All Of Anatomy And Physiology Workbook Flashcards
1
Q
tissue lining upper respiratory system
A
pseudosratified columnar epithel
2
Q
tissue lining lung alveoli
A
simple squamous epithel
3
Q
tissue lining digestive system
A
columnar epithel
4
Q
tissue lining epidermis
A
stratified squamous epithel
5
Q
function of simple epithel
A
nutrient and gas transport
6
Q
functioning of stratified epithel
A
mechanical protection
7
Q
classification of skeletal muscles
A
red and white aerobic and anaerobic fast and slow
8
Q
composition of blood isb
A
plasma RBC wbc and platelets
9
Q
building unit of bone
A
osteon
10
Q
cells composing bones are
A
osteocyte
11
Q
cells composing cartilage
A
chondrocyte
12
Q
connective tissue found around internal organs
A
reticular tissue
13
Q
connective tissue found in the skin
A
loose connective tissue
14
Q
muscles in the esophagus are classified as
A
smooth
15
Q
type of muscle found in the blood vessels
A
smooth
16
Q
heart muscles are
A
cardiac muscle
17
Q
heart muscles are
A
cardiac muscle
18
Q
conductive system of heart is made of
A
cardiac muscle
19
Q
cells that compose nervous system
A
neurons
20
Q
supportive cells found in CNS
A
neuroglia
21
Q
classification of epithelial tissue
A
SIMPLE aka one layer (squamous -flat cells ) (cuboidal-cubic cells nucleus ) (columnar-rectangle nucleus at base) STRATISFIED aka number of layers of cells (stratified columnar -5 layers of cells) (stratisfied cuboidal - a few layers 2 of cubic cells ) (stratified columnar - few layers of rectangle cells) (pseudo stratified a number of layers all cells in basement membrane )
22
Q
classification of muscle tissue
A
skeletal - red and white, voluntary cardiac- involuntary, smooth - involuntary
23
Q
keratinized stratified squamous epithelium is foubd in the
A
skin
24
Q
epithelial cells that can stretch gonna cuboidal or columnar shape to a squamous shape are called
A
transitional epithelium
25
where is pseudosratified columnar ciliated epithelium
lining of nasal cavity and trachea
26
lining of blood vessels is covered with
simple squamous epithelium
27
dense connective tissue
collagen fibers in many different direction withstands great p pulling force in their direction
28
which type of tissue does not contain collagen fibers
skeletal muscle
29
in nerve cells the _ contains the nucleus and is the site of general cell functions
cell body
30
type of tissue found in tendons
dense connective tissue
31
striations in skeletal muscles are due to
actin and myosin
32
cardiac and skeletal muscles
striated
33
the structure which connects cardiac muscle fibers and allows free movement or ions between them is called
interrelated disc
34
smooth muscle cells
spindle shaped
35
elastic connective tissue can be found in
blood vessels
36
which of the following statements regarding adipose tissue is false
cells composing it are called faticytes
37
bone tissue is a highly dynamic tissue this means that
it is continuously built and destroyed
38
in the center of each osteon a _ can be found
harvestian channel
39
the bone functions as a mineral storage what kind of minerals does it store?
calcium and phosphate
40
which of the following tissues does not contain blood vessels
cartilage
41
cartilage can be found in
epilglotis larynx external ear ribs
42
protein that regulates fluid distribution between plasma and interatatial fluid
albumin
43
leukocytes are
white blood cells and immune cells
44
structure that permits one neuron to pass an electrical or chemical signal to another neuron describes a
synapse
45
tissue that forms the endoskeleton
bone
46
muscles thay compose muskoskeletal system
striated
47
types of skeletal muscles
red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic
48
types of skeletal muscles
red and white fast and slow aerobic anaerobic
49
examples of long bones
humerus tibia fibia
50
short bones
digits metacarpals metatarsals
51
flat bone examples
pelvis skull sternum
52
shoulder joint type
ball and socket
53
hip joint type
ball and socket
54
knee joint type
hinge
55
elbow joint type
hinge
56
wrist joint type
condyloid
57
knee joint movements
extention
58
hip joint movement
all
59
elbow joint movement
extention and flexion
60
cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal
important mineral storage area
61
cartilage purpose in muskoskeletal
important mineral storage area
62
how many vertical vertebrae
7
63
how many rib pairs are true ribs
7
64
the sagittal plane divides the body in to
sinister and Dexter
65
compared to the tibia the femur is positioned more
proximal
66
compared to the heart the lungs are located more
lateral
67
function of the muskoskeletal system
support minerals protection
68
structure connects muscle to bone
tendon
69
stabilize and support joints by holding bones in place
ligaments
70
example of agonistic and antagonistic muscle working together
when the bicep muscle contracts the triceps muscle relaxer
71
movement by which hand is brought away from the body
abduction
72
when you kick a ball the movement made by the knee joint is
extention
73
when you flex your feet palms the movement is called
Doris flexion
74
type of joint that allows the most movement
ball and socket
75
muscles in the shoulder joint
deltoid pectoralis lattismus dorsi
76
muscles involved in the ankle joint
gastrocnemiud and soleus
77
bones involved inn the wrist joint are
radius ulna capital bones
78
the thoracic spinal column contains _ vertebrae
12
79
which of the following statements regarding the sacral spinal column is true
fuses vertebrae 5 vertebrae proximal to coxxyc component of pelvis inlet
80
lumbar vertebrae
cranial to the sacral vertabrea and caudal to the thoracic vertebra
81
the 11rh and 12th ribs are
floating ribs
82
anterior part of the rib cage
sternum
83
inferior part of the thoraic cavity
diaphragam
84
muscle that lies in the posterior part of the thoraic cavity
lattismus dorsi
85
erectus abdominis
anterior border of the abdominal cavity
86
name of innermost layer of the heart
endocardium
87
middle layer of heart
myocardum
88
outer layer of heart
epicardium
89
valve between left atrium and left ventricle
mitral
90
right atrium and right ventricle
triscupid
91
outer membrane covering heart is called
pericardium
92
mitral valve is also called
biscupid
93
main blood vessels supplying the heart muscles are
coronary arteries
94
the normal blood pressure is approximately
120/80
95
normal heart rate
80
96
definition of brachychardia and tachycardia
B= below 60bpm T= above 100 bpm
97
blood pressure is usually measured at the
brachial artery
98
sympathetic activation of the heart results in
increase heart rate and increase contractility
99
parasympathetic activation in the heart results in
decrease heart rate
100
neurotransmitters of the sympathetic nervous system
norepinephrine
101
neurotransmitters of the parasympathetic nervous system
acetyl-choline
102
primary pace maker of the heart
SA node
103
conducting system is made of
specialized muscle fibers and specialized epithelium
104
highest blood pressure in the artery
systolic
105
pathway of the conductive system
innervation independent it has own pace maker called SA nose located in right atrium electrical pulses are conducted to the ventricles through the AV node which is the only spit in the atrio ventricular septum through which electrical pulses can pass the pulse pass bundle of his and then to the right and left ventricles through the RBB= right bundle branch and LBB= left bundle branch that branch into the purkinje fibers
106
how do you call inflamattion of myocardium pericardium epicardium
myocarditid pericarditis epicarditis
107
how do you call inflamattion of the aortic valve
endocarditis
108
risk factors for myocardial infarction
smoke obesity male gender age
109
describe the systemic and pulmonary blood flow
left ventricle- aorta - arterioles - capillaries - venules- veins - right atrium - right ventricles - pulmonary arteries - lungs - pulmonary veins- left atrium- left ventricle
110
cardiac cycle value
0.8 seconds
111
heart rate cycle
72 BPM
112
stroke volume
80-100ml per bit
113
CO (cardiac output)
HR × SV = 5-6 liters per minute
114
lining of inner walls of heart chambers
endocardium
115
Livermore layer of heart pericardium
parietal pericardium
116
hearts natural pacemaker
SA node
117
hearts electrical conduction network found within the ventricular myocardium
purkinje fibers
118
if hearts natural pacemaker fails to fire then.
the node on the floor of the right atrium would act as a secondary pacemaker
119
the exchanges of gas and nutrients between blood and tissues is a major function of
capillaries
120
which of the following best describes arteries
all arteries carry blood away from the heart
121
blood returning to the heart from the inferior vena cava would enter the
right atrium
122
blood in the pulmonary arteries
is heading towards the lungs
123
located between the right atrium and right ventricles is the
triscupid atrioventricular valve
124
the pulmonary veins
carry oxygenated blood towards the heart
125
which arterial tunic modification is most responsible for maintaining blood pressure
a thick tunica media
126
normally blood leaving the right ventricle immediately flows through the
pulmonary seminular valve
127
blood leaving the left atrium normally immediately flows through the
biscupid mitral atriocentrular valve
128
deoxygenated blood is normally found only
in the right side of the heart
129
closing of the __ normally prevents backflow of blood into the right ventricle
pulmonary seminular valve
130
when evaluating the dynamics of capillary blood flow hydrostatic pressure
is generally greater at the arterial end of a capillary than it's venous end
131
structures directly involved in the pulmonary circuit
right ventricle pulmonary arteries and left atrium
132
histologically the _ is simple squamous epithelium surrounded by a connective tissue
tunica interna intima
133
sympathetic stimulation to the hearts natural pacemaker normally results in
a faster heart rate and a greater force of myocardial contraction
134
the left ventricles myocardium is thicket than the right ventricles myocardium in order to
contract with greater pressure
135
a heart rate of 90 bpm means that the duration of one cardiac cycle is about _ seconds
0.67 seconds
136
a person who's heart rate is 70 bpm and whose cardiac output is 4.9 L/min
has a stroke volume of 0.07 liters per beat
137
the first two branches stemming of the aortic arch are the
braciocephalic trunk and left common cartoid artery
138
the third branch off the aortic arch services the
left subclavian
139
which blood vessel receives blood from the right ventricle during systole ?
pulmonary trunk
140
which blood vessel receives blood from the left ventricle during systole
aorta
141
which of the following statements about the movement of materials at the systemic capillary level is correct
CO2 moves from its site of production into the interatatial fluid
142
the deflection waves of an ECG EKG include
the t wave which indicates ventricular repolarization
143
an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood is termed
an embolus
144
an abnormal clot within a blood vessel that breaks loose and now travels in the blood
an embolus
145
The innermost layer of the kidney
medulla
146
Outermost layer of the Kidney
cortex
147
Factional unit of the kidney
nephron
148
Outer covering of the Kidney
capsule
149
parts of the nephron
Nephron consists of Bowman's capsule connected to a long renal tubule inside the Bowman's capsule is a cluster of capillaries is called glomerulus 3 main regions and the renal tubule proximal convoluted tubule that conducts the ultra filtrate from Bowman's capsule the loop of Henley an elongated shaped portion and the distal convoluted tubule that conducts the filtrate to a collecting duct
150
which kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity and why
The right kidney is located lower in the abdominal cavity below the liver making it lower than the left kidney that is located below the spleen
151
second name suprarenal gland
adrenal
152
main blood vessels supplying the kidneys
renal arteries
153
normal GFR
120 L /min
154
What does GFR stand for
glomerular filtration rate
155
describe the path of urine from the circulation to the urethra
blood //glumeruli - ultrafiltrate //tubular system-urine
156
functions of the kidney
filtration of blood maintenance of blood composition maintenance of blood pressure and volume acid base balance endocrine function
157
ph relation to the Kidney
pppp=6.1 +log [hhhh3/hhh2] regulated by kidneys
158
part of the nephron that absorbs the majority of water
proximal tubule
159
part of the nephron in which aldesterone acts
distal tubes and collecting ducts
160
part of the nephron which ADH acts
distal tubule and collecting ducts
161
inflammation of the Kidney
nephritis
162
inflamattion of the uretrr
ureteritis
163
inflamattion of the urethra
urethritis
164
inflamattion of urinary bladder
cystitis
165
normal urinary bladder capacity.
up to 800 ml
166
normal daily urine voiding volume
2 liters
167
about parts of excretory system of healthy man
one urethra 2 ureters
168
tip of renal pyramid
renal Papilla
169
major calyces of kidney converge to form an enlarged channel called
renal pelvis
170
basic histological and functional unit of the Kidney
nephron
171
order of fluid flowing from filtration membrane through the nephron
glomeruli-proximal tubule- loop of henle- distal tubule - collecting duct
172
part of a nephron between bowman capsule and loop of henle
proximal tubule
173
Part of the plasma volume that passes through the filtration membrane
filtration fraction
174
Blood supply to the kidneys is approximately
20% of cardiac output
175
The renal arteries arise from
Aorta
176
What substance does not go through filtration in a normal state
amalyse
177
Of the filtrate that enters the nephron about what percent is reabsorbed during urine formation
99%
178
Which of the following is secreted by the kidney
Renin
179
Which of these conditions increases the amount of urine produced
Decreased ADH secretion
180
angiotensin 2 causes
increased ADH secretion increased aldesterone secretion increased thirst increased peripheral resistance
181
The movement of substances from the filtrate back into the blood of the peritubular capillaries is called
Tubular reabsorption
182
When the tubular load of a substance exceeds the tubular absorption maximum that substance will
appear in the urine
183
what is not a major function of the Kidney
Regulation of blood cell size
184
Which structure of the nephron reabsorbs the most substances
Proximal convoluted tubule
185
the structure of nephron that filters blood
glomerular capsule
186
This is a nephron process that results in a substance and blood entering that already formed filtrate
secretion
187
Increase secretion of hydrogen ions would result in a _ of blood
Increase in PH
188
increased secretion of renin would result in a _ of blood
increase in volume
189
this transports urine from the Kidney to the bladder
ureter
190
The kidneys are positioned
retroperitonealy
191
The kidneys are positioned
retroperitonealy
192
The venous blood from the kidneys drains into
Inferior vena cava
193
Cortical nephrons
Small glomeruli
194
Fluid found inside the glomeruli is
blood
195
ADH is secreted from
pituitary gland
196
The hormone secreted by the kidney that acts upon the bone marrow is called
erythropoeitin
197
CO2 dissolved in blood acts as
acid
198
vitamin D
increases calcium absorption from the GI
199
name of oral cavity
stoma
200
part of stomach most proximal to the esophagous is called
cardia
201
part of the stomach that drains into the duodenum is called
pylorus
202
area in stomach designed for storage
fundus
203
parts of the esophagus
Lined with mucous membrane and is more deeply lined with muscle and acts with peristaltic action to move swallowed food down to the stomach
204
significance of UES and LES
UES=Superior position of the esophagus because prevents the food bolus from getting back into the oro pharynx LES= Aimed to keep the acidity of the stomach from entering the esophagus
205
path of food
oral cavity-pharynx-esophagus-stomach-duodenum-jujunum-illeum-cecum-ascending colon-transverse colon - descending colon -sigmoid colon -rectum -anus
206
bile function
important in lipid digestion (emulsifying lipids)
207
fundus gastric volume
1-2 Liters
208
function of pancreas with relation to the GI tract
the exocrine pancreas secretes enzymes into duodenum enabling digestion trypsin breaks down polypetitdes into surprised and then into amino acids ligase breaks down lipids amylase breaks down CH into dissacharides ribonuclease and deoxyribonuclease breakdown nucleic acids
209
function of the liver in relation to the GI tract
secretes bile it is a cholesterol derivative synthesized in the liver stored in the gall bladder and secreted to the duodenum. as we eat the gall bladder contacts and the bile enters the duodenum through a duct called the common bile duct the bile is an allopathic molecule that acts as a detergent
210
the correct order of the parts of the small intestine
duodenum ileum jejnum
211
main blood vessels supplying the GI
all are correct
212
. parts of the large intestine
cecum ascending transverse descending colon sigmoid colon rectum anus
213
inflammation of oral cavity
stomatitis
214
inflammation of the ileum
ileitis
215
part of the GI where majority of nutrient absorption occurs
jejunum
216
inflammation of the small intestine
enteritis
217
site of food sterilization
stomach
218
inflamattion of the large intestine
colitis
219
part of GI where absorption of vit B12 occurs
ileum
220
inflammation of the rectum
proctitis
221
amalyse enzyme participates in the digestion of which substances ?
polysacharrides
222
bile is produced in
liver
223
name of stomach cell that secretes hydrochloric acid
parietal cell
224
which of the following is an accessory of the GI tract
pancreas
225
which of the following macromolecules is digested in the small intestine
all of them
226
enzyme amalyse is secreted into the
mouth and small intestine
227
the major movement of food through the GI tract is called
peristalsis
228
which enzyme digests protein
Pepsin and trypsin
229
in which gastrointestinal organ does the majority of digestion and absorption occur
small intestine
230
which two secretions need to be present for lipid digestion
pepsin and lipase
231
which organ secretes majority of digestive enzymes
pancreas
232
what is the major cause of stomach ulcers
helicobacter pylori
233
what important nutrient is made in the large intestine
vitamin k
234
in which digestive organ is chyme produced
stomach
235
villi and microvilli increase the surface area of the
small intestine
236
the endocrine part of the pancreas secretes
insulin and glucagon
237
the appendix is an outgrowth of the
cecum
238
which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system
peristalsis
239
which of the following processes is the function of the smooth muscle layer of the digestive system
peristalsis
240
which is a primary function of the mouth
ingestion
241
which of the following processes is the primary function of the villi of the small intestine
absorption
242
which of the following accessory organs produces a fluid to soften food ?
salivary glands
243
following organs proeuces a fluid that functions to emulsify fat
liver
244
structure of the stomach allows greater distention for food storage
fundus
245
this major duct carries a fluid rich in bicarbonate
pancreatic duct
246
which of the following pancreatic enzymes acts to produce smaller peptides from proteins
chymotripsin
247
the digestive aid produced by the stomach begins digestion by denaturing proteins
hydrochloric acid
248
this structure regulates the flow of material into the colon
ileoceal valve
249
which of the following is the primary function of the large intestine
faeces information
250
the name of the site for gas exchange in the lung
alveoli
251
the name or the anatomical site where the trachea divides into two
bifurcation and carina
252
name of the functional unit of the lung
alveoli
253
name of the outer covering of the lung
visceral pleura
254
the anatomical dead space is composed of
trachea and bronchial tree
255
the main blood vessel supplying the lungs
bronchial arteries
256
normal tidal volume TV is
500 ml
257
normal pulmonary blood flow (BF)
5000 ml min
258
which phase Is active and which is passive during the breathing cycle
inspiration is active and expiration is passive
259
the stimulator of the respiratory system is
increase in CO2
260
inflammation of the bronchial tree
bronchitis
261
inflammation of the lung
pneumonia
262
hypersensitivity reaction to an allergen occurs in
asthma
263
inflammation of the trachea
tracheitis
264
the structure which divides the two nostrils
nasal septum
265
describe the lobes of each lung
right lung is divided into :superior love, middle lobe, inferior lobe left lung is divided into : superior lobe inferior lobe
266
which lung is more susceptible to inhalation of a foreign body
RMB is a direct continuation of trachea while L MB lies in a 90ﾟ angle to the trachea therefore when a person aspirates a foreign object it is likely to be found in the R and B the medical significance is at the left long will continue to function
267
Path of an oxygen molecule from the air to the blood
O2 enters alveoli as we inhale the air each alveoli surrounded by capillaries rich in CO2 while the alveoli itself contains high concentration of O2 therefore the O2 from the alveoli enters the capillaries and the CO2 from capillaries enters the alveoli that way the body tissues receive oxygen supply and get rid of CO2
268
describe the mechanism of breathing
inspiration - active- lung is adhered to thoraic wall by the pleural fluid the intercostal muscles contract the diaphragam contracts all causing the lungs to expand negative pressure is created in the lungs rhat forces air to enter the lungs expiration- passive phase intercostal muscles relax diapragham relaxed chest wall returns to original size the lung compress and air is forced out
269
PH relation to the lungs
respiratory system has the ability to control CO2 level thus controlling PH level of blood PH= 6.1 + log (HCO3/CO2)
270
value of normal function residual capacity (FRC)
3L
271
what is the normal respiratory rate
12-14 breaths per minute
272
TV and TRV define and give values
TV (tidal volume) 500 ml amount of air inhaled and exhaled in each breath RV (residual volume) 1.5 L amount of air that remains in lungs after forced exhale
273
which of following is not part of upper respiratory system
trachea
274
conducting zones role is to
filter air conduct air into lungs add water to air warm air
275
following is a passageway for air food and water
pharynx
276
structure prevents food or water from entering the trachea
epiglottis
277
primary gas exchange site
alveolus
278
point where trachea divides into right and left primary bronchi is a ridge called
carina
279
forms exchange surfaces of alveolus
simple squamous epithelium
280
direction of diffusion of gases at capillaries near tissue cells
oxygen out of blood - carbon dioxide into blood
281
conducting airways with the air that does not undergo respiratory exchange are known as the
respiratory dead space
282
when blood PH drops then the amount of oxyhaemoglobin _ and oxygen delivery to the tissue cells_
decreases, increases
283
surfactant allows the lung to
to be elastic
284
pharynx is a part of the _ respiratory tract
upper
285
during expiration the inthrathoracic pressure
becomes more positive compared to the atmospheric pressure
286
largest volume capacity for the respirstory system
total lung capacity
287
volume of gas remaining in the lungs after a maximum respiration
residual volume
288
oxygen and carbon dioxide move through the respiratory membrane and into and out of cells by the process if
diffusion
289
hyperventilation produces
decreases blood PCO2 and increase in PH
290
volume of gas inspired or expired in an unforced respirstory cycle
tidal volume
291
if a person has a respiratory rate of 20 breaths per minute and a tidal volume of 500 ml what is the volume od air inspired in one minute
10000 ml
292
hypoventilation may cause
acidosis
293
IRDS is most frequently seen in
premature infants
294
narrowing of the airways is most likely to be seen in which disorder
asthma
295
if someone had an upper respiratory tract infection where would it be located
sinuses
296
the membranous sac that attached directly to the lung is called
visceral pleura
297
the vocal chords are contained within the
larynx
298
contraction of the intercostal muscles and diaphragam cause the thoraic cavity to _ and the air pressure in the lungs to _
expand, decrease
299
the amount of air that leaves the lungs under normal conditions is the
tidal volume
300
nearly all of the oxygen is carried in the blood as
oxyhemeglobin
301
a hormone is
a molecule secreted into the blood by an endocrine organ a lipid a protein
302
Gland that secretes ACTH
anterior pituitary gland
303
Gland that secretes LH and FSH
Anterior pituitary gland
304
Gland that secretes oxytocin
Posterior pituitary glad
305
Gland that secretes ADH
Posterior pituitary gland
306
gland that secretes prolactin
anterior pituitary gland
307
Gland that secretes cortisol
Adrenal
308
Glands that secretes TRH
Hypothalamus
309
Glands that secrete TSH
anterior pituitary glad
310
gland that secretes aldesterone
adrenal gland
311
Glands that secrete sex hormones
adrenal gland
312
role of aldosteron
Maintains blood volume and pressure by absorbing water and sodium
313
role of progesterone
Mantine's pregnancy and promotes the uterine lining
314
name of gland that secretes T3 and The
thyroid gland
315
gland that secretes PTH
parathyroid gland
316
Role of PTH with vitamin D
Maintain level of CA2 in blood by re absorbing calcium in the kidney and GI and by bone reabsorption they act to increase CA2 plus concentration in the blood
317
gland that secretes insulin
pancreas
318
role of insulin and glucagon
I = home and released when the body is in wealth fed state acts to decrease the glucose level in the blood G = hormone and released when the body is in a state of starvation acts to increase glucose level in the blood
319
name of gland that secretes GnRH
Hypothalamus
320
cortisol
Immune system suppressor a inhibits pain fever illnesses increase the glucose level used by the brain in order to respond faster medicine will use it to treats auto immune diseases
321
One effect of ADH is to
Decrease urine volume
322
Oxytocinwe secretion causes
Milk ejection in lactating females and uterine contractions
323
Factors that stimulate secretion of ADH
Decrease blood pressure
324
Hyper secretion of GH in adults produces
acromegaly
325
What hormone is a neurohormone that is not produced in the hypothalamus
FSH
326
Which of these symptoms is the result of hyperthyroidism
Rapid heart rate
327
when parathyroid hormone increased
bone destruction increased
328
The adrenal medulla
Produces epinephrine and norepinephrine
329
Which does not cause an increase secretion of hormones from the adrenal medulla
sleep
330
If cortisol secretion increases
If cortisol secretion increases The inflammatory response decreases
331
Glucagon increases
Breakdown of clock into glucose and glucose synthesis from aminoacids and fat and blood sugar levels and fat breakdown
332
hormones of the posterior pituitary gland are synthesized in the
Hypothalamus
333
The following can be classified as endocrine glands except
sebaceous gland
334
hormones regulating blood calcium level
Parathyroid hormone and and vitamin D
335
Plans that can be classified as and endocrine and exocrine is
pancreas
336
mineral corticoids
Produced in the adrenal cortex and R steroids hormones and help to regulate homeostasis of sodium and potassium
337
antigen is
Molecule that provokes immune response part of a pathogen and a protein
338
Role of CD4T lymphocyte
Destroys infected cells and destroys cancerous cells
339
NK lymphocyte
Can produce cytokines destroy cells by lysis destroys infected cells is part of the innate immune response destroys cancerous cells destroys graft cells
340
Role of B lymphocyte
Produces antibodies that will neutralize the antigen
341
role of macrophages
Is an agranulocyte provokes an immune response is a phagocyte is part of the innate immune response is part of the adaptive immune response
342
neutrophils
contains granules
343
role or eosinophils
Participates in allergic reactions contains granules destroy cells infected with parasites has a lobed nucleus and is part of the innate immunity
344
Maturation of immune cells occurs in
Lymph nodes and the thymus
345
The complement system
Destroys pathogens
346
mast cell role
produce histamines
347
Which cells are considered as antigen-presenting cells
microphages and T helpers
348
Which of the cells can affect pathogen without a direct contact
B cells
349
5 examples of WBC aka leukocytes
T8 T4 NK B lymphocytes neutrophils
350
Mechanism of bacterial lysis by macrophages
engulfment insertion oxidative burst
351
autoimmunuty
body attacks itself
352
example of pathogen
Plasmodium streptococcus HIV
353
Maintaining electrolyte and temperature homeostasis is a function of the lymphatic and immune system true or false
false
354
lymph nodes
located inside the body
355
What macromolecule causes lymph from the small intestine to appear white
lipids
356
the pancreas is an organ of the immune system true or false
false
357
The left subclavian vein receives lymph from
The thoracic duct
358
Homeopoetic tissues found in
bone marrow
359
Skeletal muscle and respiratory pumps are used in
Lymphatic immune and cardiovascular systems
360
Which does not provide a physical or chemical Barrier
macrophages
361
function of the spleen
removes worn out blood cells
362
Which provides a non specific cellular disease resistance mechanism
macrophages
363
Which is mainly used to kill infectious microbes and tumor cells
natural killer cells
364
Which is not a sign of inflammation
Mucus production
365
This induces production of a specific antibody
Antigen
366
This class of cells includes macrophages B cells and dendritic cells
Antigen-presenting cells
367
These display CD4 in the membrane
helper T cells
368
the thymus
decreases in size in order adults
369
A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva
lyzozome
370
A protective chemical that lyses cells found on the surface of cells and in tears and saliva
lyzozome
371
A _ is a group of proteins activated by a series of reactions in which one activated so chemical than activates another and promotes inflammation phagocytosis and cell lysis
complement
372
Most important phagocytes is
Neutrophils and macrophages
373
Natural killer cells
Natural killer cells Exhibit no memory response
374
t cells
are produced in the thyumus
375
Activations of B cells
Results in production of antibodies
376
B cells are stimulated by
helper T cells
377
Activations of T cells can result in
License of virus infected cells production of memory T cells production of cytokines
378
MHC molecules are
Cell surface glycoprotein that display antigens
379
MHC class number 2 molecule
Are found in antigen-presenting cells
380
_ are responsible for the secondary antibody response
Plasma B cells
381
vaccination is a way of acquiring
Active artificial immunity
382
Natural exposure to an infectious agent leads to
Active immunity
383
The lymph from the right foot's empties into the
Thoracic duct
384
Contract tile unit of the muscle composing muskoskeletal system
Sacromere
385
skeletal muscle types
Red and white and fast and slow and aerobic and anaerobic
386
ATP
binds Myosin to provide energy for muscle contraction
387
Troponin
Binds tropo myosin to disable muscle contraction
388
What are the characteristics of myosin when bonded to ATP
Has low affinity towards Actin
389
Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP
Characteristics of myosin when bonded to ADP Has high affinity towards Actin
390
Binding sites for myosin
ATP ATPase and actin
391
Composition of a Sacromere
Sacra mere unit functional units composed of multi protein complex consists of thin and thick filaments attached together actin -thin filament attached to 2 globular proteins called tropomyosin and troponin Myosin thick filament composed of myosin head and two binding sites actin and ATP binding site Z line disc attached to actin
392
rigor mortis is a condition which results from
Lack of ATP
393
role of oxygen in muscle contraction
Roe is to participate in aerobic respiration final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain
394
ATP would be required for
contraction and relaxation
395
During contraction
During contraction Z line brought closer to each other
396
skeletal muscles are bonded to the bone by
tendon
397
the 3 different kinds of muscle tissue differ each other by
Microscopic and anatomy and location and the type of control
398
According to the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction during contraction
The sacromeres shorten
399
biceps muscle is an Extensor and its antagonist tricep is a flexor
False
400
Which is an important function of ATP in the skeletal muscle
Required for dissociation of Actin from myosin
401
basic unit of muscle tissue composed of repeating sections of sacromere describes
Myofibril
402
Myosin binds calcium true or false
False
403
The borders of sacromeres are called
Z line
404
Hydrolysis of ATP enables
Myosin heads become re oriented and energize
405
Hydrolysis of ATP enables
Myosin heads become re oriented and energize
406
ATP binding site is found on
Myosin
407
Cross bridges are
Binding between myosin and actin
408
frontal lobe is the _ center
motor
409
That parietal lobe is the blank center
Sensory
410
The occipital lobe is the blank center
visual
411
temporal lobe is
auditory center
412
hypothalamus is the blank center
Temperature regulation and endocrine
413
Brian stem is the
vital function center
414
parts of spinal cord
Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns
415
parts of spinal cord
Central canal ventral horns dorsal horns
416
Ventral horns are blank
Moto
417
dorsal horns are
sensory
418
Characteristics of action potential
All-or-none response propagation without Decorah ment threshold level has to be reached refractory period
419
What are the phases of action potential
Threshold and then depolarizarion Re polar ization after potential hyper polarization Return to the resting state
420
Resting membrane potential is established by
The sodium potassium pump
421
Repolarization is a consequence of
Opening of voltage dependent K plus channels
422
Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of
Return to resting membrane potential is the consequence of NAK plus pump
423
During resting state blank is exerted upon an a plus to force it _the cell
Electro chemical gradient into the cell
424
During resting state _ is exerted upon K plus to force it _ the self
Chemical gradient out of the cell and then electrical gradient into the cell
425
12 cranial nerves
olfactory optic oculomotor trochlear trigeminal abducens facial vestibucholear glossypharygneal vagus accessory hypoglossal
426
Neurons that conduct nerve impulses from the receptor to the central nervous system
sensory neurons
427
carry nerve impulses away from the cell
axons
428
part of nervous system considered involuntary
autonomic nervous system
429
Different charge between the outside and the inside of a neuron at rest
Resting membrane potential
430
The stage in an action potential that immediately follows depolarization is
Repolarization
431
junction between two nerves cells
synapse
432
output of ANS does NOT control
skeletal muscle
433
Correct combination of the spinal nerve pairs
8 servico 12 thoracic 5 lumber 5 sacral 1 coccygeal
434
parts of neurons
dendrite axon cell body
435
neuroglial cells support and provide nutrition for the
neurons
436
A sensory neuron of the peripheral nervous system take nerve impulses from sensory receptors' to the
central nervous system
437
SCH WAN cells are one of several types of _ cells
neurological
438
nociceptors
Respond to painful stimuli excessive heat nerve endings chemical secreted by cells of the immune system
439
SCHWANN are the main neurons for the spinal cord
false
440
SCHWANN cells Produce layers of membrane containing myellin which provides nutrition for the den drives
false
441
Action potential changes the charge inside axon from positive to negative true of false
false
442
A nerve fiber obeys and all or none law in so far as it either fires or a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold
A nerve fiber obeys and all a nun law in so far as it either spires a does not fire depending on whether the stimulus is above a threshold True
443
the sodium potassium pump pumps
Sodium ions out and potassium ions in
444
With an action potential depolarization of the XO membrane is recorded as the gates open allowing _ into the flow of the axon
Sodium ions
445
a refactory period Is
A brief time when a neuron is unable to conduct an impulse
446
acetylcholine and norepinephrine 2 well known
neurotransmitters
447
The PNS nerves are part of either the somatic system or the
autonomic system
448
somatic system contains nerves that control
skeletal muscles
449
characteristics of the parasympathetic nervous system
Causes the pupil to contract promotes digestion retards the heartbeat
450
characteristics of the sympathetic system
Inhibits digestive tract dilates the Bronchi accelerates heartbeat
451
Integrates information it receives from all over in order to make decisions
central nervous system
452
Brian and spinal cord are protected by membranes known as the
meininges
453
medulla oblongata
contains centers for heartbeat breathing and blood pressure
454
main function of the cerbellum
muscle coordination
455
paccinian receptors
Mechanoreceptors that a sensitive to deep touch
456
receptors involved in reception of information concerning body positions and movements
proprioceptive receptors
457
chemoreceptors
taste buds and olfactory receptors
458
afferent nervous system
Ascending and sensory
459
cranial nerves
emerge directly from the brain
460
muscle responsible for change of shape of the lens
ciliary muscle
461
contains photoreceptor
retina
462
Contains the highest concentration of cone
fovea centralis
463
clear jelly like substance behind the lens of the eye
vitreous humor
464
bending of light that happens at the cornea and lens
refraction
465
which of the following belongs to the middle ear
ossicles
466
receptors for hearing
chochlea
467
senses for dynamic equilibrium
semicircular canals
468
Vestibular system consists of
utricle and saccule and semicircular canals
469
The macule is found in the
vestibule
470
myopia
short sightedness
471
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule and semicircular canals
472
correction the macule is found in the
vestibule
473
myopia
short sightedness
474
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule semicircular canals
475
hair cells can be found in
choclea vestibule semicircular canals
476
expanded area of the semicircular canals is
ampulla
477
auditory tube forma a connection between
middle ear and nasopharynx
478
hair cells of the organ of corti sit on which of the following structure
tectorial membrane
