbed during urine formation

A

99%

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178
Q

Which of the following is secreted by the kidney

A

Renin

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179
Q

Which of these conditions increases the amount of urine produced

A

Decreased ADH secretion

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180
Q

angiotensin 2 causes

A

increased ADH secretion increased aldesterone secretion increased thirst increased peripheral resistance

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181
Q

The movement of substances from the filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries is called

A

Tubular reabsorption

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182
Q

When the tubular load of a substance exceeds the tubular absorption maximum that substance will

A

appear in the urine

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183
Q

what is not a major function of the Kidney

A

Regulation of blood cell size

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184
Q

Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

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185
Q

the structure of nephron that filters blood

A

glomerular capsule

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186
Q

This is a nephron process that results in a substance and blood entering that already formed filtrate

A

secretion

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187
Q

Increase secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a _ of blood

A

Increase in PH

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188
Q

increased secretion of renin would result in a _ of blood

A

increase in volume

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189
Q

this transports urine from the Kidney to the bladder

A

ureter

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190
Q

The kidneys are positioned

A

retroperitonealy

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191
Q

The kidneys are positioned

A

retroperitonealy

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192
Q

The venous blood from the kidneys drains into

A

Inferior vena cava

193
Q

Cortical nephrons

A

Small glomeruli

194
Q

Fluid found inside the glomeruli is

A

blood

195
Q

ADH is secreted from

A

pituitary gland

196
Q

The hormone secreted by the kidney that acts upon the bone marrow is called

A

erythropoeitin

197
Q

CO2 dissolved in blood acts as

A

acid

198
Q

vitamin D

A

increases calcium absorption from the GI

199
Q

name of oral cavity

A

stoma

200
Q

part of stomach most proximal to the esophagous is called

A

cardia

201
Q

part of the stomach that drains into the duodenum is called

A

pylorus

202
Q

area in stomach designed for storage

A

fundus

203
Q

parts of the esophagus

A

Lined with mucous membrane and is more deeply lined with muscle and acts with peristaltic action to move swallowed food down to the stomach

204
Q

significance of UES and LES

A

UES=Superior position of the esophagus because prevents the food bolus from getting back into the oro pharynx LES= Aimed to keep the acidity of the stomach from entering the esophagus

205
Q

path of food

A

oral cavity-pharynx-esophagus-stomach-duodenum-jujunum-illeum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon - descending colon -sigmoid colon -rectum -anus

206
Q

bile function

A

important in lipid digestion (emulsifying lipids)

207
Q

fundus gastric volume

A

1-2 Liters

208
Q

function of pancreas with relation to the GI tract

A

the exocrine pancreas secretes enzymes into duodenum enabling digestion trypsin breaks down polypetitdes into surprised and then into amino acids ligase breaks down lipids amylase breaks down CH into dissacharides ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease breakdown nucleic acids

209
Q

function of the liver in relation to the GI tract

A

secretes bile it is a cholesterol derivative synthesized in the liver stored in the gall bladder and secreted to the duodenum. as we eat the gall bladder contacts and the bile enters the duodenum through a duct called the common bile duct the bile is an allopathic molecule that acts as a detergent

210
Q

the correct order of the parts of the small intestine

A

duodenum ileum jejnum

211
Q

main blood vessels supplying the GI

A

all are correct

212
Q

. parts of the large intestine

A

cecum ascending transverse descending colon sigmoid colon rectum anus

213
Q

inflammation of oral cavity

A

stomatitis

214
Q

inflammation of the ileum

A

ileitis

215
Q

part of the GI where majority of nutrient absorption occurs

A

jejunum

216
Q

inflammation of the small intestine

A

enteritis

217
Q

site of food sterilization

A

stomach

218
Q

inflamattion of the large intestine

A

colitis

219
Q

part of GI where absorption of vit B12 occurs

A

ileum

220
Q

inflammation of the rectum

A

proctitis

221
Q

amalyse enzyme participates in the digestion of which substances ?

A

polysacharrides

222
Q

bile is produced in

A

liver

223
Q

name of stomach cell that secretes hydrochloric acid

A

parietal cell

224
Q

which of the following is an accessory of the GI tract

A

pancreas

225
Q

which of the following macromolecules is digested in the small intestine

A

all of them

226
Q

enzyme amalyse is secreted into the

A

mouth and small intestine

227
Q

the major movement of food through the GI tract is called

A

peristalsis

228
Q

which enzyme digests protein

A

Pepsin and trypsin

229
Q

in which gastrointestinal organ does the majority of digestion and absorption occur

A

small intestine

230
Q

which two secretions need to be present for lipid digestion

A

pepsin and lipase

231
Q

which organ secretes majority of digestive enzymes

A

pancreas

232
Q

what is the major cause of stomach ulcers

A

helicobacter pylori

233
Q

what important nutrient is made in the large intestine

A

vitamin k

234
Q

in which digestive organ is chyme produced

A

stomach

235
Q

villi and microvilli increase the surface area of the

A

small intestine

236
Q

the endocrine part of the pancreas secretes

A

insulin and glucagon

237
Q

the appendix is an outgrowth of the

A

cecum

238
Q

which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system

A

peristalsis

239
Q

which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system

A

peristalsis

240
Q

which is a primary function of the mouth

A

ingestion

241
Q

which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine

A

absorption

242
Q

which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food ?

A

salivary glands

243
Q

following organs proeuces a fluid that functions to emulsify fat

A

liver

244
Q

structure of the stomach allows greater distention for food storage

A

fundus

245
Q

this major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate

A

pancreatic duct

246
Q

which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins

A

chymotripsin

247
Q

the digestive aid produced by the stomach begins digestion by denaturing proteins

A

hydrochloric acid

248
Q

this structure regulates the flow of material into the colon

A

ileoceal valve

249
Q

which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine

A

faeces information

250
Q

the name of the site for gas exchange in the lung

A

alveoli

251
Q

the name or the anatomical site where the trachea divides into two

A

bifurcation and carina

252
Q

name of the functional unit of the lung

A

alveoli

253
Q

name of the outer covering of the lung

A

visceral pleura

254
Q

the anatomical dead space is composed of

A

trachea and bronchial tree

255
Q

the main blood vessel supplying the lungs

A

bronchial arteries

256
Q

normal tidal volume TV is

A

500 ml

257
Q

normal pulmonary blood flow (BF)

A

5000 ml min

258
Q

which phase Is active and which is passive during the breathing cycle

A

inspiration is active and expiration is passive

259
Q

the stimulator of the respiratory system is

A

increase in CO2

260
Q

inflammation of the bronchial tree

A

bronchitis

261
Q

inflammation of the lung

A

pneumonia

262
Q

hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen occurs in

A

asthma

263
Q

inflammation of the trachea

A

tracheitis

264
Q

the structure which divides the two nostrils

A

nasal septum

265
Q

describe the lobes of each lung

A

right lung is divided into :superior love, middle lobe, inferior lobe left lung is divided into : superior lobe inferior lobe

266
Q

which lung is more susceptible to inhalation of a foreign body

A

RMB is a direct continuation of trachea while L MB lies in a 90ﾟ angle to the trachea therefore when a person aspirates a foreign object it is likely to be found in the R and B the medical significance is at the left long will continue to function

267
Q

Path of an oxygen molecule from the air to the blood

A

O2 enters alveoli as we inhale the air each alveoli surrounded by capillaries rich in CO2 while the alveoli itself contains high concentration of O2 therefore the O2 from the alveoli enters the capillaries and the CO2 from capillaries enters the alveoli that way the body tissues receive oxygen supply and get rid of CO2

268
Q

describe the mechanism of breathing

A

inspiration - active- lung is adhered to thoraic wall by the pleural fluid the intercostal muscles contract the diaphragam contracts all causing the lungs to expand negative pressure is created in the lungs rhat forces air to enter the lungs expiration- passive phase intercostal muscles relax diapragham relaxed chest wall returns to original size the lung compress and air is forced out

269
Q

PH relation to the lungs

A

respiratory system has the ability to control CO2 level thus controlling PH level of blood PH= 6.1 + log (HCO3/CO2)

270
Q

value of normal function residual capacity (FRC)

A

3L

271
Q

what is the normal respiratory rate

A

12-14 breaths per minute

272
Q

TV and TRV define and give values

A

TV (tidal volume) 500 ml amount of air inhaled and exhaled in each breath RV (residual volume) 1.5 L amount of air that remains in lungs after forced exhale

273
Q

which of following is not part of upper respiratory system

A

trachea

274
Q

conducting zones role is to

A

filter air conduct air into lungs add water to air warm air

275
Q

following is a passageway for air food and water

A

pharynx

276
Q

structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea

A

epiglottis

277
Q

primary gas exchange site

A

alveolus

278
Q

point where trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called

A

carina

279
Q

forms exchange surfaces of alveolus

A

simple squamous epithelium

280
Q

direction of diffusion of gases at capillaries near tissue cells

A

oxygen out of blood - carbon dioxide into blood

281
Q

conducting airways with the air that does not undergo respiratory exchange are known as the

A

respiratory dead space

282
Q

when blood PH drops then the amount of oxyhaemoglobin _ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells_

A

decreases, increases

283
Q

surfactant allows the lung to

A

to be elastic

284
Q

pharynx is a part of the _ respiratory tract

A

upper

285
Q

during expiration the inthrathoracic pressure

A

becomes more positive compared to the atmospheric pressure

286
Q

largest volume capacity for the respirstory system

A

total lung capacity

287
Q

volume of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximum respiration

A

residual volume

288
Q

oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and out of cells by the process if

A

diffusion

289
Q

hyperventilation produces

A

decreases blood PCO2 and increase in PH

290
Q

volume of gas inspired or expired in an unforced respirstory cycle

A

tidal volume

291
Q

if a person has a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a tidal volume of 500 ml what is the volume od air inspired in one minute

A

10000 ml

292
Q

hypoventilation may cause

A

acidosis

293
Q

IRDS is most frequently seen in

A

premature infants

294
Q

narrowing of the airways is most likely to be seen in which disorder

A

asthma

295
Q

if someone had an upper respiratory tract infection where would it be located

A

sinuses

296
Q

the membranous sac that attached directly to the lung is called

A

visceral pleura

297
Q

the vocal chords are contained within the

A

larynx

298
Q

contraction of the intercostal muscles and diaphragam cause the thoraic cavity to _ and the air pressure in the lungs to _

A

expand, decrease

299
Q

the amount of air that leaves the lungs under normal conditions is the

A

tidal volume

300
Q

nearly all of the oxygen is carried in the blood as

A

oxyhemeglobin

301
Q

a hormone is

A

a molecule secreted into the blood by an endocrine organ a lipid a protein

302
Q

Gland that secretes ACTH

A

anterior pituitary gland

303
Q

Gland that secretes LH and FSH

A

Anterior pituitary gland

304
Q

Gland that secretes oxytocin

A

Posterior pituitary glad

305
Q

Gland that secretes ADH

A

Posterior pituitary gland

306
Q

gland that secretes prolactin

A

anterior pituitary gland

307
Q

Gland that secretes cortisol

A

Adrenal

308
Q

Glands that secretes TRH

A

Hypothalamus

309
Q

Glands that secrete TSH

A

anterior pituitary glad

310
Q

gland that secretes aldesterone

A

adrenal gland

311
Q

Glands that secrete sex hormones

A

adrenal gland

312
Q

role of aldosteron

A

Maintains blood volume and pressure by absorbing water and sodium

313
Q

role of progesterone

A

Mantine’s pregnancy and promotes the uterine lining

314
Q

name of gland that secretes T3 and The

A

thyroid gland

315
Q

gland that secretes PTH

A

parathyroid gland

316
Q

Role of PTH with vitamin D

A

Maintain level of CA2 in blood by re absorbing calcium in the kidney and GI and by bone reabsorption they act to increase CA2 plus concentration in the blood

317
Q

gland that secretes insulin

A

pancreas

318
Q

role of insulin and glucagon

A

I = home and released when the body is in wealth fed state acts to decrease the glucose level in the blood G = hormone and released when the body is in a state of starvation acts to increase glucose level in the blood

319
Q

name of gland that secretes GnRH

A

Hypothalamus

320
Q

cortisol

A

Immune system suppressor a inhibits pain fever illnesses increase the glucose level used by the brain in order to respond faster medicine will use it to treats auto immune diseases

321
Q

One effect of ADH is to

A

Decrease urine volume

322
Q

Oxytocinwe secretion causes

A

Milk ejection in lactating females and uterine contractions

323
Q

Factors that stimulate secretion of ADH

A

Decrease blood pressure

324
Q

Hyper secretion of GH in adults produces

A

acromegaly

325
Q

What hormone is a neurohormone that is not produced in the hypothalamus

A

FSH

326
Q

Which of these symptoms is the result of hyperthyroidism

A

Rapid heart rate

327
Q

when parathyroid hormone increased

A

bone destruction increased

328
Q

The adrenal medulla

A

Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine

329
Q

Which does not cause an increase secretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla

A

sleep

330
Q

If cortisol secretion increases

A

If cortisol secretion increases The inflammatory response decreases

331
Q

Glucagon increases

A

Breakdown of clock into glucose and glucose synthesis from aminoacids and fat and blood sugar levels and fat breakdown

332
Q

hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are synthesized in the

A

Hypothalamus

333
Q

The following can be classified as endocrine glands except

A

sebaceous gland

334
Q

hormones regulating blood calcium level

A

Parathyroid hormone and and vitamin D

335
Q

Plans that can be classified as and endocrine and exocrine is

A

pancreas

336
Q

mineral corticoids

A

Produced in the adrenal cortex and R steroids hormones and help to regulate homeostasis of sodium and potassium

337
Q

antigen is

A

Molecule that provokes immune response part of a pathogen and a protein

338
Q

Role of CD4T lymphocyte

A

Destroys infected cells and destroys cancerous cells

339
Q

NK lymphocyte

A

Can produce cytokines destroy cells by lysis destroys infected cells is part of the innate immune response destroys cancerous cells destroys graft cells

340
Q

Role of B lymphocyte

A

Produces antibodies that will neutralize the antigen

341
Q

role of macrophages

A

Is an agranulocyte provokes an immune response is a phagocyte is part of the innate immune response is part of the adaptive immune response

342
Q

neutrophils

A

contains granules

343
Q

role or eosinophils

A

Participates in allergic reactions contains granules destroy cells infected with parasites has a lobed nucleus and is part of the innate immunity

344
Q

Maturation of immune cells occurs in

A

Lymph nodes and the thymus

345
Q

The complement system

A

Destroys pathogens

346
Q

mast cell role

A

produce histamines

347
Q

Which cells are considered as antigen-presenting cells

A

microphages and T helpers

348
Q

Which of the cells can affect pathogen without a direct contact

A

B cells

349
Q

5 examples of WBC aka leukocytes

A

T8 T4 NK B lymphocytes neutrophils

350
Q

Mechanism of bacterial lysis by macrophages

A

engulfment insertion oxidative burst

351
Q

autoimmunuty

A

body attacks itself

352
Q

example of pathogen

A

Plasmodium streptococcus HIV

353
Q

Maintaining electrolyte and temperature homeostasis is a function of the lymphatic and immune system true or false

A

false

354
Q

lymph nodes

A

located inside the body

355
Q

What macromolecule causes lymph from the small intestine to appear white

A

lipids

356
Q

the pancreas is an organ of the immune system true or false

A

false

357
Q

The left subclavian vein receives lymph from

A

The thoracic duct

358
Q

Homeopoetic tissues found in

A

bone marrow

359
Q

Skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in

A

Lymphatic immune and cardiovascular systems

360
Q

Which does not provide a physical or chemical Barrier

A

macrophages

361
Q

function of the spleen

A

removes worn out blood cells

362
Q

Which provides a non specific cellular disease resistance mechanism

A

macrophages

363
Q

Which is mainly used to kill infectious microbes and tumor cells

A

natural killer cells

364
Q

Which is not a sign of inflammation

A

Mucus production

365
Q

This induces production of a specific antibody

A

Antigen

366
Q

This class of cells includes macrophages B cells and dendritic cells

A

Antigen-presenting cells

367
Q

These display CD4 in the membrane

A

helper T cells

368
Q

the thymus

A

decreases in size in order adults

369
Q

A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva

A

lyzozome

370
Q

A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva

A

lyzozome

371
Q

A _ is a group of proteins activated by a series of reactions in which one activated so chemical than activates another and promotes inflammation phagocytosis and cell lysis

A

complement

372
Q

Most important phagocytes is

A

Neutrophils and macrophages

373
Q

Natural killer cells

A

Natural killer cells Exhibit no memory response

374
Q

t cells

A

are produced in the thyumus

375
Q

Activations of B cells

A

Results in production of antibodies

376
Q

B cells are stimulated by

A

helper T cells

377
Q

Activations of T cells can result in

A

License of virus infected cells production of memory T cells production of cytokines

378
Q

MHC molecules are

A

Cell surface glycoprotein that display antigens

379
Q

MHC class number 2 molecule

A

Are found in antigen-presenting cells

380
Q

_ are responsible for the secondary antibody response

A

Plasma B cells

381
Q

vaccination is a way of acquiring

A

Active artificial immunity

382
Q

Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to

A

Active immunity

383
Q

The lymph from the right foot’s empties into the

A

Thoracic duct

384
Q

Contract tile unit of the muscle composing muskoskeletal system

A

Sacromere

385
Q

skeletal muscle types

A

Red and white and fast and slow and aerobic and anaerobic

386
Q

ATP

A

binds Myosin to provide energy for muscle contraction

387
Q

Troponin

A

Binds tropo myosin to disable muscle contraction

388
Q

What are the characteristics of myosin when bonded to ATP

A

Has low affinity towards Actin

389
Q

Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP

A

Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP Has high affinity towards Actin

390
Q

Binding sites for myosin

A

ATP ATPase and actin

391
Q

Composition of a Sacromere

A

Sacra mere unit functional units composed of multi protein complex consists of thin and thick filaments attached together actin -thin filament attached to 2 globular proteins called tropomyosin and troponin Myosin thick filament composed of myosin head and two binding sites actin and ATP binding site Z line disc attached to actin

392
Q

rigor mortis is a condition which results from

A

Lack of ATP

393
Q

role of oxygen in muscle contraction

A

Roe is to participate in aerobic respiration final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain

394
Q

ATP would be required for

A

contraction and relaxation

395
Q

During contraction

A

During contraction Z line brought closer to each other

396
Q

skeletal muscles are bonded to the bone by

A

tendon

397
Q

the 3 different kinds of muscle tissue differ each other by

A

Microscopic and anatomy and location and the type of control

398
Q

According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction during contraction

A

The sacromeres shorten

399
Q

biceps muscle is an Extensor and its antagonist tricep is a flexor

A

False

400
Q

Which is an important function of ATP in the skeletal muscle

A

Required for dissociation of Actin from myosin

401
Q

basic unit of muscle tissue composed of repeating sections of sacromere describes

A

Myofibril

402
Q

Myosin binds calcium true or false

A

False

403
Q

The borders of sacromeres are called

A

Z line

404
Q

Hydrolysis of ATP enables

A

Myosin heads become re oriented and energize

405
Q

Hydrolysis of ATP enables

A

Myosin heads become re oriented and energize

406
Q

ATP binding site is found on

A

Myosin

407
Q

Cross bridges are

A

Binding between myosin and actin

408
Q

frontal lobe is the _ center

A

motor

409
Q

That parietal lobe is the blank center

A

Sensory

410
Q

The occipital lobe is the blank center

A

visual

411
Q

temporal lobe is

A

auditory center

412
Q

hypothalamus is the blank center

A

Temperature regulation and endocrine

413
Q

Brian stem is the

A

vital function center

414
Q

parts of spinal cord

A

Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns

415
Q

parts of spinal cord

A

Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns

416
Q

Ventral horns are blank

A

Moto

417
Q

dorsal horns are

A

sensory

418
Q

Characteristics of action potential

A

All-or-none response propagation without Decorah ment threshold level has to be reached refractory period

419
Q

What are the phases of action potential

A

Threshold and then depolarizarion Re polar ization after potential hyper polarization Return to the resting state

420
Q

Resting membrane potential is established by

A

The sodium potassium pump

421
Q

Repolarization is a consequence of

A

Opening of voltage dependent K plus channels

422
Q

Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of

A

Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of NAK plus pump

423
Q

During resting state blank is exerted upon an a plus to force it _the cell

A

Electro chemical gradient into the cell

424
Q

During resting state _ is exerted upon K plus to force it _ the self

A

Chemical gradient out of the cell and then electrical gradient into the cell

425
Q

12 cranial nerves

A

olfactory optic oculomotor trochlear trigeminal abducens facial vestibucholear glossypharygneal vagus accessory hypoglossal

426
Q

Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptor to the central nervous system

A

sensory neurons

427
Q

carry nerve impulses away from the cell

A

axons

428
Q

part of nervous system considered involuntary

A

autonomic nervous system

429
Q

Different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest

A

Resting membrane potential

430
Q

The stage in an action potential that immediately follows depolarization is

A

Repolarization

431
Q

junction between two nerves cells

A

synapse

432
Q

output of ANS does NOT control

A

skeletal muscle

433
Q

Correct combination of the spinal nerve pairs

A

8 servico 12 thoracic 5 lumber 5 sacral 1 coccygeal

434
Q

parts of neurons

A

dendrite axon cell body

435
Q

neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the

A

neurons

436
Q

A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors’ to the

A

central nervous system

437
Q

SCH WAN cells are one of several types of _ cells

A

neurological

438
Q

nociceptors

A

Respond to painful stimuli excessive heat nerve endings chemical secreted by cells of the immune system

439
Q

SCHWANN are the main neurons for the spinal cord

A

false

440
Q

SCHWANN cells Produce layers of membrane containing myellin which provides nutrition for the den drives

A

false

441
Q

Action potential changes the charge inside axon from positive to negative true of false

A

false

442
Q

A nerve fiber obeys and all or none law in so far as it either fires or a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold

A

A nerve fiber obeys and all a nun law in so far as it either spires a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold True

443
Q

the sodium potassium pump pumps

A

Sodium ions out and potassium ions in

444
Q

With an action potential depolarization of the XO membrane is recorded as the gates open allowing _ into the flow of the axon

A

Sodium ions

445
Q

a refactory period Is

A

A brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an impulse

446
Q

acetylcholine and norepinephrine 2 well known

A

neurotransmitters

447
Q

The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic system or the

A

autonomic system

448
Q

somatic system contains nerves that control

A

skeletal muscles

449
Q

characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system

A

Causes the pupil to contract promotes digestion retards the heartbeat

450
Q

characteristics of the sympathetic system

A

Inhibits digestive tract dilates the Bronchi accelerates heartbeat

451
Q

Integrates information it receives from all over in order to make decisions

A

central nervous system

452
Q

Brian and spinal cord are protected by membranes known as the

A

meininges

453
Q

medulla oblongata

A

contains centers for heartbeat breathing and blood pressure

454
Q

main function of the cerbellum

A

muscle coordination

455
Q

paccinian receptors

A

Mechanoreceptors that a sensitive to deep touch

456
Q

receptors involved in reception of information concerning body positions and movements

A

proprioceptive receptors

457
Q

chemoreceptors

A

taste buds and olfactory receptors

458
Q

afferent nervous system

A

Ascending and sensory

459
Q

cranial nerves

A

emerge directly from the brain

460
Q

muscle responsible for change of shape of the lens

A

ciliary muscle

461
Q

contains photoreceptor

A

retina

462
Q

Contains the highest concentration of cone

A

fovea centralis

463
Q

clear jelly like substance behind the lens of the eye

A

vitreous humor

464
Q

bending of light that happens at the cornea and lens

A

refraction

465
Q

which of the following belongs to the middle ear

A

ossicles

466
Q

receptors for hearing

A

chochlea

467
Q

senses for dynamic equilibrium

A

semicircular canals

468
Q

Vestibular system consists of

A

utricle and saccule and semicircular canals

469
Q

The macule is found in the

A

vestibule

470
Q

myopia

A

short sightedness

471
Q

hair cells can be found in

A

choclea vestibule and semicircular canals

472
Q

correction the macule is found in the

A

vestibule

473
Q

myopia

A

short sightedness

474
Q

hair cells can be found in

A

choclea vestibule semicircular canals

475
Q

hair cells can be found in

A

choclea vestibule semicircular canals

476
Q

expanded area of the semicircular canals is

A

ampulla

477
Q

auditory tube forma a connection between

A

middle ear and nasopharynx

478
Q

hair cells of the organ of corti sit on which of the following structure

A

tectorial membrane

Biology/anatomy Workbook (6 decks)

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