Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

SIU SOM: CRR > all CRR drugs > Flashcards

all CRR drugs Flashcards

1
Q

abciximab (reopro)

A

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist
blocks GPIIb/IIIa receptor on platelets to bind vWF or fibrinogen therefore reduces platelet aggregation and clotting

other examples of glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonists: eptifibatide, tirofiban

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

aspirin

A

NSAID- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatroy drug
acetylsalycic acid
irreversibly inhibits COX (inhibits activation/secretion step of platelet plug formation), reduces clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

NSAIDs

A

NSAID- nonsteroidal anti-inflammatroy drug
competitive inhibitors for COX (therefore reduce platelet aggregation and clotting)
reversible: ibuprofen, acetaminophin, indomethacin
irreversible: aspririn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

ADP receptor (PY12) antagonists

A

irreversibly blocks ADP receptor on platelet therefore reduce platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation
ex. plavix (clopidogrel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

plavix (clopidogrel)

A 
ADP receptor (PY12) antagonist
irreversibly blocks ADP receptor on platelet therefore reduce platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

glycoprotein IIb/IIIa antagonist

A

blocks GP IIb/IIIa receptor on platelets therefore reducing platelet aggregation and platelet plug formation

Reopro (abciximab, eptifiatide, tirofiban)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

vorapaxar

A

blocks thrombin receptor (PAR-1) on platelets, reduces platelet plug formation and clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

heparin

A

increases antithrombin III activity in inhibiting factor X and thrombin
reduces coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

warfarin

A

inhibits vitamin K synthesis therefore inhibiting vitamin K dependent factors in coagulation: X, IX, XII, II, protein Ca, and protein S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

direct thrombin inhibitors

A

anticoagulants
bivalirudin (angiomax)
dabigatran (pradaxa)
apixaban (eliquis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bivalirudin (angiomax)

A

inhibits thrombin

anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

dabigatran (pradaxa)

A

inhibits thrombin

anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

apixaban (eliquis)

A

inhibits factor Xa

anticoagulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

voxelotor

A

blocks the polymerization of hemoglobin in SCD and beta thalassemias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

5-azacytidine

A

removes methylation on CpGs islands of gamma globin genes (normally repress gamma globin expression) in order to promote HbF expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

hydroxyurea

A

promotes gamma globin expression, therefore HbF expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Endari

A

increases NADH in RBC to promote glutathione reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Thiopental

A

high lipid coefficient which allows it to rapidly enter the brain
induces rapid anesthesia
also leaves the brain rapidly so short duration of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Inducers of CYP450 enzymes

A

enhance CYP450 activity which increases the rate at which they metabolize drugs, excrete drugs more quickly

ex. phenobarbital, rifampin, carbamazepine, cruciferous vegetables, smoking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

inhibitors of CYP450 enzymes

A

inhibit CYP450 enzymes from metabolizing drugs, drug build up in the body, increases response to drug

ex. omeprazole, eeythromycin, grapefruit juice, cumin,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MAOIs

A

inhibitors of MAO which normally breaks down catecholamines and serotonin, allows build up of these neurotransmitters increasing the post synaptic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

disulfiram

A

inhibits aldehyde dehydrogenase (breaks down aldehyde, by product of alcohol metabolism
causes aldehyde build up when person drinks alcohol–> ill with vommitting, sweat, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

naltrexone

A

k and m opiod receptor antagonist

reduces cravings for alcohol bc decreases alcohol activation of dopamine reward pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

acamprosate

A

antagonist of NMDA receptors thus reducings the activity of glutamate in the CNS and reduces cravings for alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

isoproterenol

A

beta agonist: increases heart rate, increase contraction force, increases conduction velocity, dilates blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

epinephrine

A

mixed alpha, beta agonist: primarily a beta receptor agonsit at low doses and an alpha agonist at high doses

used clinically as:
with local anestetic bc local vasoconstriction will localize action of the anesthetic
local hemostatic (control bleeding during surgery)
increase cardiac activity after cardiac arrest
treat allergic reaction by counter acting hypotention from histamines, counters constriction of airways (beta 2 broncho dilation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

norepinephrine

A

catecholamine
primarily alpha receptor agonist

used clinically as:
pressor agent to block system hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

nonselective beta agonist

A

increase intropic and chronotropic effects and cause some vasodilation

ex. isoproterenol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

beta 1 selective agonist

A

inotropic/cardioselective effects, increase myocardial oxygen demand

ex. dobutamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

beta 2 selective agonist

A

bronchodilation

ex. salbutamol, terbutaline, elbuterol, arformoterol tartarate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

non selective beta blocker

A

decrease HR, CF, and CO
effects are more substantial as sympathetic tone increases
reflex from decreased BP causes a temporary rise in BP
can have bronchodilation effects so bad for pulmonary compromised patients

also blocks renin secretion in kidney –> vasodilation

ex. propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

beta 1 selective blocker

A

cardioselectively increase HR, CF, and CO, do NOT cause a decrease in bronchoconstriction like non selective so these are safer to use with pulmonary compromised patients

also blocks renin secretion in kidney –> vasodilation

ex. metoprolol, esmolol, atenolol, nadolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

beta 2 selective blocker

A

inhibits bronchodilation –> bronchoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

alpha receptor blocker

A

decreases peripheral resistance
used to treat hypertension without effecting heart rate, renal blood flow, or GFR

ex. prazosin, terazosin, doxazosin, phenoxybenzamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

muscarininc agonist

A

stimulates effect of PNS

direct: ex. pilocarpine, carbachol
indirect: inhibits AChE ex. neostigmine, physostigmine, organophosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

muscarininc antagonsit

A

inhibit response from PNS

ex. atropine, ipratropium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

isoproterenol

A

nonselective beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

dobutamine

A

beta 1 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

salbutamol

A

beta 2 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

terbutaline

A

beta 2 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

albuterol

A

beta 2 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

arformoterol tartrate

A

beta 2 selective agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

propranolol

A

nonselective beta blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

metoprolol

A

beta 1 selective blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

atenolol

A

beta 1 selective blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

esmolol

A

beta 1 selective blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

nadolol

A

beta 1 selective blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

prazosin

A

alpha receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

terazosin

A

alpha receptor blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

doxazosin

A

alphareceptor blocker

51
Q

pilocarpine

A

direct muscarinic agonist

52
Q

carbachol

A

direct muscarinic agonist

53
Q

neostigmine

A

indirect muscarinic agonist

54
Q

physostigmine

A

indirect muscarininc agonist

55
Q

organophosphate

A

indirect muscarininc agonist

56
Q

atropine

A

muscarininc antagonist

57
Q

ipratropium

A

muscarininc antagonist

58
Q

class I antiarrhythmic drugs

A

sodium channel blockers
slow phase 0, work better on cells rapidly depolarizing
1A: slow 0, prolong action potential (ex. procainamide)
1B: shorten phase 3 ex. lidocane
1C: slow phase 0 ex. flecainide

treat re-entrant arrhythmias (mainly 1A), tachyarrythmias, and abnormal automacity

59
Q

procainamide

A

type IA antiarrythmic drug

slows phase 0 and prolongs action potential by blocking sodium channels

60
Q

lidocane

A

type 1B antiarrhythmic drug

shortens phase 3 by blocking sodium channels

61
Q

flecainide

A

type 1C antiarrhythmia drug

slows phase 0 by blocking sodium channels

62
Q

class II antiarrhythmic drugs

A

beta blockers
decrease HR, CF, and CO
effectiveness increases as sympathetic tone increases
treat tachyarrhytmias secondary to sympathoadrenal discharge, distubance of aytomaticity and re-entry

ex. non selective: propanolol, B1 selective: metoprolol, atenolol, nadolol, esmolol

63
Q

class III antiarrhythmic drugs

A

potassium channel blockers
prolong phase 3 which increases effective refactory period, depolarization
treat supraventricular and or ventricullar tachy
ex. amiodarone, sotalol

64
Q

amiodarone

A 
class III/potassium channel blocker
treat tachycardia
65
Q

sotalol

A 
class III/potassium channel blocker
treat tachy
66
Q

class IV antiarrhymic

A

calcium channel blocker
especially affects AV node (ca++ dependent) to decrease phase 4 which prolongs effecticve refractory period
decreases normal and abnormal automaticity
treat supraventricular arrhythmias, AV reentry and ectopic stimulation

ex. verapamil and diltiazem

67
Q

verapamil

A 
class IV/ calcium channel blocker
treat supraventricular arrhythmias, AV re entry and ectopic stimulation
68
Q

class V antiarrhymic

A

misc.

ex. digoxin, atropine, epi, iso, adenosine

69
Q

digoxin

A

increase calcium which increases force of contraction

enhances pNS at nodal areas which decreases SA and AV automaticity but mainly affects AV

70
Q

atropine

A

musc. blocker, treats bradycardia and sinus arrest secondary to PNS stimulation

71
Q

adenosine

A

receptors at SA and AV
inhibits adenylyl cyclase –> decreased calcium and increased potassium, thereofre decreasing conduction, prolonging ERP and decreasing AV automaticity
treats paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia

72
Q

ACEI

A

angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors
AT I is not turned into AT II, so blocks the vasoconstriction ATII usually produces in arteries and venules
decreases cardiac load and arterial pressure

ex. captopril, enalapril, lisinopril

good for young people and European people who have normal or high plasma renin

73
Q

captopril

A

ACEI
short duration of action
treat HTN by lowering BP

74
Q

enalapril

A

ACEI
long duration
treat HTN

75
Q

lisinopril

A

ACEI
long duration
treat HTN

76
Q

ARB

A

angiotensin II receptor blocker/angiotensin I antagonist
blocks receptor ATII binds to (ATI)
blocks inflow of calcium and therefore block vasoconstriction
works well in kidney and brain

ex. losartan, valsartan, irbesartan, candesartan

works well in young people and european people with high plasma renin

77
Q

losartan

A

ARB

78
Q

candesartan

A

ARB

79
Q

valsartan

A

ARB

80
Q

Irbesartan

A

ARB

81
Q

Ca+ channel antagonists

A

block influx of calcium thus inducing vasodilation

ex. nifedipine, amlodipin, verapramil, dilitiazem

good for older people and people with low plasma renin

82
Q

nifedipine

A

Ca+ channel antagonist

vasodilation

83
Q

amlodipine

A

Ca+ channel antagonist

vasodilation

84
Q

verapramil

A

Ca+ channel antagonsit

vasodilation

85
Q

dilitiazem

A

Ca+ channel antagonist

vasodilation

86
Q

HCTZ

A

thiazide diuretic

87
Q

lopressor HCT

A

metoprolol and HCTZ

beta blocker and thiazide diuretic

88
Q

HYZAAR

A

losartan + HCTZ

ARB and thiazide diuretic

89
Q

vaseretic

A

enalapril + HCT

ACEI and thiazide diuretic

90
Q

renin inhibitors

A

blocks ATI –> ATII
vasodilation

ex. aliskiren

91
Q

aliskiren

A

renin inhibitor

vasodilation

92
Q

phenoxybenzamine

A

non selective alpha receptor antagonist
binds irreversibly and only used during removal of phaeochromocytoma removal (adrenal gland tumor) since the tumor could release catecholamines when moved

93
Q

aldosterone antagonist

A

blocks Na and H2O reabsorption in kidney and potassium excretion thus decreases BP while sparing potassium

ex. spironolactone

94
Q

spironolactone

A

aldosterone antagonist

potassium sparing diuretic

95
Q

potassium channel activator

A

opens KATP channel causing hyperpolarization of cells and decreasing activity of calcium channels and calcium influx thus induces vasodilation

ex. minoxidil

96
Q

minoxidil

A

potassium channel activator
vasodilator
last resort for severe HTN because very potent and long duration

97
Q

endothelin receptor antagonist

A

blocks endothelin induced vasoconstriction

ex. bosentan

98
Q

bosentan

A

blocks both ETA and ETB receptors of endothelin

vasodilation

99
Q

alpha methyldopa

A

sympatholytic
decreases BP without affecting the kidney
safe to use in kidney compromised patients and during pregnancy

100
Q

hydralazine

A

acts on arteries by unkown mechanism to decrease blood pressure
can cause tachycardia and increased cardiac output
only used short term for severe hypertension during pregnancy

101
Q

Nitric Oxide

A

activates guanylyl cylcase to increase cGMP to alter PKG, cyclic nucleotide phosphodiesterase, and ion channels in order to decrease/block Ca++ channels and stop constriction

vasodilation

ex. nitroprusside

102
Q

sacubitril

A

blocks neprilysin
neprilysin cleaves ANP, BNP, and CNP which usually induce vasoconstriction but also degrades ATII which usualy induce vasoconstriction
using ACEI with neprilysin will block increased ATII and result in only vasodilation

103
Q

nitroprusside

A

NO

vasodilation

104
Q

entresto

A

valsartan + sacubitril

ACEI and sacubitril (degrades neprilysin)

105
Q

acetazolamide

A

inhibits carbonic andhydrase which normally breaks down HCO3 into CO2 and H2O
results in decreases H2O and Na+ absorptopn and alkaline urine (HCO3 is excreted and not absorbed)

106
Q

osmotic diuretics

A

inhibit reabsorption of solute and water by altering the osmotic forces along the nephron in the proximal tubule

makes the lumen of tubule very concrentrated so water does not leave the lumen

ex. mannitol, glyverin, isosorbide, and urea

107
Q

mannitol

A

osmotic diuretic

decreases H2O and solute reabsorption in proximal tubule

108
Q

carbonic anhydrase inhibitors

A

inhibits carbonic anhydrase which decreases bicarb break down which decreases CO2 and H2O absorption which decreases H+ leaving cell via H/Na transporter leading to decreased Na+ reabsorption

results in decreases H2O and Na absorption and alkaline urine

ex. acetazolamide

109
Q

loop diuretics

A

inhibit Na,2Cl, K symporter in loop of henle
decreases Na reabsorption and H2O reabsorption
risk of hypokalemia

ex. furosemide, ethocrynic (etharcinic) acid, bumetanide, torsemide

110
Q

furosemide

A

loop diuretic

111
Q

ethocrynic (etharcinic) acid

A

loop diuretic

112
Q

bumetanide

A

loop diuretic

113
Q

torsemide

A

loop diuretic

114
Q

thiazide diuretics

A

block Na/Cl symporter in distal convoluted tubule
decreasing Na+ absorption and H2O absorption

risk of hypokalemia

ex. HCTZ, chlorthalidone, indapamide, metolazone

115
Q

HCTZ

A

thiazide diuretic

116
Q

chlorthalidone

A

thiazide diuretic

117
Q

indapamide

A

thiazide diuretic

118
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide diuretic

119
Q

potassium sparing diuretics

A

inhibit either Na+ channel (ENAC) or aldosterone action in the principal cells which decreases the amount of K+ secretion and excretion

only has small volume changes

ex. Na+ channel inhibitors: amiloride, triamterene
ex. aldosterone antagonist: spironolactone, eplerenone

120
Q

spironolactone

A

potassium sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone

121
Q

eplerenone

A

potassium sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone

122
Q

amiloride

A

potassium sparing diuretic that acts on ENAC

123
Q

triamteren

A

potassium sparing diuretic that acts on ENAC

SIU SOM: CRR (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions