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WELL EXAM > Air Concept > Flashcards

Air Concept Flashcards

1
Q

The Air Concept contains xx features that address design choices and policies.

A

29

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2
Q

The first xx features are predominantly preconditions, except for one optimization for New and Existing Interiors in Feature 08.

A

12

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3
Q

Set of symptoms, such as headaches, fatigue, eye irritation, and breathing difficulties, believed to be caused by indoor pollutants and poor environmental control that typically affects workers in modern airtight office building

A

Sick building syndrome (SBS)

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4
Q

Known as demand controlled ventilation, is ventila-tion provided by mechanically powered equipment, such as motor-driven fans and blowers, but not by devices such as wind-driven turbine ventilators and mechanically operated windows.

A

Mechanical ventilation

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5
Q

Can be vectors for mold growth and can easily spread contaminants such as dust.

A

Mechanical ventilation systems

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6
Q

Movement of air into and out of a space primarily through intentionally provided openings (such as windows and doors), through nonpowered ventilators, or by in filtration.

A

Natural ventilation

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7
Q

Can easily allow the infiltration of humidity and air pollution, such as tobacco smoke and outdoor chemicals

A

Natural ventilation systems

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8
Q

Feature 01, Air Quality Standards, is a precondition for

A

all three project types that limits the levels of indoor air pollutants.

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9
Q

The levels of volatile organic compounds (VOCs) in an indoor environment can be xx times higher than outdoor levels

A

Five

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10
Q

The release of chemicals or particulates into the air from substances and solvents used in the manufacture of a building product.

A

Off-gassing

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11
Q

A colorless gas compound that is used for manufacturing melamine and phenolic resins, fertilizers, dyes, and embalming fluids

A

Formaldehyde

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12
Q

Air Concept Part 1a requires that a project limit the levels of formaldehyde in the air to

A

less than 27 parts per billion (ppb).

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13
Q

Contains carbon and hydrogen that evaporates and diffuses easily at ambi-ent temperature and is emitted by a wide array of building materials, paints, wood preservatives, and other common consumer products.

A

volatile organic compound (VOC)

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14
Q

Air Concept Part 1b requires that a project limit the levels of VOCs in the air to

A

less than 500 micrograms per cubic meter (µg/m3).

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15
Q

A colorless, odorless, and highly poisonous gas formed by incomplete combustion. It replaces oxy-gen in hemoglobin, which limits the ability of blood to deliver oxygen and can lead to death.

A

Carbon monoxide

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16
Q

Part 2a requires that a project limit CO levels to

A

To less than 9 parts per million (ppm).

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17
Q

Complex mixture of elemental and organic carbon, salts, mineral and metal dust, ammonia, and water that co-agulate together into tiny solids and globule

A

Particulate matter

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18
Q

Particulate matter larger than 2.5 micrometers (µm) and smaller than 10 µm in diameter.

A

coarse particle (PM10)

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19
Q

Particulate matter 2.5 µm or smaller in di-ameter.

A

fine particle (PM2.5 )

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20
Q

Part 2b requires that a project limit PM2.5 levels in the air

A

to less than 15 µg/m3.

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21
Q

Part 2c requires that a project limit PM10 levels in the air to

A

less than 50 µg/m3

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22
Q

Triatomic form of oxygen that is hazardous to the respiratory system at ground level. It can be released into the air by photocopiers, printers, and air cleaners.

A

Ozone

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23
Q

Part 2d requires that a project limit the ozone level in the indoor air to

A

less than 51 ppb.

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24
Q

Radioactive, carcinogenic noble gas generated from the decay of natural deposits of uranium.

A

Radon

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25
Q

Part 3 requires that a project limit the radon levels at its ____ level to _____

A

lowest occupied levelless than 0.148 Bq/L (4 pCi/L)

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26
Q

Feature 2 Part 1 Indoor Smoking Ban

A

No smoking within the building

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27
Q

Part 2: Outdoor Smoking Ban of Feature 02 requires the placement of signs that indicate a smoking ban near entrances and in specific exterior spaces. These signs must indicate that smoking is banned within

A

within 7.5 m (25′) of all entrances, operable windows, and building air intakes.

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28
Q

Part 2 also requires signs that educate oc-cupants about the hazards of smoking in the specific areas where smoking is allowed (beyond the 7.5 m [25′] distance). These signs should be

A

placed on all walkways within the area in intervals of 30 m (100′) at the mos

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29
Q

Part 1: Ventilation Design of Feature 03 uses which standard?

A

ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2013, Ventilation for Acceptable Indoor Air Quality

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30
Q

Part 1a requires that the ventilation rates for mechanically ventilated projects meet the

A

Ventilation Rate Proce-dure or IAQ Procedure within ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2013.

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31
Q

Part 1b requires naturally ventilated projects to comply with

A

ASHRAE Standard 62.1-2013 and

National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) set forth by the U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA)

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32
Q

Projects are required to demonstrate that the air surrounding the building for a distance of?

A

1.6 km (1 mile)
either complies with the NAAQS or passes the requirements of Feature 01, Air Quality Standards, for at least 95% of all hours in the previous year.

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33
Q

Demand Controlled Ventilation of Feature 03 applies to any occupied spaces in the building that are

A

46.5 m2 (500 ft2) or larger and have an actual or expected occupant density of 25 people per 93 m2 (1000 ft2)

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34
Q

Feature 3 Part 2 requires that demand controlled ventilation system regulates outdoor air to keep CO2 levels to _____ measured at ______

A

to below 800 ppm (measured at 1.2 m to 1.8 m [4′ to 6′] above the floor).

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35
Q

Typically, outside air has CO2 levels of

A

300 ppm to 400 ppm

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36
Q

System Balancing of Feature 03 requires that all HVAC systems (within the last xx years) undergo or be scheduled to undergo testing and balancing after the substantial completion but before occupancy of a project.

A

Five

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37
Q

The five parts of this feature cover VOC reduction requirements for

A 
interior paints and coatings, 
interior adhesives and sealants, 
flooring, 
insulation, and 
furniture and furnishings
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38
Q

Feature 4 VOC Reduction. Part 1: Interior Paints and Coatings requires that VOCs from newly applied interior paints and coatings be limited. Projects must meet one of the following requirements for paints and coatings:

A

All (100%) of the installed products must either meet California Air Resources Board (CARB) 2007, Suggested Con-trol Measure (SCM) for Architectural Coatings, or South Coast Air Quality Management District (SCAQMD) Rule 1113 for their VOC content.

At a minimum, 90%, by volume, of the paints and coatings must meet California Department of Public Health (CDHP) Standard Method v1.1-2010 for their VOC emissions

Must meet applicable national VOC regulations or testing of VOC content must be performed in accordance with ASTM D2369-10; ISO 11890, part 1; ASTM D6886-03; or ISO 11890-2.

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39
Q

Feature 4 VOC Reduction Part 2: Interior Adhesives and Sealants requires projects must meet one of the following requirements for adhesives and sealants

A

All (100%) of the installed products must meet SCAQMD Rule 1168 for their VOC content.

At a minimum, 90%, by volume, of the adhesives and sealants must meet CDHP Standard Method v1.1-2010 for their VOC emissions.

The adhesives and sealants must meet applicable national VOC regulations or testing of VOC content must be performed in accordance with ASTM D2369-10; ISO 11890, part 1; ASTM D6886-03; or ISO 11890-2.

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40
Q

Feature 4 VOC Reduction Part 3: Flooring requires that the VOC content of newly installed flooring be limited. Projects must limit the VOC content of all newly installed interior floors in accordance with

A

CDPH Standard Method v1.1-2010

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41
Q

Feature 4 VOC Reduction. Part 4: Insulation requires that the VOC content of newly installed interior thermal (excluding duct) and acoustic in-sulation be limited. Projects must limit the VOC content of all newly installed insula-tion in accordance with

A

CDPH Standard Method v1.1-2010.

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42
Q

Feature 4 VOC Reduction. Part 5: Furniture and Furnishings requires that the VOC content of newly purchased interior furniture and furnishings within the scope of the project be limited. Projects must limit the VOC content of at

A

at least 95%, by cost, of all newly purchased furniture and furnishings per ANSI/BIFMA e3-2011 Furniture Sustainability Standard, sections 7.6.1 and 7.6.62, when tested in accordance with ANSI/BIFMA Standard Method M7.1-2011. Alternatively, the furniture and furnishings may meet CDPH Standard Method v1.1-2010.

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43
Q

Feature 05, Air Filtration, is a precondition for

A

for all three project types

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44
Q

A value assigned to an air filter that describes the amount of different types of particles removed when the filter is operating at the least effective point in its life

A

Minimum efficiency reporting value (MERV)

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45
Q

The higher the MERV number,

A

the greater the air filter performance

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46
Q

Part 1: Filter Accommodation of Feature 05 applies to projects in which recirculated air is used. Projects must have?

A

1) rack space available and identify rack locations for future implementation of carbon filters or combination particle/carbon filters in the main air ducts.
2) Also, the mechanical system must be sized to accommodate additional filters

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47
Q

Part 2: Particle Filtration of Feature 05 requires that a project meet …

A

MERV 13 filters (at a minimum) in HVAC systems for filtering outdoor air.

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48
Q

Part 2b requires that a project demonstrate that the levels of particulate matter in the air surrounding the project site for _____ km for at least ____ %?

A

for 1.6 km (1 mile) meet the standards set in Feature 01, Air Quality Standards, for at least 95% of all hours for the last calendar year

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49
Q

Part 3: Air Filtration Maintenance of Feature 05 requires that the project _____ submit records of proper air filtration maintenance to the International WELL Building Institute (IWBI). Filters must be maintained as specified by the manufacturer’s recommendations

A

Annually

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50
Q

Thrives in constantly wet environments

A

Mold

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51
Q

Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control, is a precondition for

A

for all three project types

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52
Q

Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control. Part 1: Cooling Coil Mold Reduction applies to buildings that use mechanical HVAC and require the use of

A

UVGI - ultraviolet germicidal irradiation devices, such as ultraviolet lamps, to control the growth of mold on cooling coils and drain pans.

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53
Q

A sterilization method that uses ultraviolet (UV) light to break down microorganisms by destroying their DNA

A

Ultraviolet germicidal irradia-tion (UVGI)

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54
Q

In order to prevent the generation of ozone, the wavelength of the UV lamps must be

A

254 nanometers (nm).

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55
Q

Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control. Part 1b requires that a building’s HVAC system be inspected for mold growth on a xx basis

A

Quarterly

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56
Q

If mold growth is found

A

HVAC system must be cleaned

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57
Q

Dated photographic evidence of the moldinspection must be submitted to IWBI every

A

Every year for review

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58
Q

Feature 06, Microbe and Mold Control. Part 2: Mold Inspections require that a mold inspection be performed in what form?

A

visually. The building must be inspected for:

discoloration and mold on the ceilings, walls, and floors

as well as for signs of water damage and pooling

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59
Q

Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management, is a precondition for

A

for all three project types

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60
Q

Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management. Part 1: Duct Protection requires protective measures to prevent construction debris from entering the ventilation system. Per Part 1a, all newly installed ductwork are either:

A

Sealed and protected from contaminants

Vacuumed out prior to installing registers, grills, and diffusers.

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61
Q

If those proper preventive protection measures are not used, Part 1b requires that the ductwork be thoroughly cleaned before ____?

A

be thoroughly cleaned before the registers, grilles, and diffusers are installed

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62
Q

If a project’s HVAC system runs during construction that occurs within one year before performance verification, Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management. Part 2: Filter Replacement requires

A

that the air filters be replaced with clean filters before occupancy

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63
Q

Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management. Part 3 Moisture Absorption addresses the need to prevent certain materials and products from absorbing water of a building that occurs within..

What’s the solution?

A

…. within one year before performance verification

Separate area be designated to store and protect absorptive materials or products.

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64
Q

Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management. Part 4: Dust Containment addresses the containment or capture of dust and debris during

A

during construction that occurs within one year before performance verification.

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65
Q

Feature 07, Construction Pollution Management. Part 4: Dust Containment and Removal Requirements (List 3)

A

1) physical separation of active construction spaces from other spaces through the sealing of openings or installation of temporary barriers.
2) installation of walk-off mats at entryways to reduce the dust, dirt, and other pollutants that may be spread on the soles of shoes or on the wheels of carts or dollies.
3) saws and other power tools must have guards or collectors to capture any generated dust or debris.

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66
Q

Feature 08, Healthy Entrance, is a pre-condition for

A

Core and Shell and New and Existing Buildings project types

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67
Q

Feature 08, Healthy Entrance, is an optimization for

A

New and Existing Buildings

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68
Q

Feature 08, Healthy Entrance requires project team implement one of 3 strategies. What are these?

What are the guidelines?

A
  • Permanent entryway system comprising grilles, grates, or slots
  • Rollout mats
  • Material manufacture as an entryway walk-off system

Must be maintained on a weekly basis. Strategy must be as wide as the entrance width and at least 3m (10’) long in the primary direction of travel (sum of indoor and outdoor length)

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69
Q

Feature 8 Healthy Entrance Part 2: Entryway Air Seal limits outdoor air to indoor area. It requires 3 strategies.

What are these?

A
  • Building entry vestibule with two normally closed doorways
  • Revolving entrance doors
  • At least 3 normally shut doors that separate occupied spaces from outdoor spaces
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70
Q

Feature 9: Cleaning Protocols

A

Precondition for NEI and NEB

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71
Q

An infectious biological agent such as bacterium, virus, or fungus capable of causing disease

A

Pathogen

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72
Q

Environmental substance that can produce allergies (remember: pollens

A

Allergens

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73
Q

Feature 9: Cleaning Protocol. Part 1: Cleaning Plan for Occupied Spaces requires plan created to reduce pathogens, allergens, etc. Must contain the ff:

A
  • Part 1a: requires cleaning plan include Cleaning Equipment and Training Section of Table A4 in Appendix C of WELL
  • Part 1b: include a list of approved product seals with which all cleaning products must comply with Cleaning, Disinfection and Hand Hygiene Product section Table A4 in Appendix C
  • Part 1c: include a list of high touch surfaces and schedule of sanitation or disinfection
  • Part 1d: include cleaning schedule that specified extent and frequency of cleaning
  • Part 1e: required dated, maintained cleaning logs to be available to all occupants
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74
Q

A surface frequently touched by building users and occupants ie door handles, light switches, etc

A

High touch surface

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75
Q

Feature 10: Pesticide Management

A

Precondition for C&S and NEB

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76
Q

A chemical used to destroy, repel or control plants and animals

A

Pesticide

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77
Q

Feature 10 Pesticide Management Part 1: Pesticide Use requires elimination of …

A

… pesticide or herbicide use on outdoor plants. It requires

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78
Q

After elimination of pesticide, what does Feature 10 Pesticide Management Part 1a requires?

A

Requires creation of pest management plan in place of pesticide or herbicide use

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79
Q

Pest Management PLan should be based on?

A

Should be based on Chapter 3 of San Francisco Environment Code Integrated Pest Management (IPM) program

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80
Q

Feature 10: Pesticide Management Part 1b requires pesticides that are what tier ranking?

A

Pesticides with a hazard tier ranking of 3 (least hazardous) be used on project site. As per TableA2 in Appendix C of WELL

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81
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety is a precondition for?

A

All 3 project types

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82
Q

Naturally occurring metal found deep within ground that was used in plumbing, lighting etc.

A

Lead

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83
Q

Naturally occurring mineral used in insulation because of its properties. Found in fireproofing materials, gaskets, floor and ceiling tiles, and roofing felt

A

Asbestos

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84
Q

Compound present in products before the 1979 PCB ban. Can be found in electrical equipment and fluorescent lights

A

PCB or polychlorinated biphenyl

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85
Q

Poisonous metal element that can be found in earth’s surface

A

Mercury

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86
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 1a: Asbestos and Lead Restriction requires what?

A

No asbestos-containing materials installed in the project

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87
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 1b limits amount of lead in plumbing system to be at what percent?

A

Weighted average of 0.25%.

Solder or flux is limited to 0.20%

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88
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 1c limits amount of lead in all other building materials to?

A

no more than 100ppm (by weight)

89
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 2 Lead Abatement applicable for what?

What must be done?

A

…repairs, demolition, of projects that were constructed before banning lead by law

Lead evaluation

90
Q

What guidelines must be followed in evaluating lead?

A

WELL follows US EPA lead standards,

EPA 40 CFR Part 745.65

EPA 40 CFR Part 745.277 and

US CFR Part 1926.62

91
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 2 requires 3 items when inspection for lead.

A

1) presence of lead in paint, dust, soil for residential dwellings or child-occupied facilities
2) all commercial and institutional with lead-based hazard use US EPA 40 CHR
3) future rulings from EPA regarding lead repair, renovation, supersedes US EPA 40 CFR Part 745 for residential and child occupied facilities

92
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 3 Asbestos Abatement applies to?

A

Buildings constructed prior to applicable laws on asbestors

93
Q

How often should an asbestos inspection be?

By an?

A

Every 3 years

Accredited professional per AHERA, and NESHAP

94
Q

What will be the standards used during asbestos inspection?

A

AHERA and NESHAP

  • Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act AHERA Asbestos Model Accreditation Plan MAP
  • NESHAP National Emissions Standards for Hazardous Air Pollutants
95
Q

Who should conduct asbestos inspection

A

Asbestos consultant

96
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 3 Asbestos Abatement Part 3B development update on?

In accordance with which standard?

Must address what?

A

Development update asbestos management plans

In accordance with AHERA.

Must address minimizing asbestos through procedures outlined in Asbestos-Containing Materials in Schools (EPA 40 CFR Part 763)

97
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 3 Asbestos Abatement Part 3C requires post abatement clearance be conducted in accordance with?

A

AHERA and Asbestos Containing Materials in Schools (EPA 40 CFR Part 763)

98
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 4 Polychlorinated Biphenyl Abatement requires a policy in place for future work which are:

A

Conduct evaluation and abatement of materials

…in accordance with US EPA Steps to Safe PCB Abatement Activities.

Conduct removal and safe disposal of PCB containing fluorescent lights in accordance with EPA

99
Q

Feature 11: Fundamental Material Safety Part 5 - Mercury limitation. Projects must comply with 4 strategies which are:

A

1) Thermometers or electrical used do not contain mercury
2) Lamps comply with low mercury limit from Table A5 in Appendix C of WELL. Non compliant lamps must be replaced
3) Only LED exit signs may be used or LEC light emitting capacitor lamps
4) Mercury vapor or probe-start metal halide high intensity discharge (HID) lamps are not used.

100
Q

Feature 12: Moisture Management

A

Precondition for Core and Shell and New and Existing Building

101
Q

When water enters building in the form of leaks due to damaged building envelope. Can also enter through plumbing or damaged HVAC

A

Bulk Water

102
Q

When water enters building through porous building materials and finishes ie concrete, mortar, and insulation

A

Capillary water

103
Q

When water enters building thru water vapor or humidity. Think condensation.

A

Air-transported moisture

104
Q

Infiltration of water vapor through vapor-permeable material such as gypsum board, concrete blocks, and brick

A

Vapor diffusion

105
Q

Feature 12: Moisture management Part 1: Exterior Liquid Water Management requires team develop a narrative addressing infiltration of water from exterior sources.

Narrative should include what?
And must address (4 items)?

A

Narrative should include project location, climate and weather of area.

Narrative must address the ff:

  • Site drainage and irrigation
  • Local water table
  • Building penetration (windows, MEP)
  • Porous building materials connected to exterior sources of water
106
Q

Feature 12: Moisture management Part 2: Interior Liquid Water Management requires a narrative that address the infiltration of water from exterior sources (4 items)

A
  • Plumbing leaks
  • Appliances directly connected to water
  • Porous building mats connected to interior sources of water
  • New building mats that have high “built in” moisture content or have been wetted during construction and brought into the interior
107
Q

Feature 12: Moisture management Part 3: Condensation Management requires narrative on condensation and addresses the ff: (4 items)

A
  • High interior relative humidity levels
  • Air leakage that could wet exposed interior materials through condensation
  • Cooler surfaces ie basements or closets/cabinets on exterior walls
  • Oversized AC units that cycle on and off quickly
108
Q

Feature 12: Moisture management Part 4: Material Selection and Protection describes how moisture-tolerant materials have been selected and/or moisture sensitivea re being protected, considering the ff: (5 items)

A
  • Exposed entryways and glazing
  • Porous cladding materials
  • Finished floors in wet rooms
  • Interior sheathing in wet rooms
  • Sealing and storing of absorptive materials during construction
109
Q

Air Optimization Feature 8: Healthy Entrance optimization for

A

New and Existing Interior

110
Q

Air Concept Feature 13: Air Flush

A

Optimization for all 3 project types

111
Q

Used to remove or reduce airborne contaminants by running ventilation system for extended period

A

Air flushing

112
Q

What temp should be followed during air flushing?

A

Interior temp must be maintained minimum 15 deg cel and no more than 60% relative humidity

113
Q

When to air flush?

A

Can be prior to occupancy or..

Split between before and after occupancy

114
Q

Air Concept Feature 13: Air Flush. Part 1 requires air flush at one of the 2 volumes which are

A

Total volume of outdoor air of 4266 m3 per m2 of floor area

First flush requires outdoor air volume of 1066 m3 per m2 of floor area prior to occupancy,

2nd flush of 3,200sqm post occupancy.

During flush, ventilation must provide at least 0.1 m3 per minute of outdoor air per sqm of floor area.

115
Q

Feature 14: Air Infiltration Management

A

optimization for all 3 project types

116
Q

Feature 14: Air Infiltration Management requires what?

A

Requires building envelope commissioning and plan for action and remediation

117
Q

Air Infiltration Management Pros/Cons?

A

Can reduce indoor Air Quality and

Increase cost of heating

118
Q

Movement of air into a conditioned building space through unwanted void

A

Air infiltration

119
Q

Movement of air OUT of a conditioning building

A

Air exfiltration

120
Q

During warm weather, what happens?

When cold weather?

A

Warm weather: air infiltration can bring humidity
Cold weather: warm air can leak
(Think Car AC)
Both cases create condensation that can damage and create mold

121
Q

Feature 14: Air Infiltration Management. Part 1 Air Leakage Testing requires the ff is performed after ____ to ensure structure is airtight.

Must be in accordance with?

If unacceptable, what must be dune?

A

Performed after substantial building completion but before occupancy

ASHRAE Guideline 0-2005 and National Institute of Building Sciences (NIBS) Guideline 3-2021.

Plan for action should say what needs to be done for unacceptable conditions

122
Q

Feature 15: Increased Ventilation (exceed ASHRAE requirements) optimization for…

A

3 project types.

123
Q

Feature 15: Increased Ventilation requires?

A

Increased supply of outdoor air to improve/optimize indoor air quality

124
Q

Feature 15: Increased Ventilation Part 1: Increased Outdoor Air Supply requires one of the ff is regularly occupied spaces:

A

Outdoor air supply d rates in Part 1a of Feature 1 by 30%

Follow CIBSE AM10 Section 4 to predict room by room air flows will provide effective natural ventilation

125
Q

Feature 16: Humidity Control optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

126
Q

What happens when humidity is low?

A

Dryness and irritation of eyes, throat, mucous membranes

127
Q

What happens when humidity is high?

What happens in increased humidity of 25%

A

Microbial growth such as bacteria and mold.

Can also lead to off-gassing

Emissions of formaldehyde by a factor of 1.8-2.6

128
Q

Feature 16: Humidity Control. Part 1 Relative Humidity requires one of 2 options be implemented. List them.

A
  • Part 1a: requires HVAC have the ability to add or remove moisture to maintain relative humidity within 30% to 50%
  • Part 1b: requiress modeled humidity levels be maintained 30 to 50% in the building for at least 95% of all business hours
129
Q

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation optimization for

A

All 3 project types

130
Q

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation. Part 1: Pollution Isolation and Exhaust applies to?

A

Applies to cleaning and chemical storage units or spaces ie bathroom photocopiers that do not meet low emission standards of Ecologo CCD 035, Blue Angel RALUZ 171 or Green Star

131
Q

Feature 17: Direct Source Ventilation. Part 1: Pollution Isolation and Exhaust requires 2 things:

A

Closed from adjacent spaces with self closing doors

Air i must be expelled out

132
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback optimization for?

A

Optimization for NEI and NEB

133
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring and Feedback requires?

A

Requires monitoring, recording and reporting of data and keep managers and occupants informed

134
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring. Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring requires to measure 2 of the following pollutants in regularly occupied spaces

what interval?

what level?

A

Particle count, carbon dioxide, ozone

no longer than once an hour

1.2 to 1.8 m above floor

135
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring. Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring requires monitor collects data at what level

A

1.2 to 1.8 m above floor

136
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring. Part 1: Indoor Air Monitoring requires monitor collects data on which pollutants? And what level?

A

Particle count (35k counts per m3 [1000 counts per ft3] or particle mass 10 micro grams per m3 or finer

Carbon Dioxide 25pm or finer

Ozone 10ppb or finer

137
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring. Part 2: Air Data Record Keeping requires ____ specifying

what details?
how long are records kept?
if unacceptable, what must be done?

A

written policy

detailed enforcement strategy and record keeping

kept for 3 years

detailed plan for action and remediation of unacceptable conditions

138
Q

Feature 18: Air Quality Monitoring. Part 3: Environmental Measures Display requires ___ be made available

per ____ sqm?

what screen size? 2 items.

what must be shown?

A

real time display of indoor environment parameters

For every 930 sqm (10000 sqft) of occupied space,

at least 15cm x 13xm (5.9 inches x 5.1 inches)

temperature, humidity, and C02 concentration

139
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows optimization for?

A

all 3 project types

140
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows. Part 1: Full Control: requires what?

A

Requires every space has operable windows

To access outdoor air and daylight

141
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows. Part 2 Outdoor Air measurement requires what?

And record what?

A

Data collection system be located within 1.6km (1mi).

Ozone, PM, temperature, humidity
Collect ozone, PM, temperature, humidity

142
Q

Feature 19: Operable Windows. Part 3: Window Operation Management requires what?

A

Requires software in Tenant’s phones or computer to discourage them to open windows when out door air is not healthy.

143
Q

When should tenants not open windows? List 4 instances.

A

When:

o Ozone - 51 ppb
o PM10 - 50 ug/m3
o temp - +- 8 deg celsius from set indoor building temperature
o Humidity - 60% relative humidity

144
Q

Feature 20: Outdoor Air Systems optimization for?

What is it?

A

3 project types

DOAS not attached with heating and cooling systems so air quality and thermal comfort can be independently achieved.

145
Q

An HVAC system that provides 100% outside air to building

A

Dedicated Outdoor Air System

146
Q

Dedicated Outdoor Air System advantages are?

A

Has increased air filtration and energy efficiency

147
Q

Feature 20: Outdoor Air Systems. Part 1: Dedicated Outdoor Air Systems - requires DOAS meet one of either

A

Part 1a: system meets local codes.

Part 1b: if no standards, requires design be reviewed by a mechanical engineer

  • Must check thermal comfort, ventilation rates, system serviceability, and reliability
  • Must review to ensure DOAS comply with ventilation standards of Feature 3 Ventilation Effectiveness
148
Q

Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation optimization for?

A

Optimization for NEI and NEB

149
Q

A ventilation system that introduces low velocity supply air at a low level to displace warmer air

A

Displacement ventilation system

150
Q

Advantages of Displacement Ventilation System

A

Removes pollutants

151
Q

Two types of Displacement Ventilation System

A

Low sidewall air distribution system

Underfloor air distribution UFAD systems

152
Q

Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation. Part 1: Displacement Ventilation Design and Application - project must meet ___ of 2 standards.

What are these?

A

1 of 3

For low sidewall, use ASHRAE RP-949

For UFAD, follow ASHRAE UFAD Guide. Must be installed at a raised floor height to allow for underfloor area to be cleaned

153
Q

Feature 21: Displacement Ventilation. Part 2 System Performance - must meet 2 requirements.

What are these?

A

Computation fluid dynamics CFD analysis must be conducted

75% of regular occupied space must meet ASHRAE Standard 55-2013 Thermal Environmental Conditions for Human Occupancy

154
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

155
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control.

Part 1: Pest Reduction - to reduce pest, requires the ff 3 strategies

A

o Perishable and pet foods must be sealed

o Indoor garbage cans except paper recycling bin less than 113L (30G) must have lids that can be opened without use of hands, or in a cabinet with handle separate from garbage

o Indoor garbage cans except paper recycling bins greater than 113L must have a lid

156
Q

Guidelines for Indoor garbage cans

A

< 113L - garbage cans must have lids that can be opened without hands, or in a cabinet separate from garbage

> 113L must have lids

157
Q

Feature 22: Pest Control. Part 2: Pest Inspection

requires what type of inspection?
and check for what?

A

Visual inspection

Check for signs of infestation by cockroaches, termites or other pests

158
Q

Feature 23: Advanced Air Purification optimization for?

A

all 3 project types

159
Q

Feature 23: Advanced Air Purification. Part 1: Carbon Filtration - requires installation of 2 filters to reduce VOC in buildings which recirculate air use follow 2 methods:

A

Activated carbon filters or combo particulate/carbon filters in main air ducts to filter recirculated air. C

Standalone air purifiers with carbon filters in all regularly occupied spaces

160
Q

Feature 23: Advanced Air Purification. Part 2: Air Sanitization applies to spaces with how many occupants?

A

> 10 occupants

161
Q

Feature 23: Advanced Air Purification. Part 2: Air Sanitization requires the use of either:

A

UVGI must be used to reduce VOC

or Photocatalytic oxidation system

162
Q

Air sanitation system that used UV along with catalyst - titanium or dioxide to break down contaminants

A

Photocatalytic oxidation system

163
Q

Feature 23: Advanced Air Purification. Part 3 Air Quality Maintenance requires filtration system continue to be fully operation, therefore projects must:

A

Records of air filtration/sanitation maintenance be maintained per manufacturers recommendation

Submit record to IWBI yearly

164
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. What’s its goal?

A

Reduce exposure to combustion related air pollution

165
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 1: Appliance and Heater Combustion Ban requires what?

A

Forbids combustion based equipment in regularly occupied spaces ie

fireplaces
stoves
space heaters
ranges 
oven
166
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 2 Low emission combustion sources for devices used more than 200 hrs per year
must meet ___ guidelines rules for pollution from:

Cite 4 sources

A

California’s SCAQMD = south coast air quality management district

  • Internal combustion engines
  • Furnaces
  • Boilers, steam generators, process heaters
  • Water heaters
167
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 3 Engine Exhaust Reduction prohibits what?

A

Prohibits idling vehicles for more than 30 second

168
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 3 Engine Exhaust Reduction requires what?

A

Signage saying idle vehicles for more than 30 seconds is prohibited.

This must be up in pick up, drop off and parking areas

169
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 4 Construction Equipment requires effort to reduce what?

A

Reduce particulate matter in construction occurring within one year prior to performance verification

170
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 4 Construction Equipment applies to?

A

Applies to both nonroad and onroad diesel vehicles

171
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 4 Construction Equipment requires what for Non road diesel vehicle?

A

Must comply with USEPA Tier 4 PM Emission standards or local equivalent.

When delivered to site, can be retrofitted using technology that has EPA or CARB California Air Resources Board approval

172
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 4 Construction Equipment requires what for On road diesel vehicle?

A

Must US EPA 2007 standards for PM or local equivalent

May be retrofitted in line with EPA and CARB

173
Q

Feature 24: Combustion Minimization. Part 4 Construction Equipment requires what for both non road and onroad?

A

Should be operated, loaded, and unloaded away from air intakes and openings of buildings

174
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

175
Q

Chemicals used to make things materials and stick resistant

A

Perfluorinated Compound PFC

176
Q

Chemical found in drapes, furniture, carpets

A

Perfluorinated Compound PFC

177
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction. Part 1 Perfluorinated Compound PFC Limitation requires PFC at what levels?

constitute at least ____% by ___ of a furniture or furnishing

A

At levels equal to or greater than 100ppm in the components

constitute at least 5% by weight

178
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction. Part 2 Flame Retardant Limitation.
Limits retardants such as PBDEs to what level?

A

0.01% 100ppm

179
Q

A chemical bonded with halogen, used in textiles coatings etc to limit spread of fire

A

Halogenated flame retardant

180
Q

Used as flame retardants for plastic, foams, etc.

A

Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs)

181
Q

Polybrominated diphenyl ethers (PBDEs) are found in:

Cite 5.

A

 Window and waterproofing membranes, door and window frames, siding

 Flooring, ceiling tiles, and wall coverings

 Piping and electrical cables

 Duct, pipe, acoustic and thermal insulation

 Furniture, fabrics

182
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction. Part 3 Phtalate (Plasticizers) Limitation. Limits amount to?

Which can be found in?

A

0.01% or 100ppm in the ff

 Flooring carpet
 Wall coverings, blinds, curtains, furniture,
 Pumping pipes and moisture barriers

183
Q

Used to make plastics more flexible and harder

A

Phthalates

184
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction. Part 4 Isocyanate-based Polyurethane Limitation prohibits what?

A

Prohibits use of isocyanate in interior finishes

185
Q

Synthetic resin used in paints and varnishes

A

Polyurethane

186
Q

Used in surface finished and coatings

A

Isocyanate

187
Q

Feature 25: Toxic Material Reduction. Part 5 Urea-Formaldehyde Restriction limits levels to what level?

for the ff?

A

Limits level to 100ppm for the ff

 Furniture or wood products
 Laminating adhesives and resins
 Thermal insulation

188
Q

Low cost thermosetting resin used in wood product industry.

Also used in insulations and adhesives

A

Urea-Formaldehyde

189
Q

Feature 26: Enhanced Material Safety optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

190
Q

Feature 26: Enhanced Material Safety. Part 1: Precautionary Material Selection requires at least how many %?

Meet ___ of 3 requirements. Cite 3.

A

Requires at least 25% by cost of furnishing

Meet one or more of the ff:

Declare: Living building challenge red list free label; a declare: living building challenge compliant label, or product challenge label

Cradle-to-Cradle Certified with bronze silver gold or platinum level in Material Health category or products with bronze silver gold or platinum level material health certificate

No greenscreen benchmark 1, list translator 1 or list translator possible 1 substances over 1000pm, verified by professional

191
Q

Feature 27: Antimicrobial Activity for surfaces optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

192
Q

Feature 27: Antimicrobial Activity for surfaces requires to reduce what?

Use what method?

A

Reduce occupant exposure to pathogens and hazardous cleaning agents

Ultraviolet light (UV-C)

193
Q

Feature 27: Antimicrobial Activity for surfaces. Part 1: High touch surfaces, requires countertops etc be 1 of the following. List two.

A

Must be coated with or consist of abrasion resistant, non-leaching materials that meet EPA standards

Or cleaned per manufacturer’s instructions with UV

194
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment optimization for?

A

NEI and NEB

195
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment. Part 1: Material Properties requires high-touch surfaces meet the ff 3 requirements:

A

Smooth and free of visible defects

Smooth welds and joints to allow easy cleaning

No crevices or hard to reach places

196
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment. Part 2 Cleanability - requires the ff for rugs and carpets

A

Must be easy to clean or removable and must exclude permanent wall to wall carpet

197
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment. Part 2 Cleanability - requires the ff for storage

A

o Adequate flexible storage space must be provided for all permanent movable items so that high touch surfaces can be cleaned

198
Q

Feature 28: Cleanable Environment. Part 2 Cleanability - requires the ff for joints

A

Joints or 90 deg angles where walls and windows and floor meet must be sealed to eliminate gaps that are difficult to clean

199
Q

Feature 29: Cleaning Equipment optimization for ?

A

NEI and NEB

200
Q

Feature 29: Cleaning Equipment. Part 1: Equipment and Cleaning Agents, must meet the ff:

rags?
mops?
vacuum cleaners?

A

Rags for nonporous, must be microfiber with a denier no higher than 10

Mops do not have to be wrung by hand

Vacuum cleaners have HEPA filter rating

201
Q

Feature 29: Cleaning Equipment. Part 1: Equipment and Cleaning Agents, requires the ff for deniers

A

Weight in grams of a 9000m fiber, smaller the number the thinner the fiber

202
Q

A kind of filter that removes 99.97% of particles greater than 0.3mm and satisfies Institute of Environmental Sciences and Tech IEST standards

A

High efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filter

203
Q

Feature 29: Cleaning Equipment. Part 2 Chemical Storage has 2 requirements. List them.

A

Requires bleach and ammonia based products be kept in separate bins

Requires bins and bottles have warning labels that specify they must not be mixed

204
Q

6 major air pollutants

A 
Carbon monoxide
Lead
Nitrogen dioxide
Ozone
Particulate Matter
Sulfur Dioxide
205
Q

Can trigger nausea, headaches, asthma, respiratory irritation and allergies

A

VOCs

206
Q

Smoking tobacco is related to ___ premature annual deaths.

___ years less of life expectancy

A

400,000

10 years

207
Q

Cigarettes contain ____ ingredients that form ____ compounds when burned, of which at least ____ are known to be carcinogenic.

A

600 ingredients

7000 compounds

69 carcinogenic

208
Q

Can lead to irritation of nose, pharynx, and associated with leukemia, childhood asthma and other respiratory disorders

A

Benzene, formaldehyde, and other chemical compounds

209
Q

VOC indoors can be ____ times higher than outdoors

A

5x

210
Q

High levels of coarse and fine particulate matter can lead to?

How to avoid
VOC larger particles?
Smaller particles?

A

Respiratory irritation
Lung cancer
Cardio Diseases
Mortality

Carbon filters
Media filters

211
Q

Can trigger asthma, headaches, allergies and other respiratory systems

A

Mold spores

212
Q

Asbestos bad effects are?

A

Lung cancer

Mesothelioma

213
Q

Lead bad effects are?

A

neurotoxic effects, even at low levels, and in early development is associated with negative effects on memory, IQ, learning and behavior

214
Q

By product from heating wood and fireplace and if not effectively sealed off

A

carbon monoxide

particulate matter

215
Q

Has 210 times binding affinity for hemoglobin vs oxygen

A

Carbon monoxide

216
Q

Lack of oxygen delivery to body tissues that can cause nausea, loss of consciousness, or death

A

Hypoxia

217
Q

Carbon monoxide how many deaths?

A

170 non-automotive fatal poisoning in US every year

218
Q

Based on animal tests, associated with potential neurobehavioral, carcinogenic and immune effects.

Can bioaccumulate and contaminate even human milk.

A

Polybrominated diphenyl ethers

WELL EXAM (9 decks)

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