AIM: Ch 20: Radiation Biology Flashcards

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1
Q

Biologic effects of radiation exposure in which the probability of the effect occurring, (rather than its severity), increases with dose

A

Stochastic effect

-NO dose threshold: damage to a few cells or even a single cell could theoretically result in production of the disease

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2
Q

Stochastic versus deterministic effect:

a. Radiation-induced cancer
b. Hereditary effects
c. Skin erythema
d. Fibrosis and hematopoietic damage

A

a-b. Stochastic effects
c-d. Deterministic effects

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3
Q

Effects in which the severity of the injury, (rather than its probability of occurrence), increases with dose

A

Deterministic effects

aka tissue reactions

WITH threshold dose

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4
Q

The delta rays and other lower energy electrons, set in motion following an initial ionizing event, result in a unique ionization pattern in which closely spaced ionizations occur over a very short range (~4 to 12 nm) along the path of the primary ionization track. The energy deposition (~100 ev) along the shorter tracks referred to as ____

A

Spurs

Diameters are approximately 4 to 5 nm, result in an average of three ionizing events

It is estimated that 95% of the energy deposition events from x-rays and gamma rays occurs in spurs

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5
Q

Longer and less frequent pear shaped tracks called ____ deposit more energy (~300 to 500 ev) and thus on average result in more ionization events (~12 ion pairs) over their path (~12 nm)

A

Blobs

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6
Q

If ionizing events occur near the DNA, whose diameter (~2 nm) is on the same order as that of these short ionization tracks, they can produce damage in multiple locations in the DNA in close proximity to one another. These lesions are called ____

A

Locally multiply damaged sites

These are more difficult for the cell to repair or may be repaired incorrectly

Synonyms for this type of damage in more common use today include clustered damage, complex damage, and multiply damaged sites (MDS).

While endogenous processes mainly produce isolated DNA lesions, the complex clustered damage, in which groups of SEVERAL damaged nucleotides occur within ONE or TWO helical turns of the DNA, is a HALLMARK of ionizing radiationinduced DNA damage.

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7
Q

It would take more than ____, a supralethal dose, to raise the temperature of tissue by 1°C.

A

4,000 Gy

Only a fraction of the radiation energy deposited brings about chemical changes; the vast majority of the energy is deposited as heat. The heat produced is of little biologic significance compared with the heat generated by normal metabolic processes.

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8
Q

Radiation interactions that produce biologic changes are classified as either direct or indirect.

The change is said to be due to ____ action if a biologic macromolecule such as DNA, RNA, or protein becomes ionized or excited by an ionizing particle or photon passing through or near it.

____ action refers to effects that are the result of radiation interactions within the medium (e.g., cytoplasm) that create mobile, chemically reactive species that in turn interact with nearby macromolecules

A

Direct
Indirect

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9
Q

These are denoted by a dot next to the chemical symbol, and are atomic or molecular species that have unpaired orbital electrons

A

Free radicals

Thus, free radicals can be radical ions (e.g., H2O+ and H2O-), or electrically neutral (∙OH). The hydrogen and hydroxyl radicals can be created by other reaction pathways, the most important of which is the radiation-induced excitation and disassociation of a water molecule (H2O* excitation → H∙ and ∙OH)

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10
Q

Primary cause of biologic damage from low-LET radiation

A

Free radical-induced damage to DNA

While radiation exposure from medical imaging does result in some direct ionization of critical cellular targets, approximately two thirds of the total radiation damage is due to the free radical-mediated indirect effects of ionizing radiation.

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11
Q

It is a parameter that describes the average energy deposition per unit path length of the incident radiation

A

LET

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12
Q

The term relating the effectiveness of the test radiation to the reference radiation is called the ____

A

Relative biological effectiveness (RBE)

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13
Q

It refers to the deposition of radiation energy in excess of that necessary to produce the maximum biologic effect.

A

Overkill (or wasted dose)

The RBE is an essential element in establishing the radiation weighting factors (wR)

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14
Q

There is considerable evidence that damage to ____ is the primary cause of radiation-induced cell death.

A

DNA

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15
Q

The deposition of energy (directly or indirectly) by ionizing radiation induces chemical changes in large molecules that may then undergo a variety of structural changes including the following, except:
a. Hydrogen bond breakage
b. Molecular degradation or breakage
c. Intermolecular and intramolecular cross-linking
d. All of the above are part of the said structural changes

A

d. AOTA

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16
Q

The increased effectiveness of alpha particles in producing biological damage is not due to an increased yield of DNA damage but rather the ability of the higher ionization density to produce more complex DNA lesions (Brenner and Ward, 1992). This ability to produce several MDS in proximity in the chromatin structure is referred to as ____

A

Regional multiply damaged sites (RMDS)

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17
Q

Chromosomal damage that occurs before DNA replication is referred to as ____, whereas that occurring after DNA synthesis is called ____

A

Chromosome aberrations
Chromatid aberrations

BEFORE: ChromOsomes
AFTER: ChromAtid

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18
Q

Chromosome breaks produced by radiation do occur and can be observed microscopically during ____ and ____, when the chromosomes are condensed

A

Anaphase, metaphase

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19
Q

DNA damage induces several cellular responses that enable the cell either to repair or to cope with the damage. For example, the cell may activate the ____ (which arrests cell cycle progression), to allow for repair of damaged or incompletely replicated chromosomes

A

G1/S checkpoint

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20
Q

It detects the damaged base and removes it, creating an abasic site

A

DNA glycosylase

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21
Q

It joins the DNA segments

A

DNA ligase

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22
Q

Most DNA base damage and SSBs are repaired by the ____

A

Base excision repair pathway

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23
Q

It is the major pathway for the repair of bulky, helix-distorting lesions such as thymine dimers produced by exposure to ultraviolet radiation

A

Nucleotid excision repair
(NER)

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24
Q

More persistent, stable reciprocal translocations can be measured using ____

A

Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)

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25
Q

While a wide variety of the biologic responses to radiation have been identified, the study of radiation-induced reproductive failure (also referred to as ____) is particularly useful in assessing the relative biologic impact of various types of radiation and exposure conditions

A

Clonogenic cell death or loss of reproductive integrity

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26
Q

T/F: For differentiated cells that no longer have the capacity for cell division (e.g., muscle and nerve cells), cell death is often defined as loss of specific metabolic functions or functional capacity.

A

True

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27
Q

It describes the radiosensitivity of the cell population under study. It is the reciprocal of the slope of the linear portion of the survival curve, and it is the dose of radiation that produces, along the linear portion of the curve, a 37% reduction in the number of viable cells

A

D0

Radioresistant cells have a higher D0 than radiosensitive cells. A lower D0 implies less survival per dose. The D0 for mammalian cells ranges from approximately 1 to 2 Gy for low LET radiation.

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28
Q

This component of the survival curve represents the damage done by individual radiation particle tracks and is thus independent of dose rate. While the damage is partially repairable over time, this still represents the probability of cell death due to individual, noninteracting, particle tracks.

A

Linear (alpha) component of the survival curve

This linear (single-hit kinetics) dose-response relationship dominates with high-LET radiation

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29
Q

This component of the survival curve represents the probability of cell death due to interactions between two or more individual particle tracks (i.e., dominates with low-LET radiation and follows multiple-hit kinetics) causing the curve to bend at higher doses and is sensitive to dose rate

A

Quadratic (beta) component of the survival curve

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30
Q

The dose at which cell killing is equal from the linear (aD) and quadratic (bD2) contribution is referred to as the ____. It is a measure of the curvature of the cell survival curve and, thus, a measure of the sensitivity of different cell types to fractionation of radiation dose

A

a/b ratio

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31
Q

Cellular radiosensitivity can be influenced by a variety of factors that can enhance or diminish the response to radiation or alter the temporal relationship between the exposure and a given response. Those physical or chemical factors that exist before and/or at the time of irradiation are called ____

A

Conditional radiosensitivities

Include: dose rate, LET, and the presence of oxygen

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32
Q

Cellular radiosensitivity can be influenced by a variety of factors that can enhance or diminish the response to radiation or alter the temporal relationship between the exposure and a given response. The factors that include those biologic factors that are characteristics of the cells themselves, such as the mitotic rate, the degree of differentiation, and the stage of the cell cycle, are called ____

A

Inherent radiosensitivity

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33
Q

The relative effectiveness of radiation to produce damage at various oxygen tensions is described by the ____.

A

Oxygen enhancement ratio (OER)

It is defined as the dose of radiation that produces a given biologic response in the absence of oxygen divided by the dose of radiation that produces the same biologic response in the presence of oxygen

Increasing the oxygen concentration at the time of irradiation has been shown to enhance the killing of otherwise hypoxic (i.e., radioresistant) cells that can be found in some tumors.

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34
Q

It states that radiosensitivity is greatest for those cells that (1) have a high mitotic rate, (2) have a long mitotic future, and (3) are undifferentiated.

A

Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau

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35
Q

Top 3 most sensitive cells

A

Spermatogonia
Lymphocytes, oocytes
Hematopoietic cells

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36
Q

Top 3 least sensitive cells

A

Bone
Muscle
CNS (neurons)

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37
Q

The following cells do not divide or are differentiated and are classified as fixed postmitotic cells, except:
a. Some nerve cells
b. Erythrocytes
c. Spermatozoa
d. Bone

A

d. Bone

38
Q

The following cells are rapidly dividing; undifferentiated; do not differentiate between divisions, and are therefore radiosensitive, except:
a. Type A spermatogonia
b. Erythrocytes
c. Crypt cells of intestines
d. Basal cells of epidermis

A

b. Erythrocytes

39
Q

Cells are most sensitive to radiation during ____ and ____

A

Mitosis (M phase)
“Gap” between S phase and mitosis (G2)

40
Q

Cells are least sensitive during ____

A

Late DNA synthesis (S phase)

40
Q

Phenomenon in which irradiated cells or tissues can produce deleterious effects on nonirradiated cells or tissues

A

Bystander effect or abscopal (out-of-field) effect

40
Q

Phenomenon that has been demonstrated in vitro as delayed lethality in which cell cloning efficiency is reduced several generations after irradiation

A

Genomic instability

40
Q

It refers to replacement of the damaged cells in the organ by cells of the same type, thus replacing the lost functional capacity

A

Regeneration

40
Q

It refers to the replacement of the damaged cells by fibrotic scar tissue, in which case the functionality of the organ system is compromised

A

Repair

41
Q

It is the most commonly encountered tissue reaction (deterministic effect) following high-dose image guided interventional procedures

A

Radiation-induced skin damage

The reaction of skin to ionizing radiation (often referred to as the cutaneous radiation syndrome) has been studied extensively, and the degree of damage has been found to depend not only on the radiation quantity, quality, and dose rate but also on the location and extent of the exposure

42
Q

The most sensitive structures in the skin include the following except:
a. Germinal epithelium
b. Sebaceous glands
c. Stratum corneum
d. Hair follicles

A

c. Stratum corneum

43
Q

Skin reactions to radiation exposure are deterministic and have a threshold of approximately ____ below which no effects are seen.

A

1 Gy

44
Q

A generalized erythema can occur within hours following an acute dose of 2 Gy or more of low-LET radiation and will typically fade within a few hours or days. This inflammatory response, often referred to as ____, is largely caused by increased capillary dilatation and permeability secondary to the release of vasoactive amines (e.g., histamine)

A

Early transient erythema

45
Q

A later wave of erythema can reappear as early as 2 weeks after a high initial exposure or after repeated lower exposures (e.g., 2 Gy/ day as in radiation therapy), reaching a maximal response about the third week, at which time the skin may be edematous, tender, and often exhibit a burning sensation. This ____ is believed to be an inflammatory reaction secondary to release of proteolytic enzymes from damaged epithelial basal cells as well as reflecting loss of those epithelial cells

A

Secondary or main erythema

46
Q

A third or late erythema wave may also be seen between between ____ after exposure. The dermal ischemia present at this stage produces an erythema with a bluish or mauve tinge.

A

8 and 52 weeks

47
Q

Temporary hair loss (epilation) can occur in approximately 3 weeks after exposure to ____, with regrowth beginning approximately 2 months later and complete within 6 to 12 months

A

3 to 6 Gy

Moist desquamation, which implies a total destruction of the epidermis, is a clear predictor of late delayed injuries, particularly telangiectasia.

48
Q

The testes contain cell populations that range from the most radiosensitive germ cells (i.e., ____) to the most radioresistant ____

A

Spermatogonia
Mature spermatozoa

48
Q

Erythema will not result from chronic exposures in which the total dose is less than ____

A

6 Gy

49
Q

For males, temporary and permanent sterility can occur after acute doses of approximately ____, respectively

A

500 mGy and 6 Gy

Chronic exposures of 20 to 50 mGy/wk can result in permanent sterility when the total dose exceeds 2.5 to 3 Gy.

50
Q

The reduced threshold for affect following chronic versus acute exposure is unusual (also known as ____) and is believed to be due to stem cells progressing into radiosensitive stages

A

Inverse fractionation effect

51
Q

Most radiosensitive of the follicles vs most radioresistant follicle

A

Most radiosensitive: Intermediate follicles
Most radioresistant: Small follicles

After a radiation dose as low as 1.5 Gy, fertility may be temporarily preserved owing to the relative radioresistance of the mature follicles, and this may be followed by a period of reduced fertility

52
Q

Dose tha will produce permanent sterility in women:
a. Prepuberty
b. Premenopausal over 40 y/o

A

a. 10 Gy
b. 2-3 Gy

53
Q

ICRP’s recent review of the scientific evidence regarding the risk of radiation-induced cataract has led the commission to propose a much more conservative occupational equivalent dose limit for the lens of the eye (____ averaged over 5 years, with no single year exceeding ____)

A

20 mSv/y, 50 mSv

Posterior subcapsular cataract

54
Q

When the whole body (or large portion of the body) is subjected to a high acute radiation dose, there are a series of characteristic clinical responses known collectively as the ____

A

Acute radiation syndrome (ARS)

The ARS is an organismal response quite distinct from isolated local radiation injuries such as epilation or skin ulcerations.

55
Q

In order of their occurrence with increasing radiation dose, the ARS is divided into the ____, ____, and ____ syndromes.

A

Hematopoietic > Gastrointestinal > Neurovascular

i-He-Ga-Ne

The ARS can occur when a high radiation dose is (1) delivered acutely; (2) involves exposure to the whole body (or at least a large portion of it), and (3) is from external penetrating radiation, such as x-rays, gamma rays, or neutrons

56
Q

This subsyndrome is dose dependent and can begin within minutes to hours after the exposure. As the whole-body exposure increases above a threshold of approximately 0.5 to 1 Gy, the symptoms, which (depending on dose) can include anorexia, nausea, lethargy, fever, vomiting, headache, diarrhea and altered mental status, begin earlier and are more severe

A

Prodromal stage

57
Q

The prodromal symptoms subside during this period, whose duration is shorter for higher doses and may last for up to 4 weeks for modest exposures less than 1 Gy. This period can be thought of as an “incubation period” during which the organ system damage is progressing

A

Latent phase

58
Q

The latent period ends with the onset of the clinical expression of organ system damage, called ____, which can last for approximately 2 to 4 weeks or in some cases even longer. This stage is the most difficult to manage from a therapeutic standpoint, because of the overlying immunoincompetence that results from damage to the hematopoietic system.

A

Manifest illness stage

59
Q

The hematopoietic syndrome is the primary acute clinical consequence of an acute radiation dose between ____

A

0.5 and 10 Gy

60
Q

Doses greater than ____ are almost always fatal unless advanced therapies such as the use of colony-stimulating factors or bone marrow transplantation are successful

A

8 Gy

61
Q

At doses greater than 12 Gy, this syndrome is primarily responsible for lethality. Its prodromal stage includes severe nausea, vomiting, watery diarrhea, and cramps occurring within hours after the exposure, followed by a much shorter latent period (5 to 7 days)

A

GI syndrome

62
Q

Death occurs within 2 to 3 days after supralethal doses in excess of ____

A

50 Gy

63
Q

It is the most important delayed somatic effect of radiation exposure

A

Cancer

64
Q

Stage in cancer formation where a somatic mutational event occurs that is misrepaired. This damage can be produced by radiation or any of a variety of other environmental or chemical carcinogens.

A

Initiation stage

65
Q

Stage in cancer formation where the preneoplastic cell is stimulated to divide. A promoter is an agent that by itself does not cause cancer but, once an initiating carcinogenic event has occurred, promotes or stimulates the cell containing the original damage.

A

Promotion

66
Q

Stage in cancer formation where the transformed cell produces a number of phenotypic clones, not all of which are neoplastic. Eventually, one phenotype acquires the selective advantage of evading the host’s defense mechanisms, thus allowing the development of a tumor and possibly a metastatic cancer

A

Progression

67
Q

It is the ratio of the disease (e.g., cancer) incidence in the exposed population to that in the general (unexposed) population

A

Relative risk

The excess relative risk (ERR) is simply RR − 1

68
Q

It is the number of excess cancer cases per 100,000 in a population

A

Absolute risk

It may be expressed as a rate such as the number of excess cases per 104 or 105 people per Sv per year

Excess Absolute Risk (EAR), also referred to as excess attributable risk, is the difference between two absolute risks and is commonly used in radiation epidemiology expressed as the EAR per unit dose

69
Q

It is one of the most frequently observed radiation-induced cancers

A

Leukemia

70
Q

The majority of radiation-induced thyroid neoplasms are:
a. Papillary thyroid ca
b. Follicular thyroid ca
c. Anaplastic thyroid ca
d. Medullary thyroid ca

A

a. Papillary thyroid ca

Well-differentiated papillary thyroid ca

71
Q

The following are included among the most frequent radiation-induced cancers, except:
a. Female breast cancer
b. Skin cancer
c. Thyroid cancer
d. Leukemia

A

b. Skin cancer

72
Q

It is an index of the presumed genetic impact of radiation-induced mutation in germ cells in an exposed population

A

Genetically significant dose

73
Q

The sensitivity of a population to radiation-induced genetic damage can be measured by the ____, defined as the dose required per generation to double the spontaneous mutation rate

A

Doubling dose

The doubling dose for humans is estimated to be approximately 1 Gy per generation; however, this represents an extrapolation from animal data.

74
Q

Developing organisms are highly dynamic systems that are characterized by rapid cell proliferation, migration, and differentiation. The response after exposure to ionizing radiation depends on a number of factors including the following, except:
a. Total dose
b. Dose rate
c. Radiation quality
d. Stage of development at the time of exposure
e. All of the above are included

A

e. AOTA

75
Q

The most sensitive times of exposure in humans are at ____ after conception, when the two pronuclei fuse to the one-cell stage, and again at ____ when the first two divisions occur.

A

12 hours
30 and 60 hours

Chromosomal aberrations from radiation exposure at the one-cell stage could result in loss of a chromosome in subsequent cell divisions that would then be uniform throughout the embryo. Most chromosomal loss at this early stage is lethal. Loss of a sex chromosome in female embryos may result in Turner syndrome, although there is no evidence that this has occurred following radiation exposure.

The LD50 for stages from the zygote to expanded blastocysts is in the range of 1 Gy (ICRP, 2003a).

75
Q

Embryos exhibit the so-called all-or-nothing response, to radiation exposure at this stage of development, in which, if the exposure is not lethal, the damaged cells are repaired or replaced to the extent that there is unlikely to be any additional radiation-induced risk of congenital abnormalities beyond that which would occur for other reasons.

A

Preimplantation stage

The preimplantation stage begins with the union of the sperm and egg and continues through day 9 in humans, when the zygote becomes embedded in the uterine wall. During this period, the two pronuclei fuse, cleave, and form the morula and blastula.

The conceptus is very sensitive during the preimplantation stage and susceptibility to the lethal effects of irradiation is a concern. However, for doses less than 100 mGy, the risks are very low.

76
Q

Embryonic malformations occur more frequently during the period of major organogenesis (____ after conception)

A

Second to eighth week

77
Q

In general, the greatest probability of a malformation in a specific organ system (the so-called ____) exists when the radiation exposure is received during the period of peak differentiation of that system

A

Critical period

78
Q

The only organ system (in humans or laboratory rodents) that has shown an association between malformations and low-LET radiation doses less than 250 mGy is the ____

A

CNS

79
Q

During this period the occurrence of radiation-induced prenatal death and congenital anomalies is, for the most part, negligible, unless the exposures are exceptional high and in the therapeutic range

A

Fetal growth stage

Begins after the end of major organogenesis (day 50) and continues until term.

Anomalies of the nervous system and sense organs are the primary radiation-induced abnormalities observed during this period, which coincides with their relative growth and development

During the fetal growth stage in utero, exposure poses little risk of congenital malformations; however, growth retardation, abnormalities of the nervous system, and the risk of childhood cancer can be increased depending on fetal dose.

80
Q

The greatest sensitivity for radiation-induced mental retardation is seen between the 8th and 15th weeks, during which the risk for severe mental retardation (SMR) to the fetus is approximately 44% per Gy with a threshold for SMR of approximately ____ (ICRP, 2003a)

A

200 to 300 mGy

81
Q

For those exposed before the 16th week, the incidence of microcephaly was proportional to the dose, from about ____, above which the decreased occurrence was presumably due to the increase in fetal mortality

A

100–200 mGy up to 1.5 Gy

Due to differences in the periods of rapid proliferation and radiosensitivity of the glial and neuronal cells, microcephaly can appear without SMR between 0 and 7 weeks whereas they appear together at 8 to 15 weeks and SMR can occur without microcephaly at 16 to 25 weeks.

82
Q

T/F: Recommendation of therapeutic abortion for fetal doses less than 100 mGy, regardless of the gestational age, would usually be justified.

A

False

Recommendation of therapeutic abortion for fetal doses less than 100 mGy, regardless of the gestational age, would NOT usually be justified.

Doses lower than 100 mGy to perhaps 200 mGy are generally thought to carry negligible risk compared with the reported occurrence of congenital anomalies (4% to 6%) in liveborn children.

83
Q

U.S. regulatory agencies limit occupational radiation exposure of the fetus to no more than ____ during the gestational period, provided that the dose rate does not substantially exceed ____ in any 1 month.

A

5 mSv
0.5 mSv

84
Q

Radiation dose of ____ received before birth increases risk for childhood cancer

A

10 mGy