Air Law and Procedures Flashcards
1
Q
What can you ask ATC for if you’re unfamiliar with the taxiways at an airport?
A
A progressive taxi
2
Q
A horizontal windsock will indicate what wind speed?
A
At least 15 KT
3
Q
Runways greater than _____ require a windsock at each end.
A
4000 ft
4
Q
What is a standard circuit?
A
1000 ft AGL left hand turns, UNLESS specified in CFS
5
Q
Minimum altitude to overfly aerodrome? Unless authorized by ATC or taking off/landing
A
Less than 2000 ft AGL
- If it is necessary for an aircraft to cross the aerodrome before joining the circuit to check the winds and traffic, it is recommended that the crossover be accomplished at least 500 feet above the circuit altitude.
6
Q
How often is the CFS updated?
A
Every 56 days
7
Q
No person shall exercise the privileges of a license, permit, or rating unless they have acted as PIC or Co-pilot of an aircraft in the previous
A
5 years
8
Q
Within _____ months preceding a flight you must complete a recurrent training. What are your options?
A
24
- A flight review with an instructor.
- Attend a safety seminar conducted by TC.
- Participate in an TC approved recurrent training program.
- Complete the self-paced study program.
- Complete a training program or PPC.
- Complete the requirements for the issuance or renewal of a license permit or rating.
- Complete the written exam for a license, permit or rating.
9
Q
How many takeoffs/landings must you complete in order to carry passengers?
A
5 takeoffs/landings within the last 6 months in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
10
Q
To act as a flight crew member in commercial operations, you must complete
A
3 takeoffs and landings within the last 90 days in an aircraft of that type or category and class, or in an approved flight simulator.
> Helicopters have to transition to forward flight in order for one takeoff and landing to count.
11
Q
When do you need an ECG for a cat 1 medical
A
For a Category 1 medical, an ECG is required
* at the initial exam when under 30;
* every 2 years age 30 to 40;
*every 1 year when over 40.
12
Q
What day of the month does your medical expire?
A
The last day of the month of expiry on your medical
13
Q
The class of airspace, the dimensions of this airspace, and the VHF frequencies for high density airports in Canada are given in what publications?
A
- The VFR Navigation Charts (VNC)
- The VFR Terminal Area Chart (VTA)
- The Canadian Flight Supplement (CFS).
14
Q
What are dimensions of LLA? (Low Level Airspace)
A
Surface to below 18,000 feet ASL
15
Q
What is a control area extension?
A
controlled airspace of defined dimensions within the low-level airspace extending upwards from 2 200 feet AGL - unless otherwise specified.
16
Q
A TCA and the associated CZ could be classified as what airspace?
A
Class B, C, or D airspace.
* No Class B TCA in Canada at this time.
* Class E is generally for less busy airspaces
17
Q
In what airspace is a transponder mandatory?
A
All Class A, B and C airspace require a
transponder and as specified in the
Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH).
* Class D and E airspace MAY require a transponder
18
Q
Can you operate in transponder airspace without a mode C if ATC provides a service?
A
Yes, only if approval was requested in advance of entering the airspace and aviation safety is not likely to be affected.
* This approval may be given to allow an aircraft with transponder failure to proceed to a maintenance facility.
19
Q
Define class G airspace
A
- Surface up to but not including 18,000 ft ASL
- Uncontrolled - use uncontrolled weather minima
- Pilots broadcast en route on 126.7 MHz and conduct their own traffic separation
- Class G is 99% of Canadian Airspace.
20
Q
Define class F airspace
A
CYA = Advisory airspace. Avoid if possible (if enter, take extra vigilence).
* Look up details in DAH
* Unless otherwise specified, use 126.7 MHz.
* Broadcast like in an uncontrolled area
CYR = restricted airspace.
Need advance permission to enter, NOTAM’d.
*Forest Fires are CYR.
CYD = danger. Avoid
21
Q
Define each of the class f symbols
(A)
(F)
(H)
(M)
(P)
(S)
(T)
A
(A) Aerobatics
(F) Aircraft test area
(H) Hang gliding
(M) Military
(P) Parachute dropping
(S) Soaring
(T) Training
22
Q
How far from a forest fire must you stay away at minimum?
A
5 nm and 3,000 ft AGL, unless otherwise stated by a NOTAM
23
Q
Define class E airspace
A
- Controlled, but not busy (generally no tower)
–>Address “Radio” during operating hours, otherwise broadcast to “Traffic” - VFR aircraft advise ATC of intentions, not request.
- Must use controlled airspace weather minimums (3 miles, 500’, 1 mile). Can request SVFR (only needed if taking off/landing, not transiting through)
24
Q
What type of stations are commonly associated with class E control zones?
A
- FSS - flight service station
- RCO - remote communication outlet
- AAS - aerodrome advisory service
- RAAS - remote aerodrome advisory service
- CARS - community aerodrome radio station
- UNICOM - universal communication
25
When ATC is not in operation in class c or d airspace, what class does it become? Is it still controlled? What about weather minima?
Class D or C airspace will change to class E airspace when the appropriate ATC unit is not in operation.
* yes it is still controlled airspace and you still need to maintain vfr weather minimums for a CZ
* Use ATF (aerodrome traffic frequency) or MF (mandatory frequency) procedures, as appropriate to the location.
26
Define class D airspace
* VFR needs ATC acknowledgement to enter (NOT a clearance)
> Make call 15 nm from airport (at least 5 min from cz boundary)
* ATC provides:
> traffic information.
> conflict resolution between VFR and IFR, and between VFR upon request (equipment and workload permitting).
> runway separation.
* Aircraft must be equipped with:
- radio capable of two-way communication with ATC
- If required, transponder and automatic pressure-altitude reporting equipment
27
Can you fly NORDO in class D?
Must have prior approval by ATC. Must be daylight hours in VMC.
28
Define class C airspace
* VFR requires ATC clearance to enter.
> Make call 15 nm from airport (at least 5 min from cz boundary)
* ATC provides:
> Conflict resolution between VFR and IFR, and between VFR upon request.
> Traffic information.
> Runway separation.
Aircraft must be equipped with:
* radio capable of two-way communication with ATC.
* Mode C transponder and automatic pressure-altitude equipment
29
Can you fly NORDO into class C airspace? (no radio/no transponder?)
Must have prior approval by ATC. Must be daylight hours in VMC.
30
Define Class B airspace
* ATC service to IFR and to Control VFR (CVFR) aircraft.
* All low level controlled airspace >12,500' ASL - 18,000' ASL.
* None in Canada
31
What is a low level Airway?
What are the 3 types?
* Controlled low-level airspace extends 2,200' - 18,000' ASL.
* Continuously monitor 126.7 MHz when not communicating on a MF or ATF.
* Controlled airspace weather minimums apply.
T-route
LF/MF
VHF/UHF
32
What is a low level air route?
* 0' AGL - 18,000' ASL
* Within Class G airspace.
Look like this below..
— * — * — * — * —
33
Can you refuel an aircraft while an engine of the aircraft is running and passengers are on board the aircraft or are embarking or disembarking?
Yes, if in COM and proper CARS are followed (703,704,705)
34
What are some examples of critical surfaces?
* Control surfaces
* Rotors
* Horizontal and vertical stabilizers / any other stabilizing surface
* Upper area of the fuselage containing jet engine
35
No person shall over fly a built-up area or an open-air assembly of persons, unless
1000' over highest obstacle
It is a takeoff, landing, or approach
36
What is the built-up area minimum distance and altitudes for a helicopter?
What about non built up areas?
Height above national parks?
1,000' above highest obstacle, 500' horizontally
500' from person, vessel, vehicle, structure
2,000' AGL
37
An aircraft may fly below permissible low altitude if..?
* During Police Operation
* To Save a Human Life
* Fire-fighting or Air Ambulance Operations
* For the purpose of Flight Inspection
* An Aerial Application
* Helicopters - external load operations
* Flight training conducted by or under the supervision of a qualified flight instructor.
38
What is an ATC clearance?
* Authorization to proceed with a certain action.
* Accept/acknowledge a clearance by stating call sign.
* If unable to perform clearance, state "Unable" and short reason why (e.g. "unable VFR 2000", "unable, traffic")
* If requested, read back.
> examples of clearances/instructions that may be read back:
1. Clearance or instruction to enter, land on, take off from, hold short, cross or backtrack on any runway
2. Route clearances
3. The runway in use, altimeter settings, level/heading/speed instructions
4. Transponder codes
39
What is an ATC instruction?
* A directive.
* Must read back all HOLD SHORT instructions and hold short where you are supposed to.
* If requested, read back.
> examples of clearances/instructions that may be read back:
1. Clearance or instruction to enter, land on, take off from, hold short, cross or backtrack on any runway
2. Route clearances
3. The runway in use, altimeter settings, level/heading/speed instructions
4. Transponder codes
40
Cruising altitudes are based on what track and altitudes?
NDA - true track
SDA - magnetic track
Start at 3,000 ft AGL
0-179: odd thousands plus 500 VFR
180-359: even thousands plus 500 VFR
41
What is the standard pressure region?
* Includes the Northern Domestic Airspace and all airspace >18,000' ASL (aka High Level Airspace).
* Set altimeter to 29.92 in.Hg for cruise flight.
* Pilots MUST reset altimeter AFTER entering and BEFORE leaving the SPR.
* When climbing into the Standard Pressure Region from an airport, change the altimeter immediately prior to reaching desired flight level.
42
What is the altimeter setting region?
* Includes the Southern Domestic Airspace <18,000' ASL.
* Set altimeter to the current altimeter setting or to elevation of the airport before taking off.
* In cruise, set altimeter to the nearest station along route. When approaching an airport to land, set to the current setting of that airport.
43
What is “flight time"?
* Flight Time starts as soon as the engine is on, for purpose of a flight.
* Ends once engine is off
* Recorded in your Pilot Logbook.
44
What is "air time"?
* Air Time starts when airborne, stops when skids down.
* Recorded in the aircraft’s Journey Logbook.
45
What equipment MUST be on board for power driven aircraft?
(a) a checklist or placards
(b) all necessary current aeronautical charts and publications
(c) hand-held fire extinguisher in the cockpit
(d) timepiece
(e) flashlight
(f) a first aid kit.
46
When do you need to carry life preservers?
How do they need to be stowed?
What is the distance for a single/multi engine helicopter from shore?
What are the exceptions?
Must carry life preservers if operating farther than gliding distance to shore, or >50 nm from shore
47
When do you need to file a flight plan or itinerary?
What is one of the main reasons to file a plan?
Flight plan: If flying through ADIZ, across a border, through CZ, or flights >25 nm.
Itinerary: any time conducting a flight (COM)
for SAR
48
Who do you file a flight plan/itinerary with?
When does a SAR commence on both?
FSS, Company responsible person
SAR 24hrs after ETA on itinerary, or 1hr after ETA on flight plan
49
When do you close a flight plan and where?
Call FSS, close as soon as flight is complete
50
What do you need to do if you divert from an aerodrome of intended landing?
Why do you inform them?
Update flight plan/itinerary. Inform as soon as possible.
51
What is an MF area?
Will there be a ground station on site
Mandatory Frequency
Sometimes, not always
(Broadcast, if not)
52
What letter on the VNC or VTA is used for an MF area?
M
53
NORDO operation procedure in MF area?
54
How do you address the ground in an MF area? ATF area? Unicom area?
M, A, U
Unicom = talking to someone untrained
ATF (and sometimes MF) = talking to someone NAVCANADA trained
MF = sometimes talking to someone, sometimes uncontrolled
55
Frequency of uncontrolled aerodromes with no MF or ATF?
123.2
56
112.1R frequency, what does the R mean?
What if it was a T?
What does (V) mean? (U)? (E)?
R = facility will only receive
T = facility will only transmit
Emergency frequency:
(V) = 121.5
(U) = 243.0
(E) = 121.5 and 243.0
57
Weather minima for SVFR?
Obstacle clearance built up area and non built up area?
1/2 sm, clear of cloud
Not sure if SVFR impacts minimum altitudes?
58
Uncontrolled airspace weather minima >1,000' AGL?
1 sm, 500' vertically/2000' horizontally from cloud
59
Uncontrolled airspace <1,000' AGL minima?
1 sm, clear of cloud
60
Communication failure - VFR: what should you check to fix?
- what to do?
- Check radio volume is up and on the correct FM knob setting.
- Set radio to UNICOM or 122.8, then back to ATF
- Try contacting another nearby ATC
If nothing works:
1. Squawk 7600
2. Contact ATS by phone, when safe
3. Try contacting another pilot on 126.7, 122.8 or UNICOM
4. Land at nearest uncontrolled airport using NORDO procedures
61
What is the emergency frequency?
121.5
62
What should you do if you’re intercepted?
What frequency should you use to communicate?
121.5
State call sign, position, nature of flight
63
What is an ADIZ?
Entry procedures?
Operating in ADIZ procedures?
Flying through an ADIZ?
Air Defence Identification Zone
ENTRY:
- Fild defence flight plan
- After takeoff, provide position report to ATC or FSS
- Report 15 min before entry
- Must cross within 20 nm and 5 min specified in flight plan
- Must have transponder and radio
OPERATING IN
- File defense flight plan
- Transponder and radio
TRANSITING THROUGH
- File defense flight plan
- Transponder and radio
- Must provide entry point/time (no exit point/time, only position reports with ATC)
64
What is a recurring defect?
What is the procedure?
Failure that has occurred at least 3 times within 15 flights.
Maintenance Manager will remove it from service to repair
65
Can you take off in an aircraft that has removed or unserviceable equipment?
No
66
What do you do if defect happens during flight? Where do you record it?
Land or continue flight as required. Get maintenance if needed. Write in logbook.
67
Reportable aviation accident criteria?
- Person is seriously injured or killed as a result of aircraft
- Aircraft sustains structural failure or damage
- Aircraft is missing
- unintensional release of sling load, emergency (smoke, engine failure, etc) for aircraft > 4960lbs max takeoff weight
68
What is an FIC?
What are the 7 regions?
What are the main FISE frequencies?
Flight information Center
Kamloops: 1-866-541-4101
Edmonton: 1-866-541-4102
London: 1-866-541-4104
Québec: 1-866-541-4105
123.275, 123.375, 123.475, and 123.55 MHz
69
What is a DRCO?
How do you activate it?
Where can you find the frequency?
Dial-up Remote Communications Outlet
FISE but equipped with commercial telephone line
70
VFR en route frequency is _____ MhZ
126.7
71
VFR position report format?
Who are you calling?
Who are you?
Where are you? (5 miles west of XXX at XXX ft)
Where are you going?
72
When the reported ceiling is 1,000 feet overcast and visibility is 3 miles, to remain VFR an aircraft cleared to the circuit must?
Fly the circuit at 500'
73
ATC clearance but approach is not clear of traffic?
Clear of traffic but no clearance to land?
ATC is vectoring towards an unbroken cloud layer?
Concerns about high cross-wind
"Unable, traffic"
Continue to threshold, if no clearance, go around
"Unable to maintain VFR at 2000' "
"Unable, crosswind, requesting into wind runway"
74
An aircraft is required to enter a control towered airport’s traffic pattern at the altitude
at circuit height indicated in the CFS
75
What aircraft and personal documents must you have to fly?
- Crew licenses (Radio Operator, License, Medical)
- C of A
- C of R
- Insurance
- Radio License
- Weight and Balance report
- Journey logbook
- Interception instructions
- CFS, maps, charts, COM
76
When would the weight and balance report expire?
When it is ammended or appended
77
Aircraft high intensity ____ ____ should not be used on taxiways as they adversely affect ground personnel or other pilots.
* Also strobes should not be used in flight when there are adverse reflection from ____.
Anti-collision
Snow/fog
78
When can you test an ELT?
How often are ELTs required to have operational test done?
First 5 min of any hour UTC
Every 30 days
79
What to do if ELT becomes unserviceable?
Aircraft may be operated according to approved
minimum equipment list (MEL).
- If no MEL has been approved, the aircraft may be operated for up
to 30 days
80
An air operator shall provide a flight crew member with time to eat and to drink for at least _____ minutes every _____ hours within a flight duty period.
15, 6
81
When does flight duty time begin?
30 min before flight
82
Radio calls in controlled airspace:
What is the general structure of each radio call? (5 Ws)
Who you're talking to
Who you are
Where you are
What is your request/intension
With what information
83
How to respond to traffic separation report from ATC
If traffic is nearby, report visual no conflict
If traffic is in area only (different direction, too far away), check traffic
Always give fixed wing traffic right of way if they are on final, unless they are 10+ miles away. Fly clear of the active and come in second.
84
702 max flight time restrictions
60/7
120/30
300/90
1200/365
85
703 max flight time restrictions
112/28
300/90
1000/365
