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IFR > AIM > Flashcards

AIM Flashcards

1
Q

VOR service volumes

A

Terminal: 1000ATH - 12,000ATH 25nm radius
Low: 1000ATH - 4,999ATH 40nm radius
5,000ATH - 17,999ATH 70nm radius
High: 1000ATH - 4,999ATH 40nm radius
5,000ATH - 14,499ATH 70nm radius
14,500ATH - 60,000ATH 100nm radius
18,000ATH - 45,000ATH 130nm radius

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2
Q

ILS components

A
  1. Localizer
  2. Glide slope
  3. Outer marker
    Functional Parts:
  4. Guidance
  5. Range
  6. Visual
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3
Q

VFR-on-top

A

Allows a pilot on an IFR plan to operate between cloud layers using VFR rules. Must report when vacating an altitude, and cannot return.

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4
Q

Cruise Altitude

A

When cleared to cruise an altitude, clears the pilot to chose an altitude between the min IFR altitude and the altitude stated in the clearance

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5
Q

Type of NOTAMs

A
  1. ARTCC
  2. NAVAID
  3. GPS
  4. (D) - taxiway, personnel, equipment near or crossing rwy, airport lighting aids that do not affect instrument approach, com services, pointer
  5. FDC - amendments to IAPs and other current aeronautical charts, TFRs, high baro pressure warning, laser activity, ADS-B, TIS-B, FIS-B service, satellite-based systems
  6. Military
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6
Q

Clearance Void Time

A

Clearance to be void if not airborne by specified time. Cannot exceed 30 minutes, or craft will be considered overdue and search and rescue procedures will be initiated.

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7
Q

Hold for release

A

delay aircraft departure for traffic management reasons

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8
Q

Release time

A

Departure restriction specifying earliest time an aircraft may depart

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9
Q

Expected Departure Clearance Time

A

Runway release time assigned to aircraft. Aircraft are expected to depart no earlier than 5 minutes before and no later than 5 minutes after EDCT

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10
Q

Two types of DPs

A

Obstacle Departure procedure (ODP) and Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)

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11
Q

When does an airport not have an ODP or nonstandard rate of climb gradient?

A

A procedure designer conducts an obstacle analysis. If an aircraft can turn in any direction from a runway within limits (no obstacle penetrates a 40:1 gradient, 152 FPNM) and remain clear of an obstacle, runway passes a “diverse departure assessment” and no ODP is published.
SIDs are published if needed for ATC purposes.

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12
Q

What happens if an obstacle penetrates the gradient?

A

If an obstacle penetrates the 40:1 gradient (152 FPNM from the DER) then the designer can elect to do one of the following options or a combination of:
1. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient (200 FPNM normal)
2. Establish a steeper than normal climb gradient with increased takeoff minimums
3. Design and publish a specific departure route
4. Combination or all of the above

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13
Q

What criteria is used to provide obstruction clearance during departure?

A

Based on the pilot crossing the departure end at least 35’ above the departure end of the runway, climbing to 400 feet above the departure end before making the initial turn, and maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 200 FPNM until the minimum IFR altitude.
Assessment limit is 25nm from a non-mountainous airport or 46nm from a mountainous airport

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14
Q

ODPs, SIDs, and DVAs assume what kind of aircraft performance?

A

They assume normal operation and that all engines are operative.

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15
Q

What are “low, close-in obstacles”?

A

Obstacles found within 1nm of the DER which penetrate the 40:1 gradient. To avoid requiring an excessive climb gradient which would only be required for a very short distance, these obstacles and their heights (AGL/MSL) are depicted in the “Take-off Min and Obstacle Departure Procedures” section of the TTP.

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16
Q

Are stated climb gradients mandatory?

A

Whenever the required climb gradient is larger than 200 FPNM and stated, it is mandatory to be performed, unless increased takeoff mins are provided and weather conditions allow compliance with these minimums.

17
Q

What is a VCOA

A

Visual Climb Over Airport
A departure procedure for IFR craft, operating in VMC or greater than specified vis and ceiling, to visually conduct climbs over the airport to the published “at or above” altitude, at which point the pilot may proceed via a published route while maintaining at least a 200 FPNM.
VCOA are developed to avoid obstacles greater than 3sm from the DER as an alternative to complying with gradients larger than 200 FPNM.
Pilot is responsible for notifying ATC of intent to fly the VCOA.

18
Q

What affects FPNM?

A

Groundspeed
Winds

19
Q

What symbol indicates that an ODP was created solely for obstacle avoidance?

A

A “T” symbol on IAP charts and DP charts

20
Q

What runway do the takeoff min and departure procedures apply to?

A

All runways unless otherwise specified

21
Q

When can you fly an ODP or SID?

A

ODPs can be flown at pilots discretion. Pilot must have ATC clearance or be assigned by ATC to fly a SID. If no SID or ODP is desired, it should be stated, either in the remarks or during first contact.

22
Q

Why is position reporting important?

A

The safety and effectiveness of traffic control depends upon accurate positioning of aircraft. In radar areas, this relies on the radar system along with secondary radar. In non-radar areas, this depends on the pilot reporting accurate positioning information.

23
Q

Position reporting from a VOR/ADF station

A

The time (in zulu) should be noted once the reversal of the to/from flag occurs.
From an ADF, time should be reported from the reversal.
Position should be given with respect to the distance and direction from the reporting point.

24
Q

Reports required at all times

A
  1. Vacating a previously assigned altitude for a newly assigned altitude
  2. Altitude change made when operating VFR-on-top
  3. Unable to climb/descend at 500 FPM
  4. Executing a Missed Approach
  5. Change of average speed of 10 kts or 5% (whichever is greater, which will always be 10 kts until faster than 200 kts)
  6. Reaching holding fix, time and altitude
  7. Leaving assigned holding fix
  8. Any loss of navigation or communication capability (in controlled airspace)
  9. Any information related to safety
  10. Unforcasted weather
25
Q

Reports required during non-radar contact

A
  1. Leaving FAF or outer marker
  2. Corrected ETA when in error is greater than 2 mins

IFR (9 decks)

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