AIT Practice test Flashcards

1
Q

Where did the term indentured apprentice come from?
a. when apprenticeship contracts were sealed by a bite to a wax seal
b. when false teeth became dentures by trade
c. when making dentures became an apprenticeship trade
d. when welding became a apprenticeship trade in 1954

A

a. when apprenticeship contracts were sealed by a bite to a wax seal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The contract of Apprenticeship is a three way agreement between:
a. Apprentice, employer and your accountant
b. apprentice, employer, and Alberta apprenticeship
c. apprentice, foreman, employer
d. none of the above

A

b. apprentice, employer, and Alberta apprenticeship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who is responsible for supplying shop safety equipment?
a. Compensation Board
b Occupational Health and Safety
c. yourself
d. your employer.

A

c. yourself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is responsible for informing a new employee about the dangers of a controlled product they may be using?
a. long time employees
b. the employer.
c. Occupational Health & Safety representative
d. Workers Compensation Board

A

b. the employer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An effective relief of pain from a minor burn is to:
a. cover the affected area with grease
b. immerse the affected area in cool, still water
c. tightly wrap the burn with a clean dry cloth
d. apply an antibiotic solution to the burn

A

b. immerse the affected area in cool, still water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A welding helmet is designed to protect the welder from:
a. heat and smoke
b. harmful fumes
c. sparks and harmful rays
d. burns to the face

A

c. sparks and harmful rays

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following are parts of a file?
a. tang
b. face
c. edge
d. all of the above.

A

d. all of the above.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following are terms associated with a Hammer?
a. end
b. eye.
c. cross
d. all of the above

A

b. eye.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Grinding wheel rests should be adjusted:
a. while the machine is running
b. while the machine is not running
c. while the machine is just slowing down
d. during the noon hour

A

b. while the machine is not running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When ordering a grinding stone or disc for any grinder:
a. always check the R.P.M. of the grinder and match grinding wheel speed
b. ensure fine grit stones can run a higher R.P.M. than course stones
c. a wider stone must be operated at a slower speed than a narrow one
d. larger diameter stones must operate at a slower speed than a smaller diameter one

A

a. always check the R.P.M. of the grinder and match grinding wheel speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following should not be worn while drilling?
a. watches
b. loose clothing
c. rings
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Fillet welds should have:
a. flat profile
b. concave profile
c. flat to concave profile
d. flat to convex profile

A

d. flat to convex profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To correct insufficient face reinforcement on a groove weld you could:
a. grind weld deposit down smooth
b. add corrective passes
c. machine weld deposit down smooth
d. all of the above

A

b. add corrective passes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

To help prevent lack of fusion a welder should:
a. use proper current settings
b. properly prepare joint
c. use correct technique
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Gas speed and flame propagation:
a. must be considered to prevent reverse flow of gases
b. must be closely balanced so that the flame does not leave the tip
c. have no effect on flame settings
d. are what determine the type of flame

A

b. must be closely balanced so that the flame does not leave the tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

_______ is the maximum safe working pressure for C2H2 (acetylene)?
a. 15 psi
b. 20 psi
c. 28 psi
d. 56 psi

A

a. 15 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

02 (Oxygen) cylinders are tested:
a. after 10 years of use
b. after 10 years, then every 5 years
c. after 5 years
d. after 5 years, then every 2 years

A

b. after 10 years, then every 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

All oxygen fittings have?
a. external (male) threads internal
b. (female) threads
c. right hand threads
d. left hand threads

A

c. right hand threads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Tinning in welding refers to:
a. cleaning when the job is finished
b. a layer of flux that covers the weld
c. a layer of weld metal a head of the main deposit
d. a layer of weld metal behind the main deposit

A

a. cleaning when the job is finished

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

On a combination torch, the valve on the cutting attachment should:
a. be fully open
b. be fully closed
c. used to adjust to a neutral flame
d. used to produce rapid oxidization

A

c. used to adjust to a neutral flame

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the normal pressure of a full cylinder of Oxygen?
a. 5600 psi
b. 3360 psi
c. 2400 psi
d. 2200 psi

A

d. 2200 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Contents of compressed gas cylinders are best identified by?
a. CWB markings
D. AWS markings
C. WHMIS markings
d. CSA markings

A

C. WHMIS markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In gas welding which ratio best explains a neutral flame using C2H2 and 02?
a. 1 to 1 ratio
b. 2 to 2 ratio
c. 3 to 3 ratio
d. 4 to 4 ratio

A

a. 1 to 1 ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Common Oxy/fuel cutting is restricted to what group of material?
a. cast iron
b. stainless steel
c. ferrous metal
d. non-ferrous metal

A

c. ferrous metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An oxidizing flame is used for:
a. fusion welding of mild steel
b. fusion welding of brass or bronze
c. silver brazing on mild steel
d. fusion welding on chrome-moly steel

A

b. fusion welding of brass or bronze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

OH&S regulations state that hand rails are to be what height from the top guard rail of a scaffold to its floor base?
a. not less than 0.82 metres or more than 0.97 metres
b. not less than 0.92 metres or more than 1.07 meters
c. not less than 1.02 metres or more than 1.17 metres
d. not less than 1.12 metres or more than 1.27 metres

A

b. not less than 0.92 metres or more than 1.07 meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What type of flame is most commonly used for OAW and Oxy-fuel cutting?
a. Oxidizing
b. Neutral
c. Carbonizing
d. 2X flame

A

b. Neutral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The flux on a brazing rod:
a. assures oxide formation
b. removes oxides
c. helps prevent slag
d. adds strength to the joint

A

b. removes oxides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Torch to work distance has a direct bearing on:
a. direction of travel
b. size of filler metal used
c. type of material welded
d. puddle flow and penetration

A

d. puddle flow and penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When preparing to change from shape cutting to piercing holes it is recommended that you:
a. select a tip with more preheat ports
b. moderate the oxygen pressure and select a larger tip
c. increase the oxygen pressure by about ten percent
d. rotate the tip so that preheat holes are for square cutting

A

b. moderate the oxygen pressure and select a larger tip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

A quick method for starting a cut when the material is cylindrical, is to use:
a. a cold chisel and nick the surface
b. the still torch method of cutting
c. high preheat oxygen pressure
d. 1 1/8X carburizing preheat flames

A

a. a cold chisel and nick the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Many worksites have made it a policy that no employee is allowed to lift more than:
a. 50 pounds
b. 75 pounds
c. 100 pounds
d. more than his/her own weight

A

a. 50 pounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The Working Load Limit for wire rope slings is based on a safety factor of:
a. 5:1
b. 6:1
c. 10:1
d. 20:1

A

c. 10:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An advantage of synthetic web slings is:
a. softeners are not necessary
b. they are usable in acidic conditions
c. they offer good protection for machined parts
d. spreader beams are not necessary

A

a. softeners are not necessary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Boom angle is measured between:
a. vertical and the centerline of the boom
b. horizontal and the centerline of the boom
c. the centerline and the highest angle the boom will reach
d. the centerline and the lowest angle the boom will reach

A

b. horizontal and the centerline of the boom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

To properly secure a load of pipe for hoisting, it is recommended to use chains with a:
a. single wrap choker hitch hooks pointing outwards
b. single wrap choker hitch hooks pointing inwards
c. double wrap choker hitch hooks pointing inwards
d. double wrap choker hitch hooks pointing outwards

A

d. double wrap choker hitch hooks pointing outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A small change in sling angle can drastically affect the:
a. sling load
b. boom angle
c. rope’s life
d. load angle

A

b. boom angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

A fiber rope having a sharp bend over an “I” beam will reduce the strength of the rope by:
a. 15 percent
b. 25 percent
c. 35 percent
d. 50 percent

A

d. 50 percent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The minimum voltage necessary to maintain an arc with the SMAW process is:
a. 17 volts
b. 25 volts
c. 32 volts
d, 40 volts

A

a. 17 volts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The purpose of a rectifier is to:
a. change alternating current to direct current
b. change from single phase to three phase output
c. increase welding speed on aluminum
d. change direct current to alternating current

A

a. change alternating current to direct current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

A DC rectifier machine designed for SMAW will have a:
a. drooping volt-amp curve
b. constant current curve
c. rising amperage curve
d. falling resistance curve

A

a. drooping volt-amp curve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

A welder that converts AC to DC is known as a(an):
a. rectifier welder
b. AC welder
c. DC welder
d. commutator welder

A

a. rectifier welder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What action will cause a change in polarity on DC machines?
a. reverse the direction of the driving motor
b. reverse the direction of the rotor
c. interchange the brushes on the commutator
d. interchange the welding cables

A

d. interchange the welding cables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The power input to an AC welding machine must be:
a. 220 Volt 3 phase current
b. compatible with the machine’s rating
c. single phase with a 50 amp capacity
d. a variable current to meet welding demands

A

b. compatible with the machine’s rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Electric powered welding machines must be internally grounded so as to:
a. prevent cable overheating
b. prevent damage to circuit breaker
c. reduce noise hazard
d. avoid shock to operator

A

d. avoid shock to operator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Which is the correct sequence that these cables should be connected from machine to stinger?
a. 3/0, 1/0, 2, 4
b. 4, 3/0, 2, 1/0
c. 2, 4, 1/0, 3/0
d. 1/0, 2, 3/0, 4

A

a. 3/0, 1/0, 2, 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

An arc welding electrode suitable for dynamic loading must have a high:
a. ductility rating
b. hardness co-efficient
c. tensile strength
d. notch sensitivity

A

a. ductility rating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Hardness is:
a. the ability to absorb energy
b. the ability to deform without fracture
c. the resistance to indentation
d. ability to stretch and return to original

A

c. the resistance to indentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

E4310 (E6010):
a. has deep penetration qualities
b. is for flat and horizontal welding only
c). has a thick, iron powder type coating
d). is usually set straight polarity for light gauge fabrications

A

a. has deep penetration qualities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

In an E6010 electrode, the “60” represents:
a. percentage of alloying elements
b. thousands of pounds per square inch minimum tensile strength
c. position the electrode may be used
d. composition of coating

A

b. thousands of pounds per square inch minimum tensile strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The flux coating on a welding electrode serves what purpose?
a. forming of oxides and nitrides in the weld pool
b. controlling undercut and arc blow
c. reducing slag deposits in the weld pool
d. to cleanse and protect the molten weld pool

A

d. to cleanse and protect the molten weld pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Iron powder is added to the coatings of some electrodes to:
a. prevent the core wire from rusting
b. add to the rate of deposit
c. help bind the coating together
d. decrease the sulfur content in the weld

A

b. add to the rate of deposit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Slag from electrode coatings:
a. are usually moisture resistant -
b. are the same for all electrodes
c. may contain alloying elements to decrease tensile strength
d. prevent the weld from cooling too rapidly

A

d. prevent the weld from cooling too rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which of the following electrodes is least affected by moisture?
a. E4910 (E7010)
b. E4915 (E7015).
c. E4916 (E7016)
d. E4918 (E7018)

A

d. E4918 (E7018)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The five basic types of joints are:
a. butt, edge, tee, lap and groove
b. butt, tee, lap, corner and groove
c. butt, tee, lap, edge and corner
d. butt, groove, tee, edge and corner

A

c. butt, tee, lap, edge and corner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Why do we bevel some metal prior to welding?
a. to obtain increased penetration
b. so the job lasts longer
c. to get a multipass weld
d. to prevent warpage

A

a. to obtain increased penetration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The four main types of welds are:
a. groove, fillet, plug, surfacing
b. fillet, vee, bevel, groove
c. vee, bevel, bead, fillet
d. groove, vee, bevel, plug or slot

A

a. groove, fillet, plug, surfacing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The size of a fillet weld is calculated by:
a. the size of the effective throat
b. measuring longest leg length
C. measuring the shortest leg
d. the thickness of the material welded

A

C. measuring the shortest leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The cover pass in a weld joint is:
a. the amount of side motion used
b. the first penetrating bead
c. a fill pass when stringers are used
d. also called the cap

A

d. also called the cap

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does 1GF in the CSA Standard W47.1 designate?
a. that a fillet weld and a groove weld are combined in a welded joint
b. that a flat position groove weld is to be roll welded
c. that the weld has to conform to the number one grade standard
d. that the filler used has to be of the first group

A

a. that a fillet weld and a groove weld are combined in a welded joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What does the 3 stand for when interpreting the 3F position?
a. overhead position
b. 3 passes are required
c. vertical position
d. 3 fillet welds to be done

A

c. vertical position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Good joint design when preparing to weld thick plate would include:
a. welds that can be done in all position
b. welds that can be done from one side only
c. using double U or double J grooves for heavy sections
d. the total cost of preparation and welding are not considered

A

c. using double U or double J grooves for heavy sections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Non-coated air carbon arc electrodes tend to:
a. perform better when electrodes are larger than 3/8
b. last longer than electrodes that have a copper coating
c. produce a wide shallow cut
d. produce a gouged groove more like a V than a U

A

d. produce a gouged groove more like a V than a U

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How are the air jets positioned when air carbon arc gouging in the flat position?
a. toward the operator
b. toward the work above the electrode
c. toward the work below the electrode
d. any position, it doesn’t matter

A

c. toward the work below the electrode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The purpose of the air jet in air carbon arc gouging is to:
a. blow molten metal away
b. blow cold air into the heat zone
c. keep the electrode cool
d. blow the graphite clear of the weldment

A

a. blow molten metal away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the recommended current for a 6.4 mm (1/4”) air carbon arc electrode using DCRP?
a. 100 - 200 A
b. 200 - 400 A
c. 300 - 500 A
d. 400 - 800 A

A

b. 200 - 400 A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

For a deep cut with the air carbon are gouging the electrode is held:
a. flat
b. horizontal
c. 45 degrees
d. 90 degrees

A

d. 90 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The most common type of wire feed controls used for GMAW, when the power source is
designed for SMAW, is:
a. constant feed control
b. any wire feed control
c. voltage sensing type
d. amperage control

A

c. voltage sensing type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

When talking about producing an “Arc on Time” in GMAW, what are we trying to control?
a. voltage
b. reactance
c. inductance
d. resistance

A

c. inductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

The preferred way of measuring shielding gas flow is:
a. pounds per square inch (kilograms per square centimetre)
b. pounds per hour (kilograms per minute
c. cubic feet per hour (litres per minute)
d. surface feet per hour (surface meters per minute)

A

c. cubic feet per hour (litres per minute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

One disadvantage of short circuit GMAW is:
a. welds can only be made in flat and vertical positions
b. welds are more prone to lack of fusion
c. thin metal may be welded
d, an operator can’t learn GMAW more quickly than SMAW

A

b. welds are more prone to lack of fusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The approximate range for shielding gas flow, using .035 steel wire and short circuit welding
a. 4 - 7 L/min (10 - 15) cubic ft./hr.
b. 7 - 14 L/min (15 - 30) cubic ft./hr.-
c. 14 - 19 L/min (30 - 40) cubic ft./hr.
d. 24 - 26 L/min (50 - 55) cubic ft./hr.

A

b. 7 - 14 L/min (15 - 30) cubic ft./hr.-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The metal deposit in mild steel GMAW welding is similar to the metal deposit of this electrode.
a. E4310
b. E4918
c. E4924
d. 4927

A

b. E4918

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

“Slope” in Gas Metal Arc Welding:
a. important in the globular metal transfer
b. anything that adds resistance, adds slope
c. gives deeper penetration
d. limits available open circuit voltage

A

b. anything that adds resistance, adds slope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Which of the following specifications indicate that the wire is of the solid type?
a. ER 70S-6
b. ER 60T-8
c. ER 70U-1
d. ER 701-SB

A

a. ER 70S-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

When GMAW wires are packaged in sealed containers, it is to protect them from:
a. smoke and related fumes
b. moisture contamination
c. transportation damage
d. radiated light energy

A

b. moisture contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

In GMAW “Whiskers” protruding through the root pass may be cause by what:
a. gas speed too high
b. too large a puddle
c. travel speed to fast
d. wet CO2 gas

A

c. travel speed to fast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How should a dirty liner be cleaned?
a. with a soapy solution
b. with oil based cleaner
c. blow out with pure oxygen
d. blow out with compressed air

A

d. blow out with compressed air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

“Stubbing” is caused by excessive:
a. amperage
b. voltage
c. resistance
d. wire speed

A

d. wire speed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

High wire resistance in the liner is likely to cause:
a. porosity in the weld
b. nesting at the drive rolls
c. excessive undercut
d. damage to the liner

A

b. nesting at the drive rolls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Excessive spatter build-up in the gun nozzle causes:
a. undercut at weld edges
b. excessive metal flow
c. an increase of stick out
d. a possible lack of gas shielding

A

d. a possible lack of gas shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Why should you use specially designed wire feeder drive rolls when using the FCAW process?
a. to help grip the wire and drive it more evenly
b. FCAW wires have an oily residue which interferes with drive roll systems
c. FCAW wires are not available in the same diameters as solid wires
d. FCAW wires are generally a larger diameter than GMAW wires

A

a. to help grip the wire and drive it more evenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Which is not a type of flux used in flux cored wires?
a. rutile
b. basic
c. self-shielded
d. cellulose

A

d. cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What action should be taken when a liner is kinked?
a. kink the liner back till it is straight
b. do nothing; liners are supposed to be kinked
c. replace the liner with a new one
d. squeeze the liner with vise-grips until it straightens out

A

c. replace the liner with a new one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What electrode inclination is recommended for the first pass of a 2F weld on 10mm (3/8) material using a 3.2mm (1/8) F3 electrode?
a. 5 to 30 degrees forehand
b. 5 to 30 degrees backhand
c. 45 degrees in the direction of travel
d. 45 degrees to the vertical surface of the joint

A

b. 5 to 30 degrees backhand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What joint configuration is suggested for a 1G weld with a Vee groove preparation on 10mm (3/8”) material with a 60 degree included angle when welding with an F3 electrode?
a. root face preparation is 3.2mm (1/8”)
b. root opening preparation is 3.2mm (1/8”)
c. root face preparation and root opening are equal
d. root face preparation and gap are not required

A

a. root face preparation is 3.2mm (1/8”)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

A guided bend test is used to test:
a. impact hardness
b. tensile strength
c. toughness
d. soundness and ductility

A

d. soundness and ductility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The type of weld bead made without any side to side motion is called a:
a. straight bead
b. stripper bead
c. stringer bead
d. padding bead

A

c. stringer bead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

A 1F joint is described as having the joint surfaces positioned:
a. approximately 90 degrees to the horizontal plane
b. approximately level to the horizontal plane
c. approximately 0 degrees to the horizontal plane
d. approximately 45 degrees to the horizontal plane

A

d. approximately 45 degrees to the horizontal plane

90
Q

When performing the root pass in the 1F position using a E4311 what type of technique should be used?
a. manipulative technique
b. drag technique
c weave technique
d. spray technique

A

b. drag technique

91
Q

What is the “rule of thumb” when SMAW welding and undercut becomes a problem?
a. increase arc length
b. point electrode towards undercut
c. point electrode away from undercut
d. undercut only happens in OAW welding

A

b. point electrode towards undercut

92
Q

The root opening on a 1GF test assembly is:
a. 5/16” (7mm)
b. 3/8” (10mm)
c. ½ “ (13mm)
d. 5/8” (16mm)

A

c. ½ “ (13mm)

93
Q

What positions can surface welding be performed when GMAW with short circuiting?
a. flat only
b. flat horizontal only
C. all position except vertical
d. all position

A

C. all position except vertical

94
Q

Which position when arc welding is said to be the most productive?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 1
d. 2

95
Q

______ is the recommended gun angle for the first pass on a 2F weld using GMAW:
a. 90 degrees to the vertical plane
b. 90 degrees to the horizontal plane
c. 45 degrees to the vertical and horizontal
d. 270 degrees to the welders initial position

A

c. 45 degrees to the vertical and horizontal

96
Q

A _____ bead is usually used for the cap on a 3F weld using GMAW?
a. weave
b. stringer
c. drag
d. modified lazy L

97
Q

What adjustment would increase penetration on the root pass of a 3G using GMAW:
a. increase voltage
b. decrease wire feed speed
c. increase stickout
d. increase wire feed speed

A

d. increase wire feed speed

98
Q

What corrective action should be used if excessive convexity is a problem on the cap pass of a GMAW 3G weld ?
a. decrease voltage
b. increase travel speed across the weld
c. increase shielding gas flow rate
d. decrease travel speed across the weld

A

d. decrease travel speed across the weld

99
Q
  1. What would be the main reason for using FCAW over GMAW?
    a. wire is cheaper
    b. equipment is cheaper
    c. deposition rates are higher
    d. current requirements are lower
A

c. deposition rates are higher

100
Q

Most FCAW techniques use an inclination of:
a. 10 degrees to 30 degrees forehand
b. 40 degrees to 80 degrees forehand
c. 10 degrees to 30 degrees backhand
d. O degrees or square to the plate

A

c. 10 degrees to 30 degrees backhand

101
Q

Arrange these rivets in order of their size from SMALLEST to LARGEST:
5/16, 3/8, 9/32, 21/64, 1/4

a) 21/64, 9/32, 5/16, 3/8, 1/4
b) 1/4, 9/32, 5/16, 21/64, 3/8
c. 1/4, 3/8, 5/16, 9/32, 21/64
d. 3/8, 1/4, 5/16, 9/32, 21/64

A

b) 1/4, 9/32, 5/16, 21/64, 3/8

102
Q

A vessel 50 feet long is to have 28 equally spaced nozzles installed on it. The first and last nozzles are to be spaced 3.5 feet in from the ends of the vessel. What is the centre to centre distance between the nozzles to the nearest 1/8 inch?
a) 1ft 5-3/8 in
b) 1 ft 6-3/8 in
c) 1 ft 7-1/8 in
d) 1ft 10-1/4 in

A

c) 1 ft 7-1/8 in

103
Q

A shaft which should be 1 3/16” in diameter, actually measures 1.221”. Is the shaft undersized or oversized and by how much? To the nearest thousandth of an inch.
a) Undersized by 0.034”
b) Undersized by 0.017”
c) Oversized by 0.034”
d) Oversized by 0.017”

A

c) Oversized by 0.034”

104
Q

An enclosed tank 8 feet 7 inches in diameter is 13 feet high. Calculate the total amount of sheet steel required to construct this tank.
a) 466.28 sq.ft
b) 57.86 sq.ft
c) 752.22 sq.ft
d) 350.55 sq.ft

A

a) 466.28 sq.ft

105
Q

A skid shack 15 feet 6 inches long by 12 feet 9 inches wide by 8 feet high is to be covered with
12 gauge steel on the walls only. Subtracting a total of 24 square feet for a window and a door, how much steel is required?
a) 202 sq.ft
b) 452 sq.ft
c) 428 sq.ft
d) 432 sq.ft

A

c) 428 sq.ft

106
Q

A full sheet of 1/2” plate that is 4 ft. by 8 H. is to have a 4 ft. diameter hole cut out of it.
If 1” thick steel weighs 40.8 Ibs per square foot, what is the weight of the sheet after the hole has been removed? Answer to nearest 1/10 of a pound.
a) 256.4 lb.
b) 396.4 lb.
c) 512.7 lb.
d) 652.8 lb.

A

b) 396.4 lb.

107
Q

A Welding job is estimated at 58,00.0 and would me jute a welders working for SA hours, How many hours would it take 6 welders to do the same job working at the same rate?
a) 81
b) 63
c) 36
d) 24

108
Q

In a pipe spool shop 120 of 125 welds passed x-ray and ultra-sonic testing. What percentage of the welds was rejected?
a) 4%
b) 5%
c) 96%
d) 120%

109
Q

A circular cover has a diameter of 2 feet 2 inches. How many welding rods would it require to weld 7 of these overs onto their container if one rod will weld a total of 7 inches. a) 81
b) 82
c) 40
d) 41

110
Q

A company hires you at $17.40 per hour. You are to be paid time and one-haft for all hours over
40 per week. What would be your weekly pay if 5 days of 10.5 hours per day were worked?
a. $1,022.25
b. $761.25
c. $913.50
d. $1,370.25

A

a. $1,022.25

111
Q

Forty seven pieces of angle iron 9 feet 7.75 inches long are required for a fabrication job. Calculate the total length of the angle iron required.
a) 453’ 4 3/4”
b) 453’ 4 1/2”
c) 453’ 4 1/4”
d) 453’ 4”

A

c) 453’ 4 1/4”

112
Q

The ratio of 13.5 feet to 36 inches is:
a) 1/.375
b) .375/1
c) 1/4.5
d) 4.5/1

113
Q

High ultraviolet radiation emissions from an open arc can cause atmospheric oxygen in the vicinity of the arc to convert to:
a. Ozone
b. Carbon monoxide
c. Carbon dioxide
d. Argon

114
Q

Self-shielded FCAW uses shielding gas generated from:
a. The base metal
b. An external source
c. The flux
d. A paste flux applied to the base metal before welding

A

c. The flux

115
Q

How are wire feed guns rated?
a. By voltage-carrying capacity
b. By physical size
c. By current-carrying capacity
d. By shielding gas flow rate

A

c. By current-carrying capacity

116
Q

Constant voltage (CV) machines produce a:
a. Drooping volt-amp curve
b. Rising volt-amp curve
c. Relatively flat volt-amp curve
d. Constantly changing volt-amp curve

A

c. Relatively flat volt-amp curve

117
Q

One of the main advantages of metal core wires is:
a. Lower cost than flux core wires
b. No external shielding gas is required
c. Designed for use on conventional CC power sources
d. High deposition rates

A

d. High deposition rates

118
Q

The composition of the base metal is the major factor to consider when selecting:
a. a shielding gas
b. filler materials
c. a power source
d. current settings

A

b. filler materials

119
Q

When added to ER70S-2, manganese, silicon and aluminum are used as:
a. stabilizers
b. deoxidizers
c. lubricators
d. indicators

A

b. deoxidizers

120
Q

The welding cable assembly is constructed to:
a. supply current from the machine to the electrode holder
b. supply current, gas and wire too the welding gun
c. complete an electrical circuit between the machine and the work
d. supply current from the wall receptacle to the welding machine

A

b. supply current, gas and wire too the welding gun

121
Q

What is the main purpose of the contact tube?
a. It transfers the welding current to the filler wire
b. It prevents pre-ignition of the arc in the nozzle
c. It directs shielding gas to the weld zone
d. It acts as an insulator between the wire and the gun

A

a. It transfers the welding current to the filler wire

122
Q

What does the G stand for in the CSA FCAW electrode classification E492T-G?
a. Gas shielded
b. General classification for electrodes not covered under any other classification
c. For use on Class G secondary containment vessels for nuclear service
d. General purpose electrode for use on carbon and low-alloy steels

A

b. General classification for electrodes not covered under any other classification

123
Q

Flowmeters are calibrated to indicate the:
a. Volume of shielding gas supplied
b. Capacity of the shieling gas cylinder
c. Pressure of shieling gas supplied
d. Density of shieling gas supplied

A

a. Volume of shielding gas supplied

124
Q

When 1% - 9% oxygen is added to argon shielding gas, it is to:
a. Reduce spatter
b. Increase the deposition rate
c. Improve wetting action
d. Reduce welding costs

A

c. Improve wetting action

125
Q

A characteristic of carbon dioxide shielding gas used with short-circuiting metal transfer is:
a. A deep, narrow penetration pattern
b. High weld metal loss in the form of spatter
c. Excellent surface cleaning action
d. A shallow, wide penetration pattern

A

b. High weld metal loss in the form of spatter

126
Q

What is an advantage of using a 75% argon + 25% CO2 gas mix on carbon steel?
a. Lower cost
b. Deeper penetration
c. Improved arc characteristics
d. Argon is less dangerous when used in confined spaces

A

c. Improved arc characteristics

127
Q

Which gas is generally used for shielding when using MCAW?
a. Argon only
b. No gas shielding with certain wires
c. Oxygen only
d. A mixture of argon and carbon dioxide

A

d. A mixture of argon and carbon dioxide

128
Q

What part of the GMAW system requires the most ongoing maintenance?
a. Power source
b. Regulator/flowmeter
c. Wire feeder
d. Gun and cable assembly

A

d. Gun and cable assembly

129
Q

What should you do when the liner becomes kinked?
a. Replace it
b. Squeeze it in a vice until it straightens out and place it back into service
C. Cut the kinked portion out, rejoin using manufacturer-approved fittings and place it back into service
d. Stretch the liner until it straightens out and place it back into service

A

a. Replace it

130
Q

What is the major cause of cold lap when using GMAW sort-circuit metal transfer?
a. Fast travel with a small bead
b. Slow travel with a large bead
c. Slope control set to a flat volt-amp curve
d. Wire stickout too short

A

b. Slow travel with a large bead

131
Q

Stubbing is caused by excessive
a. Inductance
b. Voltage
c. Resistance
d. Wire feed speed

A

d. Wire feed speed

132
Q

When arc hunting occurs, the problem is likely in the:
a. Wire feeder drive motor or the motor gearbox
b. Wire speed control or the voltage control
c. Drive rolls or the remote control switch
d. Contact tip or the conduit liner

A

d. Contact tip or the conduit liner

133
Q

What is the root gap between the test plates for a CWB 2G test weld?
a. 6.4mm (1/4”)
b. 8mm ( 5/16”)
c. 10mm (3/8”)
d. 13mm (1/2”)

A

b. 8mm ( 5/16”)

134
Q

What is the normal electrode angle when doing single-pass 1F welds?
a. 90 degrees to the joint angle
b. 45 degrees to the joint angle
c. 15 to 20 degrees to the joint angle
d. 180 degrees relative to the welder’s position

A

b. 45 degrees to the joint angle

135
Q

What joint configuration is generally used for a 1G weld with a Vee groove preparation on 10mm (3/8”) material?
a. 4mm (5/32”) root face, 2.5mm (332”) gap
b. 4mm (5/32”) gap, 1.6mm (1/16”) root face
c. 4mm (5/32”) root face, 4mm (5/32”) gap
d. 1.6mm (1/16”) gap, 3.2mm(1/8”) root face

A

b. 4mm (5/32”) gap, 1.6mm (1/16”) root face

136
Q

How is work positioned for a 1F Tee joint?
a. 90 degrees and 0 degrees to the horizontal plane
b. 180 degrees and 360 degrees to the horizontal plane
c. 120 degrees and 60 degrees to the horizontal plane
d. Each member at 45 degrees to the horizontal plane

A

d. Each member at 45 degrees to the horizontal plane

137
Q

A WPS allows minor changes in the welding voltage and amperage.
a. True
b. False

138
Q

Where is the fillet weld in a CSA 2G test assembly located?
a. Against the beveled edge
b. Against the square edge
c. There is no fillet weld in a 2G test assembly
d. The fillet weld is the cover pass

A

c. There is no fillet weld in a 2G test assembly

139
Q

Most FCAW welding techniques use an electrode inclination of:
a. 10 degrees to 30 degrees forehand
b. 40 degrees to 80 degrees forehand
c. 10 degrees to 30 degrees backhand
d. 0 degrees or dead square

A

c. 10 degrees to 30 degrees backhand

140
Q

Changing the angle of the electrode holder in relation to the joint:
a. Changes the voltage
b. Has no effect on the weld
c. Causes the weld profile to change
d. Causes the wire to feed unevenly

A

c. Causes the weld profile to change

141
Q

Why are back-up bars often employed on FCAW groove welds?
a. Open gaps cause potentially damaging current surges in the main transformer coils of the power source
b. FCAW root beads in open gaps are characterized by lack of fusion
c. Loss of gas coverage is a problem with FCAW in an open gap
d. It is difficult to control penetration in an open gap with FCAW

A

d. It is difficult to control penetration in an open gap with FCAW

142
Q

The number/letter combination 3GF:
a. Represents the type of filler wire and shielding gas to be used for the project
b. Indicates the vertical position with a combination groove and fillet weld
c. Requires the joint to be completed in three passes and ground flat
d. Indicates that a mix of three shielding gases is required

A

b. Indicates the vertical position with a combination groove and fillet weld

143
Q

What is the recommended electrode angle on a groove weld?
a. ¼ of the included angle
b. ½ of the included angle
C. ¾ of the included angle
d. The same as the included angle

A

b. ½ of the included angle

144
Q

What type of interpass cleaning is normally required between the GMAW root pass and FCAW or MCAW deposited weld metal?
a. Grind to clean weld metal before proceeding
b. De-slag before proceeding
c. Hand brush before proceeding
d. Interpass cleaning is not normally required

A

d. Interpass cleaning is not normally required

145
Q

What mode of metal transfer is used with MCAW in the 3G position?
a. Pulsed spray
b. Spray
c. Short circuit
d. Globular

A

a. Pulsed spray

146
Q

What is the recommended electrode inclination on a groove weld?
a. Forehand 10 degrees to 30 degrees
b. Forehand 90 degrees
c. Backhand 0 degrees to 10 degrees
d. Backhand 90 degrees

A

c. Backhand 0 degrees to 10 degrees

147
Q

What is the recommended inclination for the MCAW fill/cap passes in the 2G position?
a. Forehand 0 degrees to 10 degrees
b. Forehand 45 degrees
c. Backhand 45 degrees
d. Backhand 20 degrees to 30 degrees

A

a. Forehand 0 degrees to 10 degrees

148
Q

What type of alloy is an ER4043 filler wire?
a. Aluminum and silicon
b. Aluminum and magnesium
c. Aluminum and manganese
d. Silicon and manganese

A

a. Aluminum and silicon

149
Q

What does the fourth digit indicate for an aluminum alloy casting?
a. Minimum aluminum content
b. Product form
c. Modifications of the original alloy
d. Type of heat treatment

A

b. Product form

150
Q

The coefficient of linear expansion of aluminum is approximately:
a. Equal to that of steel
b. Half that of steel
c. Twice that of steel
d. Four times that of steel

A

c. Twice that of steel

151
Q

Heating an aluminum alloy to a temperature below its melting point for a specified period of time and then quenching from this temperature is called:
a. Tempering
b. Hardening
C. Aging
d. Solution heat-treating

A

d. Solution heat-treating

152
Q

The aluminum wrought alloys in the groups 1xxx, 3xxx and 5xxx series are:
a. Heat-treatable
b. Non-heat treatable
c. Hardenable
d. Temperable

A

b. Non-heat treatable

153
Q

What can happen if you leave a crater at the end of an aluminum weld?
a. Cracking
b. Porosity
c. Slag inclusions
d. Hard spots

A

a. Cracking

154
Q

Up to what length of contact tip is best suited for GMAW with aluminum filler wires?
a. 25.4mm (1”)
b. 50.8mm (2”)
c. 76.2mm (3”)
d. 101.6mm (4”)

A

d. 101.6mm (4”)

155
Q

What is the purpose of a light preheat on aluminum alloys?
a. To remove moisture
b. To reduce residual stresses after welding
c. Easier arc starting
d. To remove surface oxides

A

a. To remove moisture

156
Q

What happens when you use a backhand inclination when using GMAW on aluminum?
a. Lack of fusion
b. The wire tends to burn back into the contact tube
c. A black soot oxide appears on the surface
d. Excessive bead convexity

A

c. A black soot oxide appears on the surface

157
Q

The shielding gas most commonly used with GMAW on non-ferrous metals is:
a. Carbon dioxide
b. Nitrogen
c. Helium
d. Argon

158
Q

The recommended gun angle and inclination for a GMAW 1G pipe joint is:
a. 90 degree angle to the joint with a 15 degree backhand inclination
b. 45 degree angle to the joint with a 15 degree forehand inclination
c. 30 degree angle to the joint with a 30 degree backhand inclination
d. 60 degree angle to the joint with a 30 degree forehand inclination

A

a. 90 degree angle to the joint with a 15 degree backhand inclination

159
Q

What root gap is recommended for a GMAW roll welded pipe joint prior to tack welding?
a. 1.6mm to 2.5mm (1/16” to 3/32”)
b. 2.5mm to 3.2mm (3/32” to 1/8”)
c. 3.2mm to 4mm (1/8” to 5/32”)
d. 4mm to 6.4mm (5/32” to ¼”)

A

c. 3.2mm to 4mm (1/8” to 5/32”)

160
Q

Which type of flux can be re-used?
a. Bonded
b. Agglomerated
c. Fused
d. Rutile-based

161
Q

Which is helix?
a. Straightening of the wire before it enter the drive roll assembly
b. The diameter of a single loop of wire
c. The turning action of the wire as it unrolls
d. The space between two unrestrained loops of wire

A

d. The space between two unrestrained loops of wire

162
Q

To increase arc length when you are welding with SAW, you would:
a. Use a longer contact tip
b. Increase wire feed speed
c. Increase arc voltage
d. Use a shorter contact tip

A

c. Increase arc voltage

163
Q

Leader lines are used to:
a. Save space on a drawing
b. Point directly to a surface
c. Show an alternate position of a part
d. Show the visible shape of an object

A

b. Point directly to a surface

164
Q

A broken line of medium thickness (ie.
a. Hidden line
b. Centerline
C. Phantom line
d. Extension line

A

a. Hidden line

165
Q

Where is the title block located on a drawing or blueprint?
a. Top left corner
b. Top right corner
c. bottom right corner
d. Bottom left corner

A

c. bottom right corner

166
Q

What do the arrows indicate when using a cutting plane line to show a full section
View?
a. The direction of travel
b. The direction the part is revolved
c. The direction of offset
d. The direction of sight

A

d. The direction of sight

167
Q

A precision dimension is usually expressed in:
a. Fractions
b. Decimals
C. Feet and inches
d. Metres and millimetres

A

b. Decimals

168
Q

What does EMF stand for?
a. Electron movement force
b. Elementary motor force
c. Electromotive force
d. Electromotive factor

A

c. Electromotive force

169
Q

The nucleus of an atom has:
a. Electrons and protons
b. Protons and neutrons
c. Neutrons and electrons
d. Only electrons

A

b. Protons and neutrons

170
Q

In using a chip test to identify a metal, what would a smooth continuous chip indicate?
a. A dull chisel
b. A soft material like aluminum
c. A hard material like high carbon steel
d. A brittle material like cast iron

A

b. A soft material like aluminum

171
Q

What is the most precise method for the identification of a metal that has been
shipped from a steel mill?
a. Study the mill test report
b. Use a file for hardness testing
c. Do a spark test with an angle grinder
d. Steel that comes in shapes is always low carbon

A

a. Study the mill test report

172
Q

Which of the following cannot be accomplished with a postweld heat treatment?
a. Annealing
b. Normalizing
c. Stress relieving
d. Distortion control

A

d. Distortion control

173
Q

The heat-treating process that brings a material to its softest, toughest, weakest state is:
a. Annealing
b. Normalizing
c. Stress relieving
d. Tempering

A

a. Annealing

174
Q

The five (5) basic types of joints are:
a. Butt, edge, Tee, lap and groove
b. Butt, Tee, lap, corner and groove
c. Butt, Tee, lap, edge and corner
d. Butt, groove, Tee, edge and corner

A

c. Butt, Tee, lap, edge and corner

175
Q

The size of a fillet weld is determined by:
a. Leg length of the largest equal leg triangle that may be drawn within the cross section of the weld
b. Measuring across the face of the weld
c. A certified welding inspector
d. The thickness of the material being welded

A

a. Leg length of the largest equal leg triangle that may be drawn within the cross section of the weld

176
Q

A weld symbol must depict the:
a. Three most essential elements of the weld
b. Desired shape of the weld to be applied
c. Joint dimensions and welding process
d. Member that is to be prepared and where it is welded

A

b. Desired shape of the weld to be applied

177
Q

The tail on a welding symbol is used for:
a. Determining arrow side or other side
b. Joints using fillet welds only
c. Information that cannot be put into symbol form
d. Indicating which side of the joint must be prepared

A

c. Information that cannot be put into symbol form

178
Q

In a correctly drawn welding symbol, the reference line must:
a. Have a single arrow only
b. Be drawn horizontally
c. Be drawn with a tail
d. Have all weld symbols on the arrow side

A

b. Be drawn horizontally

179
Q

The purpose of welding symbols is to:
a.: Make the drafting job complete
b. Convey necessary welding information from designer to welder
c. Specify the type of weld to use
d. Convey necessary weld dimensions

A

b. Convey necessary welding information from designer to welder

180
Q

A field weld is shown on the welding symbol by a:
a. Solid black circle
b. Notation in the tail
c. Ring around the weld symbol
d. Solid black flag

A

d. Solid black flag

181
Q

A surfacing weld symbol is always drawn on the ______ side of the reference line
a. Arrow
b. Other
c. Right
d. Left

182
Q

What is the purpose of balancing welds around the neutral axis of a worn shaft?
a. To equalize the contraction stresses of the welds
b. To increase the heat buildup into the shaft
c. To get a more uniform weld buildup
d. To allow the use of larger electrodes

A

a. To equalize the contraction stresses of the welds

183
Q

What is one characteristic of a good welding design?
a. It uses many rapid changes in cross-section
b. It uses formed or rolled sections
c. It uses as many small pieces as possible
d. It uses vertical and overhead position welds as much as possible

A

b. It uses formed or rolled sections

184
Q

From a welding standpoint, a crater is a term used to describe:
a. A person who puts tools in crates
b. A pinhole at the beginning of a weld
c. A depression at the end of a weld
d. The cup-shaped cavity at the end of a used electrode

A

c. A depression at the end of a weld

185
Q

Which is the most serious weld fault listed below?
a. Porosity
b. Cracking
c. Undercut
d. Overlap

A

b. Cracking

186
Q

What is a major advantage of hardfacing?
a. Worn parts with high replacement costs can be reclaimed
b. Hardfacing filler alloys are cheap and easy to apply
c. Any hardfacing alloy can be used with any welding process
d. The very hard alloys can also withstand high impact loading

A

a. Worn parts with high replacement costs can be reclaimed

187
Q

These hardfacing materials, alloyed with 5%-12% chromium, are probably the most widely used.
a. Semi-austenitic
b. Austenitic manganese
c. Austenitic stainless steel
d. Martensitic stainless steel

A

a. Semi-austenitic

188
Q

Who are the major participants when entering into a Contract of Apprenticeship?
a. The employer and Alberta Apprenticeship and Industry Training
b. The employer, Alberta Apprenticeship and Industry Training and the Provincial Apprenticeship committee
c. The apprentice, the employer and Alberta Apprenticeship and Industry Training
d. The apprentice, the employer and the Provincial Apprenticeship committee

A

c. The apprentice, the employer and Alberta Apprenticeship and Industry Training

189
Q

Who is responsible for safety in the workplace?
a. The apprentice
b. The employer
c. The employer and the apprentice
d. A designated safety co-ordinator

A

b. The employer

190
Q

What are the four categories of workplace hazards?
a. Ecological, chemical, ergonomic, physical
b. Biological, chemical, ergonomic, physical
c. Biological, ecological, chemical, physical
d. Chemical, physical, psychological, ecological

A

b. Biological, chemical, ergonomic, physical

191
Q

What is an employee responsibility with regard to the use of PPE?
a. To inspect your PPE once a month
b. To modify poor fitting PPE so it fits properly
c. To inspect your PPE prior to each use
d. To wear your PPE only when you sense an accident may happen

A

c. To inspect your PPE prior to each use

192
Q

What is the minimum distance a ladder must protrude above the intended landing point?
a. 0.3m (1ft.)
b. 1m (3 tt.)
c. ¼ the length of the ladder
d. ¼ the distance of the base of the ladder from the base of the wall or structure

A

b. 1m (3 tt.)

193
Q

What rigging factor of safety is to be used when lifting and transporting workers?
a. 2:1
b. 5:1
c. 10:1
d. 20:1

194
Q

The key elements of WHIMIS are:
a. Employee education, MSDS and product labelling
b. Hazard Products Act, OHS and MSDS
c. Employee labelling, MSDS and employer training
d. Product labelling OHS and Controlled Products Regulations

A

a. Employee education, MSDS and product labelling

195
Q

Before entering a confined workspace you should:
a. Assemble all necessary tools and equipment to ensure easy access while working in the confined space
b. Contact your employer to obtain information on dangerous gases present in the confined workspace
c. Discuss your work plan with other workers who may have worked in a similar confined space
d. Use a gas detector to determine whether the area contains any dangerous fumes or gases

A

d. Use a gas detector to determine whether the area contains any dangerous fumes or gases

196
Q

A tool rest on a fixed grinder must be:
a. Adjusted when the grinder is in motion
b. Set to a minimum 6mm (1.4”) from the wheel
c. Positioned for grinding on the side of the wheel
d. Set to a maximum of 3mm (1/8”) from the face of the wheel

A

d. Set to a maximum of 3mm (1/8”) from the face of the wheel

197
Q

The base of an inclined ladder shall be no further away from the base of a wall than:
a. One metre out for every two metres of vertical height
b. One half the total length of the ladder
c. One quarter of the vertical height from the base of the ladder to where the ladder contacts the wall
d. One third of the vertical height of the supporting wall

A

c. One quarter of the vertical height from the base of the ladder to where the ladder contacts the wall

198
Q

Which type of material offers the best protection against sparks and molten slag?
a. Leather
b. Wool
c. Nylon
d. Cotton

A

a. Leather

199
Q

Hearing protection should be worn when the noise level is above:
a. 65 decibels
b. 85 decibels
C. 115 decibels
d. 135 decibels

A

b. 85 decibels

200
Q

What is the recommended length of a wraparound for marking a straight line around a pipe?
a. One complete turn around the pipe
b. One and one half turns around the pipe
c. Twice the pipe circumference
d. Twice the pipe diameter

A

c. Twice the pipe circumference

201
Q

It is dangerous to use chisels that have:
a. Hard points
b. Mushroomed heads
c. Small cutting points
d. Rough cutting edges

A

b. Mushroomed heads

202
Q

Before installing a new grindstone, you need to:
a. Install a flat washer
b. Roll it across the floor to check for out-of-round conditions
c. Inspect the wheel for cracks
d. Lubricate the center hole

A

c. Inspect the wheel for cracks

203
Q

The risk of the drill bit grabbing the work or breaking:
a. Increases as the bit breaks through the workpiece
b. Can be avoided by using adequate lubricant
c. Can be minimized by running the drill faster
d. Only occurs when drilling hardened steels

A

a. Increases as the bit breaks through the workpiece

204
Q

What should be done before the cylinder valve protective caps are removed?
a. Cylinders should be pressure-tested
b. Cylinders should be secured
c. Cylinder valves should be cracked
d. Equipment should be lubricated and ready for installation

A

b. Cylinders should be secured

205
Q

When shutting down an oxyfuel outfit you should:
a. Close the cylinder valves and bleed the system
b. Close the torch valves and bleed the system
c. Back off the regulator screws and bleed the system
d. Roll up the hoses and remove the welding tip

A

a. Close the cylinder valves and bleed the system

206
Q

When a piece of metal is cut, it creates a cut gap called the:
a. Groove
b. Bead
c. Kerf
d. Crater

207
Q

If you notice the preheat flames changing from neutral to carbonizing during the cutting process, the most likely cause would be that the:
a. Oxygen cylinder is nearly empty
b. Acetylene consumption is too high
C. Acetylene cylinder is nearly empty
d. Tip is dirty and requires cleaning

A

a. Oxygen cylinder is nearly empty

208
Q

In the plasma arc process, what is dross?
a. A slag-like non-metallic by product
b. Re-solidified oxidized molten metal
c. Re-solidified non-metallic material
d. None of the above

A

b. Re-solidified oxidized molten metal

209
Q

How are the air jets positioned when air carbon arc gouging in the flat position?
a. Toward the operator
b. Toward the work, above the electrode
c. Toward the work, below the electrode
d. In any position because it has no effect on the metal removal

A

c. Toward the work, below the electrode

210
Q

What is the maximum number of plates that can be lifted safely using a plate clamp with a locking grip?
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. As many as will fit between the jaws

211
Q

Before attempting to lift an object, you should determine its:
a. Length
b. Width
c. Weight
d. Height

212
Q

When U-bolt type clips are used for wire rope fastening, where is the U-bolt section applied?
a. On either side of the rope
b. Alternating on each side
c. On the live end of the rope
d. On the dead end of the rope

A

d. On the dead end of the rope

213
Q

What is the critical pressure of acetylene?
a. 15 psi
b. 20 psi
c. 18 psi
d. 28 psi

214
Q

The maximum safe working pressure of acetylene is?
a. 28 psi
b. 15 psi
c. 20 psi
d. 18 psi

215
Q

What is the explosive limit of acetylene in air?
a. 3.0% to 93%
b. 2.5% to 80%
c. 5% to 99.5%
d. 99.5% to 99.9%

A

b. 2.5% to 80%

216
Q

What is the explosive limit of acetylene in pure oxygen?
a. 3.0% to 93%
b. 2.5% to 80%
c. 5% to 99.5%
d. 99.5% to 99.9%

A

a. 3.0% to 93%

217
Q

Oxyfuel hoses have a minimum bursting pressure of:
a. 300 psi
b. 200 psi
c. 400 psi
d. 100 psi

A

c. 400 psi

218
Q

Incomplete penetration would likely be caused by:
a. Travel speed too slow
b. The root opening too narrow
c. Electrode diameter too small
d. Welding with excessively high current settings

A

b. The root opening too narrow

219
Q

Notch effect in a weld has stress flow lines:
a. Concentrated at one point
b. Flowing from left to right
c. Flowing smoothly through the welded joint
d. Stretched beyond the elastic limit

A

a. Concentrated at one point

220
Q

A tapered transition ratio of 3:1 when joining plates of different thicknesses would:
a. Waste time and energy
b. Decrease notch effect
c. Decrease cross-section strength
d. Create a point of high stress

A

b. Decrease notch effect

221
Q

Which of the following variables would be effective in controlling excessive penetration on a groove weld?
a. Reduce the land thickness
b. Increase the bevel angle
c. Decrease the root opening
d. Pre-set the plates to widen the groove opening

A

c. Decrease the root opening

222
Q

Undercut is most commonly caused by:
a. Current setting too low
b. Travel speed too fast
c. Using high iron powder electrodes
d. Incorrect electrode angle

A

d. Incorrect electrode angle