AIM: Ch 9: Fluoroscopy Flashcards

1
Q

“Real-time” imaging is usually considered to be ____ frames per second (FPS)

A

30

Modern general-purpose fluoroscopy systems use a pulsed x-ray beam in conjunction with digital image acquisition, which commonly allows variable frame rates ranging from 3 to 30 FPS

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2
Q

____ filtration combined with lower kV values allows angiography systems to provide lower dose operation while still delivering high image contrast for angiographic applications.

A

Copper

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3
Q

Collimators on fluoroscopy systems utilize ____ for II-based systems and ____ collimation for flat panel fluoroscopy systems.

A

Circular diaphragms
Rectangular

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4
Q

In addition to added filtration and beam collimation, some fluoroscopy systems also have operator adjustable attenuating ____ to provide additional attenuation at specified locations in the x-ray field, such as the pulmonary space between the heart and chest wall, where excessive x-ray penetration of the pulmonary structures can lead to bright regions in the image.

A

Wedges

The use of wedges can reduce the glare from these areas, equalize the x-ray beam incident on the image receptor, and lower radiation dose to the patient.

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5
Q

Component of modern II that keeps air out and allow unimpeded electron flow

A

Vacuum housing

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6
Q

Component of modern II that converts the absorbed incident x-rays into light, which in turn releases electrons

A

Input layer

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7
Q

Component of modern II that accelerates and focuses the electrons emitted by the input layer onto the output layer

A

Electron optics system

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8
Q

Component of modern II that converts the accelerated electrons into a visible light image

A

Output phosphor

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9
Q

First layer of the input screen is the vacuum window that is part of the vacuum containment vessel. The vacuum window keeps the air out of the II, and its curvature is designed to withstand the force of the air pressing against it. What is it made of and how thick/thin?

A

Aluminum window
Typically 1 mm

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10
Q

It is the second layer of the input screen, commonly 0.5 mm of aluminum, and is the first component in the electronic lens system, and its curvature is designed for accurate electron focusing.

A

Support layer

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11
Q

Its function is to absorb the x-rays and convert their energy into visible light

A

Input phosphor

After passing through the Al input window and substrate, x-rays strike the input phosphor, whose function is to absorb the x-rays and convert their energy into visible light. The input phosphor must be thick enough to absorb a large fraction of the incident x-rays, but thin enough to not significantly degrade the spatial resolution of the image by the lateral dispersion of light through the phosphor.

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12
Q

Virtually all modern IIs use ____ for the input phosphor.

A

Cesium iodide (CsI)

The CsI crystals are approximately 400 mm tall and 5 mm in diameter and are formed by vacuum deposition of CsI onto the substrate

The CsI crystals have a trace amount of sodium, causing it to emit blue light.

The K-edges of cesium (36 keV) and iodine (33 keV) are well positioned with respect to the fluoroscopic x-ray spectrum, which contribute to high x-ray absorption efficiency.

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13
Q

A thin layer of antimony and alkali metals (such as Sb2S3) that emits electrons when struck by visible light.

A

Photocathode

With 10% to 20% conversion efficiency, approximately 400 electrons are released from the photocathode for each 60-keV x-ray photon absorbed in the phosphor.

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14
Q

X-rays are converted into light which then ejects electrons from the input screen into the evacuated volume of the II. The kinetic energy of each electron is dramatically increased by acceleration due to the voltage difference between the cathode and anode, resulting in ____

A

Electronic gain

The spatial pattern of electrons released at the photocathode is maintained at the output phosphor, albeit minified

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15
Q

T/F: The curved surface of the input screen, necessary for proper electron focusing, causes unavoidable pincushion distortion of the image

A

True

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16
Q

All of the following comprise the five-component (“pentode”) electronic lens system of the II, except:
a. G1
b. G2
c. G3
d. Input phosphor substrate (the cathode)
e. Output phosphor

A

e. Output phosphor

The G1, G2, and G3 electrodes (Fig. 9-2), along with the input phosphor substrate (the cathode) and the ANODE just proximal to the output phosphor, comprise the five-component (“pentode”) electronic lens system of the II

The electrons are released from the photocathode with very little kinetic energy, but under the influence of the 25,000 to 35,000 V electric field, they are accelerated and arrive at the anode with high velocity and considerable kinetic energy.

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17
Q

They shape the electric field, focusing the electrons properly onto the output layer, where the energetic electrons strike the output phosphor and cause visible light to be emitted.

A

Intermediate electrodes
G1, G2, G3

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18
Q

The output phosphor is made of ____, which has a green (~530 nm) emission spectrum.

A

Zinc cadmium sulfide doped with silver (ZnCdS: Ag)

The ZnCdS phosphor particles are very small (1 to 2 mm), and the output phosphor is quite thin (4 to 8 mm), to preserve high spatial resolution

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19
Q

The ratio of the area of the input phosphor to that of the output phosphor

A

Minification gain of an II

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20
Q

It is part of the vacuum enclosure and must be transparent to the emission of light from the output phosphor

A

Output window

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21
Q

Some fraction of the light emitted by the output phosphor is reflected inside the glass window. Such stray light reflecting inside the output window contributes to ____, which can reduce image contrast.

A

Veiling glare

This glare is reduced by using a thick (about 14 mm) clear glass window, in which internally reflected light eventually strikes the side of the window, which is coated with a black pigment to absorb the scattered light

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22
Q

T/F: The f-number is proportional to the diameter of the hole (f = focal length/aperture diameter), but it is the area of the hole that determines how much light gets through.

A

False

The f-number is inversely related to the diameter of the hole (f  focal length/aperture diameter), but it is the area of the hole that determines how much light gets through.

Changing the diameter of the hole by a factor of 2 changes its area by a factor of 2, and thus, increasing the f-number by one f-stop reduces the amount of light passing through the aperture by a factor of 2.

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23
Q

T/F: By lowering the gain of the II and associated optics by increasing the f-number, a higher x-ray exposure rate will result, producing lower noise images and higher patient dose.

A

True

Increasing the gain reduces the x-ray exposure rate and lowers the dose, but reduces image quality.

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24
Q

In the video camera, patterns of light (the image data) are incident upon the TV target. The target is swept by a scanning electron beam in a ____ pattern

A

Raster scan pattern

The TV target is made of a photoconductor, which has high electrical resistance in the dark, but becomes less resistive as the light intensity striking it increases. As the electron beam (electrical current) scans each location on the target, the amount of current that crosses the TV target and reaches the signal plate depends on the resistance of the target at each location, which in turn is related to the local light intensity. Thus the electrical signal is modulated by the local variations in light intensity, and that is physically how the video system converts the optical image incident upon it into to an electronic signal. Note that this is a process of sampling in time described as temporal sampling frequency with units of cycles/s, with the unit hertz (Hz)

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25
Q

Vidicon video systems typically operate at 30 FPS in an ____ scanning mode to reduce flicker, the perception of the image flashing on and off

A

Interlaced

The human eye-brain system can detect temporal fluctuations slower than about 47 images/s, and therefore at 30 FPS, flicker would be perceptible. With interlaced systems, each frame is composed of two fields (called odd and even fields, corresponding to every other row in the raster, with the odd field starting at row 1, and the even field starting at row 2), and each field is refreshed at a rate of 60 FPS (although with only half the information), which is fast enough to avoid the perception of flicker.

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26
Q

The CCD reads out the stored charge in a ____ fashion, as discussed in Chapter 7, causing locally stored electrons to be transferred from one row to the next row, along defined columns, to eventually be deposited onto a charge amplifier at the end of each column

A

“Bucket brigade” fashion

Solid-state cameras are preferred because of their stability, reproducibility, and linearity.

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27
Q

It is the product of the electronic and minification gains of the II

A

Brightness gain

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28
Q

T/F: As the effective diameter (FOV) of the input phosphor decreases (increasing magnification), the brightness gain increases.

A

False

As the effective diameter (FOV) of the input phosphor decreases (increasing magnification), the brightness gain decreases.

29
Q

It is the result of projecting the image with a curved input phosphor to the flat output phosphor

A

Pincushion distortion

Worps the image by stretching the physical dimensions in the periphery of the image

30
Q

It is a spatial warping of the image in an S shape through the image. This type of distortion is usually subtle, if present, and is the result of stray magnetic fields and the earth’s magnetic field affecting the electron trajectory from the cathode to the anode inside the II.

A

S distortion

31
Q

T/F: Larger dexel and poorer spatial resolution are sometimes necessary for fluoroscopic operation.

A

True

In some fluoroscopic flat-panel detectors, larger dexels (providing less spatial resolution) are necessary for fluoroscopy because data transfer rate (“bandwidth”) limitations restrict the amount of image data that can be displayed at 30 FPS. The 2 3 2 binning reduces the amount of data by a factor of four, making real-time display feasible. In addition, the low doses per frame used in fluoroscopy results in significant quantum noise, and ultimately the poor statistical integrity (low SNR) limits the ability to see small objects. Therefore, larger dexel and poorer spatial resolution are sometimes necessary for fluoroscopic operation.

32
Q

The exposure rates in modern fluoroscopic systems are controlled automatically. The purpose of this circuit is to keep the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) of the image constant when possible

A

Automatic exposure rate control (AERC) circuit (formerly referred to as Automatic Brightness Control – ABC)

It does this by regulating the x-ray exposure rate incident on the input phosphor of the II or flat panel detector.

The AERC circuitry strives to keep the detected photon fluence used for each fluoroscopic frame at a constant level, keeping the SNR of the image approximately constant regardless of the thickness of the patient

The AERC circuitry in the x-ray generator is capable of changing the mA and the kV in continuous fluoroscopy mode. For pulsed fluoroscopy systems, the AERC circuitry may regulate the pulse width (the time duration) or pulse height (the mA) of the x-ray pulses as well as kV (to increase or decrease penetrability of the beam).

33
Q

It measures the x-ray intensity and the AERC sends a signal to the x-ray generator to increase the x-ray exposure rate.

A

AERC sensor

34
Q

Re: thicker subjects:

When the generator responds by increasing the kV, the subject contrast ____, but the dose to the patient is kept ____ because more x-rays penetrate the patient at higher kV.

In situations where contrast is crucial (e.g., angiography), the generator can increase the ____ instead of the kV; this preserves subject contrast at the expense of higher patient dose

A

Decreases, low
mA

In general: lower KV, better contrast

In thicker subjects, you may modify mA and kV
If contrast is not a concern, you may increase kV, keep radiation dose lower at the expense of the contrast
If contrast is of a concern, you may increase mA, preserved kV and preserve contrast but with much higher patient dose

35
Q

Continuous fluoroscopy produces a continuous x-ray beam typically using ____ mA (depending on patient thickness and system gain). A camera displays the image at 30 FPS, so that each fluoroscopic frame is displayed for ____.

A

0.5 to 6 mA
1.33 ms (1/30 s)

Any motion that occurs within the 33-ms acquisition blurs the fluoroscopic image.

36
Q

This mode is the most basic approach to fluoroscopy acquisition, is typically used on all analog systems, and was the standard operating mode for image-intensified fluoroscopy up until the 1980s

A

Continuous fluoroscopy

37
Q

In pulsed fluoroscopy, the x-ray generator produces a series of short x-ray pulses. The pulsed fluoroscopy system can generate 30 pulses/s, but each pulse can be very short in time. With pulsed fluoroscopy, the exposure time ranges from about ____ instead of 33 ms, which reduces blurring from patient motion (e.g., pulsatile vessels and cardiac motion) in the image

A

3 to 10 ms

38
Q

It is produced by changing the voltages applied to the electrodes in the II, resulting in electron focusing from a smaller central area of the II’s input screen to the entire output phosphor

A

Magnification

As the magnification factor increases, a smaller area on the input of the II is seen (Fig. 9-10). When the magnification mode is engaged, the x-ray beam collimator automatically adjusts to match the x-ray beam dimensions to the smaller FOV

The brightness gain (and hence the overall gain) of the II decreases as the magnification increases.

The AERC circuitry compensates for the lower signal by boosting the x-ray exposure rate

39
Q

T/F: To minimise patient dose, the fluoroscopist should use the maximum magnification and smallest collimation area that facilitates the diagnostic task at hand.

A

False

To minimise patient dose, the fluoroscopist should use the LEAST magnification and smallest collimation area that facilitates the diagnostic task at hand.

40
Q

Feature of fluoroscopy that is the basis of their clinical utility

A

Excellent temporal resolution

41
Q

In this approach of frame averaging, the image just acquired, In, is added together with the last displayed image (In–1) using

A

Recursive filtering

42
Q

When the fluoroscopist steps off the pedal and deactivates fluoroscopy, rather than seeing a blank monitor, ____ continuously displays the last acquired image or set of images on the fluoroscopy monitor. This is a standard feature on modern fluoroscopy systems, and is achieved by continuously digitizing images in real time and temporarily storing them in a digital video frame memory.

A

Last-frame-hold

Last-frame-hold is a necessary feature for dose reduction, especially at training institutions

43
Q

It is a software- and video-enhanced variant of the last-frame-hold feature and is useful for angiography procedures. It is useful for advancing catheters through tortuous vessels.

A

Road mapping

Either side by side with the live video or as an overlay

44
Q

The C-arm is capable of motorized rotation of about ____ degrees around the patient, which allows two-dimensional projection images to be acquired at many different angles around the patient

A

220

45
Q

T/F: For routine quality control testing in fluoroscopy, a visual assessment of a resolution test object imaged with maximum geometric magnification is commonly used to assess spatial resolution

A

False

For routine quality control testing in fluoroscopy, a visual assessment of a resolution test object imaged with MINIMAL geometric magnification is commonly used to assess spatial resolution

Higher magnification modes provide better resolution; for example, an 11-cm mode may have a limiting resolution up to 3.5 cycles/mm

46
Q

It describes the maximum possible resolution in a digitally sampled imaging system

A

Nyquist frequency

Overall spatial resolution is also determined by the calibration of electronic and optical focusing of the II/TV system, pincushion distortion of the II at the periphery of the image, and the size of the focal spot.

47
Q

____, when used in conjunction with a small focal spot, is sometimes useful in overcoming the spatial resolution limitations of a fluoroscopy system, and is achieved by moving the detector away from the patient

A

Geometric magnification

Downsides to geometric magnification are the large increase in dose nesessary to address the increase in source to detector distance and the reduced anatomical coverage for a given detector field at view

48
Q

It is usually measured subjectively by viewing contrast-detail phantoms under fluoroscopic imaging conditions. It is essentially a measure of image noise

A

Contrast resolution

When higher exposure rates are used contrast resolution increases, but dose to the patient also increases.

49
Q

Grids with grid ratios of ____ and short ____ focal distances are used in fluoroscopic examinations

A

6:1 to 12:1
100 cm or less

50
Q

Temporal blurring is typically called ____

A

Image lag

51
Q

For peripheral angiography and body work, the detector dimensions run from ____. For neuroangiography rooms, ____ detector dimensions are commonly used.

A

30 to 44 cm
23- to 30-cm

52
Q

Name the specific fluoroscopic application given the following features:

The radiographic/fluoroscopic room (commonly referred to as an “R and F room”) has a large table that can be rotated from horizontal to vertical to put the patient in a head-down (Trendelenburg) or head-up position. The detector is typically mounted over the table, with the x-ray tube under the table. The table has a large metal base that hides the fluoroscopic x-ray tube and provides radiation shielding

A

Genitourinary

53
Q

Name the specific fluoroscopic application given the following features:

The fluoroscopic system is motorized and is controlled by the operator sitting in a shielded control booth. In addition to the normal operation of the detector (pan, zoom, up, down, magnification), this typically has a motorized compression paddle that is used to remotely palpate the patient, to manipulate contrast agent in the upper or lower GI tract.

A

Remote Fluoroscopy rooms

54
Q

Name the specific fluoroscopic application given the following features:

The table does not rotate but rather “floats”—it allows the patient to be moved from side to side and from head to toe (Fig. 9-15B). The fluoroscopy imaging chain (the x-ray tube and detector) can also be panned around the stationary patient. The fluoroscopic system is typically mounted on a C-arm apparatus, which can be rotated and skewed, and these motions provide considerable flexibility in providing standard posteroanterior, lateral, and oblique projections.

A

Peripheral Angiography Suites

55
Q

Name the specific fluoroscopic application given the following features:

It is very similar to an angiography suite, but typically smaller (~23 cm) flat panel detectors are used. The smaller detectors permit more tilt in the cranial caudal direction, as is typical in cardiac imaging. High frame rate (15 to 60 FPS) pulsed x-ray cineradiography operation is mandatory to capture injected contrast medium as it moves through the vessels in the rapidly beating heart.

A

Cardiology Catheterization Suite

56
Q

Name the specific fluoroscopic application given the following features:

Systems with one patient table but with two complete imaging chains; there are two generators, two fluoroscopic detectors, and two x-ray tubes. Two imaging chains allow two orthogonal (or oblique) views of the area of interest to be acquired simultaneously with one contrast injection. During the procedure, the x-ray pulse sequence of each plane is staggered so that scattered radiation from one imaging plane is not imaged by the other plane

A

Biplane Angiographic Systems

57
Q

These are used frequently in operating rooms and intensive care units. These systems plug into a standard wall plug for power, and therefore are relatively low power. Most systems use 15- to 23-cm detector systems

A

Mobile Fluoroscopy—C Arms

58
Q

The maximum permissible entrance exposure rate to the patient for normal fluoroscopy is

A

87.3 mGy/m or (10 R/m)

These dose rates limits are assessed at specified positions – for systems in which the x-ray tube is below the patient table, the measurement position is one cm above the table; for C-arm fluoroscopes, this position is 30 cm from the image receptor toward the x-ray source along the central axis of the beam.

59
Q

For specially activated fluoroscopy, the maximum exposure rate allowable is

A

175 mGy/m (20 R/min)

These dose rates limits are assessed at specified positions – for systems in which the x-ray tube is below the patient table, the measurement position is one cm above the table; for C-arm fluoroscopes, this position is 30 cm from the image receptor toward the x-ray source along the central axis of the beam.

60
Q

Dose rates are evaluated in fluoroscopy by using a tissue-equivalent phantom made of a material such as ____ placed in the field, with an ionization chamber positioned in front of it to measure the entrance skin dose

A

Polymethyl methacrylate (PMMA, also known as Lucite or Perspex)

61
Q

The overall sensitivity of the fluoroscopic system in a particular operating mode can be characterized directly, and this approach is used when service personnel calibrate the fluoroscopic systems during installation and service. The grid is removed, and all objects are removed from the FOV, including the table. A sheet of approximately ____ is taped to the x-ray tube port to provide some beam hardening so that the x-ray beam spectrum striking the detector is roughly similar that used during patient imaging

A

0.5 - 1.2 mm of copper

Typical entrance kerma rates for fluoroscopic detectors range from 8.7 nGy (1 mR) to 44 nGy (5 mR) per frame.

62
Q

As a rule of thumb, standing 1 m from the patient, the fluoroscopist receives from scattered radiation (on the outside of his or her apron) approximately ____ of the exposure incident upon the patient

A

1/1,000

63
Q

A ____ is required by some institutions when the integrated skin dose reaches predefined levels, in order to evaluate the benefits and risk of continuing with the procedure

A

Procedural pause

Fluoroscopy systems manufactured on or after June 10, 2006 are required to display the cumulative air kerma (commonly in the units of mGy) at a reference point.

Dosimeters are available that may be placed on a patient’s skin. Some are read after the procedure and some give readings of cumulative dose during the procedure.

Concern: Deterministic effect

64
Q

T/F: It is customary to wear a single dosimeter at the collar level, at the back of the protective apron

A

False

It is customary to wear a single dosimeter at the collar level, IN FRONT of the protective apron

A second dosimeter may be worn on the body under the apron.

65
Q

Techniques to minimize the dose include the following except:
a. Heavy x-ray beam filtration (e.g., 0.2-mm copper)
b. Aggressive use of low frame rate pulsed fluoroscopy
c. Use of low-dose (lower kV, higher mA) AERC options
d. All of the following are included

A

c. Use of low-dose (lower kV, higher mA) AERC options

c. Use of low-dose (HIGHER kV, LOWER mA) AERC options

66
Q

T/F: Collimation reduce the skin dose

A

False

Although collimation does NOT reduce the skin dose, it does limit the area irradiated, reduces the effective dose to the patient, improves image quality by reducing the amount of scattered radiation, and reduces dose to staff in the room.

67
Q

The most effective way to reduce patient dose during fluoroscopy is ____

A

To use less fluoroscopy time

68
Q

T/F: If erythema does not appear approximately 10 to 15 days after the procedure or if moist desquamation does not appear within 8 weeks, further follow-up is likely unnecessary

A

True

Today, it is common practice to establish a cumulative air kerma threshold (e.g., 3 or 5 gray) and arrange for follow-up of each patient whose procedure exceeds that threshold