Air law Flashcards

0
Q

What is AIP?

A

Aeronautical Information Publication

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1
Q

What does CAO stand for?

A

Civil Aviation Order

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2
Q

What are CARs?

A

Civil Aviation Regulations

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3
Q

What is a CAAP?

A

Civil Aviation Advisory Publication

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4
Q

What does ERSA stand for?

A

En-route Supplement Australia

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5
Q

What is an SPL and its requirements?

A

Student Pilot License; 16years of age, fit and proper person, understand English

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6
Q

What does an SPL permit you to do?

A

Fly solo if authorised by an instructor and operate the radio in flight

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7
Q

What are the requirements for solo flight..

A

Completion of dual training syllabus and requirements of radio telephone operator

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8
Q

What are the rules for drugs and alcohol?

A

Must not impair the pilot’s ability to command the aircraft, no alcohol within 8 hours and no drinking while flying in command.

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9
Q

At what times is smoking banned?

A

Takeoff, landing and refuelling

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10
Q

What are the separation requirements at takeoff?

A

Preceding aircraft must have commenced a turn or passed the upwind end of the runway, or

if the runway is longer than 1800m, be 1800m ahead of your takeoff point, or

if both aircraft have MTOW<2000kg, departing aircraft is airborne, at least 600m ahead of your takeoff point, or

A landing aircraft has vacated the runway, or

An aircraft landing on another runway has crossed your runway or is holding short.

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11
Q

What document can specify a circuit height other than 1000ft?

A

ERSA

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12
Q

What documents can override a requirement that circuits be to the left?

A

ERSA or private directions, (e.g. Lilydale)

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13
Q

When can you turn opposite to the circuit direction at a licensed airport?

A

Upwind 3nm or 1500ft

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14
Q

A white cross marker means what?

A

Total uncervicability if placed in the aerodrome’s signal circle or partial unserviceability of a particular area denoted by red and white cones.

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15
Q

What marker indicates that gliding operations are in progress?

A

Double white cross

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16
Q

What does a white dumbell marker denote?

A

Operations are restricted to hard surfaces only

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17
Q

What marker indicates the start of the LDA?

A

Piano keys (longitudinal parallel white lines)

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18
Q

How would you know about a perminently displaced threshold?

A

Arrows pointing to the piano keys.

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19
Q

How is a temporarily displaced threshold denoted?

A

______________

^^^^^^^^^^^^

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20
Q

A thick yellow line in front of a dotted yellow line shows what?

A

Holding point

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21
Q

Gable markers show what?

A

The runway strip.

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22
Q

When two aircraft are on converging courses, who gives way?

A

The one for whom the other aircraft is on its right

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23
Q

In a head on converging course, what action should occur?

A

Both must alter heading to the right

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24
Q

When one aircraft is on the ground and another is on final, who gives way?

A

The aircraft on the ground

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25
Q

When overtaking a slower aircraft, which side is used? Who gives way?

A

The right and the overtaking aircraft

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26
Q

When two aircraft are on final, who gives way?

A

The higher aircraft

27
Q

Who has right of way? Powered or unpowered aircraft?

A

Unpowered

28
Q

Who has right of way? Heavier than air or lighter than air aircraft?

A

Lighter than air; balloons and airships

29
Q

Before takeoff, the altimeter is adjusted so it reads zero at what pressure?

A

QNH

30
Q

When can a student fly solo beyond the circuit?

A

After 2 hours of solo circuits

31
Q

How much solo flying is permitted between dual flights as a student?

A

3hours

32
Q

After the GFPT test, how many solo hours are permitted between dual checks?

A

15 hours

33
Q

To fly solo, how recently must a student have flown?

A

30 days before GFPT or 90 days thereafter

34
Q

When and where can a student take a passenger?

A

After GFPT, in training area and when not conducting emergency procedures

35
Q

What checks are a pilot responsible for?

A

Full free and correct control movement before takeoff
Security of hatches and harnesses before taxiing
Fuel system inspection before first flight of day and after refuelling

36
Q

What are the minimum fuel requirements?

A

Enough for flight + 15% of flight fuel + 45 minutes reserve at cruise fuel flow

37
Q

What conditions are imposed on aerobatics?

A

VMC during the day
In an aircraft approved for aerobatics
Not below 3000ft AGL
Not over a populated area

38
Q

What is VMC?

A

Visual Meteorological Conditions

39
Q

What are VMC cloud and visibility separation rules below 10,000ft AMSL?

A

1000ft vertical from cloud,
1500m horizontal from cloud,
5000m visability

40
Q

In class G airspace what are visibility and cloud separation rules at low level?

A

Below 3000 ft AMSL or 1000 ft AGL (whichever is higher) you must be clear of cloud and have 5000m visibility

41
Q

Above 5000ft AGL what altitudes should you fly?

A
Tracking east (000-179 magnetic). ODD thousands + 500ft
Tracking west (180-359 magnetic). EVEN thousands + 500ft
42
Q

An aircraft at 7500ft flying hemispherically is flying at:
A) 300 magnetic, or
B) 100 magnetic

A

B

43
Q

What is the latest time you may land?

A

10m before last light (or 30m at Lilydale for solo students)

44
Q

What are minimum height requirements?

A

1000ft over populated areas or 500ft elsewhere, except due to stress of weather

45
Q

What are the rules for passengers in a dual control aircraft?

A

Must be instructed not to interfere with controls. Must be able to hear and communicate with pinlot at all times.

46
Q

When may two children occupy one seat?

A

Combined weight below 77kg,
they are side by side
Secured by a lap strap only

47
Q

An infant (under 3yo) can be carried in what way?

A

Seatbelt is secured around passenger not the infant if on lap or in arms, or
In arestrained bassinet

48
Q

When must passengers wear a seat belt?

A

During takeoff and landing, below 100ftAGL and in turbulence

49
Q

What rules apply to location and circumstances of refueling?

A
At least 5m from a sealed buildings
9m from unsealed buildings
6m from another aircraft
15m from a public area
Able to be moved rapidly away from a fixed bowser
Have no passengers aboard
50
Q

What is a PRD and what are the rules for a PRD?

A

Prohibited, Restricted or Danger area:
You may fly through danger areas but keep a good lookout
You may never transit a Prohibited area
Restricted areas require a clearance

51
Q

Where are PRDs identified?

A

ERSA, marked on VTC, VNC, ERCs

52
Q

How is ‘accident’ defined?

A

A person suffering death or injury
Substantial or structural aircraft damage
Missing or inaccessible aircraft

53
Q

What reporting rules apply to accidents?

A

Report to ATSB immediately, followed by a written report as soon as practicable

54
Q

How is ‘incident’ defined and what are the reporting rules?

A

Anything other than an accident that could affect the safe operation of the aircraft.
It must be reportedvto ATSB in writing within 48hours

55
Q

Under what circumstances can an aircraft be flown whose maintenance has passed the validity period but the maintenance deadline has not passed.

A

No circumstances

56
Q

Which of the following must be included in the passenger briefing? Harnesses
Exits
Smoking

A

All but exits

57
Q

What is the format of the date field in an ARFOR?

A

US (mmdd)

58
Q

In an ARFOR the two numbers xxx/yyy indicate what?

A

Height range AMSL in feet

59
Q

Is it legal to fly with a faulty pitch meter?

A

Yes

60
Q

When must a single pilot wear a seatbelt?

A

At all times

61
Q

What is a red line on a WAC?

A

Any road

62
Q

When refueling, where must closed buildings be in relation to the fuel tank vents?

A

5m

63
Q

What is it that requires 3 takeoffs and landings within a period and what is the period?

A

Carry passengers, 90 days

64
Q

You can take off when a preceding aircraft is 1800m from where?

A

Your takeoff point

65
Q

What is a double white cross showing?

A

Gliding operations in progress