AI Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 11 principles of the AHPRA Code of Conduct?

A
  • Put clients first
  • Aboriginal and Torres Strait Islander health
  • Respectful and culturally safe practice
  • Working with clients
  • Working with other practitioners
  • Working within the healthcare system
  • Minimising risk to clients
  • Professional behaviour
  • Maintaining practitioner health and wellbeing
  • Teaching, supervising and assessing
  • Ethical research
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2
Q

True or False: Professionalism in chiropractic practice begins after graduation.

A

False

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3
Q

What does the principle ‘Put clients first’ entail?

A

Practitioners should practise safely, effectively, and in partnership with clients.

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4
Q

What is the importance of hygiene in the clinical setting?

A

To maintain professionalism and prevent the spread of infections.

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5
Q

Fill in the blank: A chiropractor’s responsibility includes maintaining _______ in the practitioner/client relationship.

A

[trust]

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6
Q

What are boundary violations in the context of chiropractic practice?

A

Harmful crossings or transgressions of expected boundaries that exploit the client.

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7
Q

What constitutes sexual misconduct in a chiropractor-client relationship?

A

Sexual contact or a romantic relationship concurrent with the client/physician relationship.

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8
Q

List some good hygiene practices for chiropractors.

A
  • Clean hands and trimmed fingernails
  • Fresh clothes and shoes
  • Dental and oral hygiene
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9
Q

What is a boundary crossing?

A

A harmless deviation from classical therapeutic activity that may support therapy.

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10
Q

What should chiropractors do to maintain professional boundaries?

A

Delineate and maintain boundaries, avoid repeated crossings, and recognize the implications of boundary crossings.

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11
Q

What are the signs of boundary violations?

A
  • Personal disclosures
  • Gifts and favors
  • Touching and emotional dependence
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12
Q

True or False: Lack of knowledge about responsibilities is an acceptable reason for discriminatory behavior.

A

False

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13
Q

What is the role of ethical research in chiropractic practice?

A

To inform quality healthcare and policy development.

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14
Q

Fill in the blank: Practitioners should support the role of _______ in developing the health workforce.

A

[teaching, supervising, and mentoring]

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15
Q

What is informed consent?

A

The valid consent of the client to proposed examination or treatment after appropriate advice and information has been provided by the practitioner.

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16
Q

When should the practitioner give informed consent?

A

Before carrying out any diagnostic or therapeutic procedure on clients.

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17
Q

What can a client do regarding informed consent?

A

Consent can be withdrawn at any time by the client.

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18
Q

What is one important practice regarding client comfort during treatment?

A

Check-in over time to ensure the client is okay with the treatment approaches.

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19
Q

What are the five elements of informed consent?

A
  • Diagnosis/Clinical Impression
  • Treatment Intervention
  • Risks or complications associated with the care
  • Alternative treatments or additional diagnostic procedures
  • Successes and Failures
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20
Q

What information should be disclosed during informed consent?

A

All significant clinical information necessary for the client to decide whether to undergo the proposed procedure.

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21
Q

Who can consent for medical treatment?

A

The adult client, unless there are indications that they are not mentally competent.

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22
Q

Who must give consent for a minor client?

A

The parent or legal guardian of the client.

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23
Q

What must be documented in the informed consent process?

A

The client has been part of an informed consent process, material risks have been disclosed, and the client has consented to the procedures.

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24
Q

What is implied consent?

A

Consent that is assumed based on a client’s presence for information gathering, but does not include permission for treatments.

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25
Q

What should clients be made aware of regarding financial consent?

A

All fees and charges involved in a course of treatment should be discussed prior to providing the health service.

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26
Q

What is the key principle of informed consent?

A

The client’s autonomy in making decisions.

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27
Q

What should practitioners do when clients have questions?

A

Treat all questions with respect and professionalism.

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28
Q

What is the purpose of the ACC guidelines on informed consent?

A

To minimize concerns, confusion, or misunderstandings regarding the information the client received before care was delivered.

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29
Q

What must be included in a discussion about treatment options?

A
  • Risks and expected outcomes
  • Alternative options
  • Right to withdraw consent
  • Cost of care
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30
Q

What does the client’s rule state regarding information sharing?

A

It is not a rule that the client must tell the doctor everything about the complaint.

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31
Q

What should be done if the client’s condition changes?

A

Repeat the informed consent process.

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32
Q

What does the Chiropractors Board of Australia state about informed consent?

A

It is a person’s voluntary decision about health care made with knowledge and understanding of the benefits and risks involved.

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33
Q

True or False: A signed consent form can replace the conversation about informed consent.

A

False

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34
Q

Fill in the blank: The five elements of informed consent include Diagnosis, Treatment, Risks, ________, and Successes.

A

Alternative treatments

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35
Q

What is the primary focus of the learning objectives in TSAC1?

A

Understand various postural and psychomotor skills relevant to clinical practice

This includes describing and understanding the components of GORP OMNI

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36
Q

Why is it important for a health practitioner to look after their own health?

A

To protect themselves and ensure longevity in their career

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37
Q

What is the ‘Fencer Stance’?

A

A broad-based stance that saves energy and protects the back

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38
Q

What should practitioners consider to minimize mechanical stress during treatment?

A

Positions that put the least mechanical stress while providing the best advantage in applying treatment

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39
Q

What does ‘Chirobics’ refer to?

A

A series of activities to develop psychomotor skills required for manual chiropractic manipulation

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40
Q

List some psychomotor skills included in Chirobics.

A
  • Genie flicks
  • Speeder board
  • Ball squeeze
  • Arch triceps pushups
  • Triceps extensions
  • Warm up – functional movements
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41
Q

What is the first component of the GORP OMNI mnemonic?

A

G – Gait

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42
Q

What does the ‘O’ in GORP OMNI stand for?

A

O – Observation

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43
Q

Fill in the blank: The ‘R’ in GORP OMNI refers to _______.

A

Range of Motion (Active/Passive/Resisted)

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44
Q

What is the purpose of palpation in clinical practice?

A

To assess static and motion aspects of the client

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45
Q

What does the ‘P’ in GORP OMNI represent?

A

P – Palpation (static and motion)

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46
Q

What is the goal of orthopaedic testing in the GORP OMNI process?

A

To confirm or rule out differential diagnoses

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47
Q

True or False: Neurological testing is always included in the GORP OMNI process.

A

False

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48
Q

What does the ‘I’ in GORP OMNI refer to?

A

I – Investigation/Chiropractic special tests

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49
Q

What types of investigations might be included in the ‘I’ of GORP OMNI?

A
  • X-rays
  • CT scans
  • MRIs
  • Diagnostic Ultrasound
  • Haematological studies
  • Other laboratory work
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50
Q

What is the significance of landmark location in chiropractic analysis?

A

It is important for the care of the cervical spine.

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51
Q

What features can be identified through landmark location of the cervical spine?

A
  • Osseous landmarks
  • Relative location of the vertebrae
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52
Q

Which anatomical landmarks are primarily located at C2, C2/3, C4, and C5/6?

A
  • C2 body = angle of the mandible
  • C2/3 disc = hyoid
  • C4 body = thyroid cartilage
  • C5/6 disc = cricoid cartilage
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53
Q

True or False: The angle of the mandible and hyoid bone are less reliable than thyroid and cricoid cartilage for identifying cervical spinal levels.

A

False

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54
Q

What should be confirmed to accurately locate C7?

A

Its relationship to C6.

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55
Q

How can C6 be palpated?

A
  • Stand obliquely behind the client
  • Place index finger in interspinous space above C7
  • Extend the client’s neck
56
Q

What is the lowest cervical segment to demonstrate significant anterior glide on neck extension?

57
Q

What is the method to locate C7 via C6?

A
  • Locate C6 spinous process
  • Identify which segment glides anteriorly on extension
  • Count down to locate C7
58
Q

Which cervical segment is immediately superior to C4?

59
Q

What feature of C2 obscures the spinous process of C3?

A

The bifid and relatively massive spinous process of C2.

60
Q

How can the spinous process of C2 be palpated?

A

Locate the external occipital protuberance (EOP) and palpate inferiorly.

61
Q

What anatomical structures make up the articular pillars of the cervical spine?

A
  • Superior articular processes
  • Inferior articular processes
  • Intervening facet joints
62
Q

How can the articular pillars be located?

A

Begin at the posterior midline over the spinous processes and palpate anteriorly and laterally.

63
Q

What is the importance of the inferior tip of the mastoid process?

A

It is a reference landmark for locating the transverse process of the atlas.

64
Q

What motion can help locate the tip of the mastoid process?

A

Laterally flexing the client’s head.

65
Q

What should be considered when assessing the range of motion in clients?

A
  • Hypermobility
  • Degenerative joint disease (DJD)
  • Muscle bulk
66
Q

What are the two types of range of motion assessments?

A
  • Passive Range of Motion (PROM)
  • Active Range of Motion (AROM)
67
Q

Fill in the blank: C1 is usually obscured by the large bifid spinous process of _______.

68
Q

What can be used to palpate the transverse processes of C1?

A

Locate the tip of the mastoid process.

69
Q

True or False: The spinous processes of the cervical vertebrae are important for evaluating rotation, lateral bending, and circumduction.

70
Q

What anatomical landmarks are palpated in the thoracic spine?

A
  • Spinous Processes (SPs)
  • Transverse Processes (TPs)
  • Ribs
  • Scapulae
  • Clavicle
71
Q

Which muscles are commonly palpated in the thoracic region?

A
  • Rhomboids
  • Levator Scapula
  • Supraspinatus
  • Upper Trapezius
  • Pectoralis Minor
  • Latissimus Dorsi
  • Deltoid
  • Infraspinatus
72
Q

How do you locate the TP of T1-T3?

A

The TP is one interspinous space above and approximately 2.5 cm lateral to the spinous of the segment palpated.

73
Q

Where is the TP located for T4?

A

The TP is 2.5 cm lateral to the upper 1/3 of the T3 spinous.

74
Q

What is the TP location for T5-T9?

A

The TP is two interspinous spaces above and approximately 2.5 cm lateral to the spinous of the segment palpated.

75
Q

How is the TP of T10 located?

A

The TP of T10 is approximately 2.0 cm lateral to the spinous of T9.

76
Q

What is unique about the TP of T11-T12?

A

The TP is one interspinous space above and approximately 1.25 cm lateral to the spinous palpated.

77
Q

What is the significance of T12 as a transitional vertebra?

A

T12 resembles a lumbar vertebra and has distinct palpation techniques.

78
Q

What is the vertebral prominens (VP)?

A

The VP is usually C7 (70%), but it can also be T1.

79
Q

How can T1 be located using palpation techniques?

A

Use the motion properties of the C6 spinous process and count down two interspinous spaces to locate T1.

80
Q

At what level is the spinous process of T3 located?

A

At the level of the root of the scapular spine.

81
Q

What is the vertical dimension of the T10 spinous process?

A

The smallest among the thoracic vertebrae.

82
Q

How can the inferior angle of the scapula be found?

A

By sliding your hand up the client’s side with your thumb pointing upward.

83
Q

How is the rhomboids muscle palpated?

A

Palpate along the vertebral border while the patient lifts their hand off their back.

84
Q

What landmarks are used for palpating the Levator Scapula?

A
  • Superior angle of scapula (insertion)
  • Transverse processes of C1-C4 (origin)
85
Q

What is the palpation technique for the Upper Trapezius?

A

Place fingers on the top of the shoulder and ask the patient to shrug.

86
Q

Where is the Supraspinatus muscle located?

A

In the supraspinous fossa above the spine of the scapula.

87
Q

What is the insertion point for the Deltoid muscle?

A

Deltoid tuberosity of the humerus.

88
Q

How is the Pectoralis Minor palpated?

A

Locate the coracoid process and move inferomedially to palpate beneath the pectoralis major.

89
Q

What is the origin of the Latissimus Dorsi?

A
  • Inferior angle of the scapula
  • Thoracolumbar fascia
  • Iliac crest
90
Q

What should the clinician do when palpating the Latissimus Dorsi?

A

Ask the patient to extend, adduct, or internally rotate the shoulder against resistance.

91
Q

Fill in the blank: The spinous process of T4 typically demonstrates the _______.

A

[largest vertical dimension]

92
Q

True or False: The spinous processes of thoracic vertebrae are short and wide.

93
Q

What is the relationship between T6 and the inferior angle of the scapula when the patient is prone?

A

The spinous process of T6 is at the level of the inferior angle of the scapula.

94
Q

What should you know for performing postural assessment from posterior and lateral views?

A

Landmarks required for performing postural assessment.

95
Q

What general observations should be looked for during postural assessment?

A

Potential discrepancies in someone’s posture.

96
Q

What joints are involved in the biomechanics of the upper limb?

A
  • GHJ
  • Elbow
  • Wrist
  • Fingers
97
Q

What is the importance of considering anatomy and biomechanics in postural assessment?

A

To understand what other structures may be overworking/underworking to cause postural variation.

98
Q

What is postural analysis in the context of clinical assessment?

A

One piece of the puzzle that is the entire clinical picture.

99
Q

What does the term ‘End Play’ refer to?

A

Assesses elastic properties of the joint capsule and periarticular soft tissues.

100
Q

What happens when the elastic limits of a joint are reached during passive movement?

A

Movement into the ‘end-play zone’ occurs.

101
Q

What is the physiological barrier in relation to end feel?

A

The maximum range of physiological motion.

102
Q

How are end-feel findings documented in a chiropractic setting?

A

In chiropractic examination notes to assist in determining the appropriate spinal segment to adjust.

103
Q

What is assessed during spinal end play assessment?

A

The point at which resistance is encountered, the quality of that resistance, and associated tenderness.

104
Q

What is the difference between capsular and muscular end feel?

A

It comes with practice to differentiate between the two.

105
Q

What does joint play evaluate?

A

A joint’s resistance to movement in a neutral or ‘loosely packed position.’

106
Q

What may cause restrictions of joint motion?

A

Muscle spasming, splinting, hypertrophy, aging, or contracture.

107
Q

What defines active range of motion (AROM)?

A

Movement that is actively produced by the patient.

108
Q

What defines passive range of motion (PROM)?

A

Movements carried through by the clinician without the conscious assistance or resistance of the patient.

109
Q

What is the elastic barrier in joint motion?

A

The end of a joint’s elastic limit, after which joint cavitation occurs.

110
Q

What is the purpose of the palpation hand during motion palpation?

A

To establish bony or soft tissue contacts over the joint.

111
Q

What does the indifferent hand do during motion palpation?

A

Produces or guides movement.

112
Q

What are the landmarks commonly used in spinal evaluation?

A
  • Spinous processes
  • Articular pillars
  • Transverse process
  • Rib angles
  • Mammillary processes
113
Q

What is the consequence of carrying a joint beyond its anatomic limit?

A

Injury results.

114
Q

What is the aim of manual adjusting in terms of velocity and amplitude?

A

High velocity, low amplitude.

115
Q

What are the learning objectives for postural assessment?

A

Understand principles of postural assessment, biomechanics of the upper limb, perform a basic postural assessment, and conduct motion palpation, joint play, and end-feel of the cervical spine.

116
Q

What should you know for performing postural assessment from posterior and lateral views?

A

Landmarks required for performing postural assessment.

117
Q

What is considered ‘good’ posture?

A

Maintaining alignment of structures in relation to the rest of the body, placing joint structures, muscles, tendons, and ligaments in the least stressful resting position.

118
Q

What is ‘bad’ posture?

A

Adaptation of anatomy and biomechanics resulting in excessive stress causing pain/discomfort or impacting quality of life.

119
Q

What are examples of ‘bad’ posture causes?

A
  • Lifestyle-based (e.g. desk work) * Structural in nature (e.g. scoliosis, structural short leg)
120
Q

What are the classic postures in postural analysis?

A
  • Standing posture * Sitting posture * Lying posture
121
Q

What is the ideal sitting posture?

A

Hips, knees, and elbows bent at 90º with a neutral/straight spine.

122
Q

What impacts posture?

A
  • Anatomy/Physiology * Behaviors * External factors (e.g. footwear, heavy backpacks) * Clinical conditions (e.g. scoliosis, stroke) * Age
123
Q

What is the significance of postural changes?

A

Postural changes can be the cause or effect of a clinical problem.

124
Q

What are some posterior landmarks to assess during postural analysis?

A
  • EOP * Mastoid process * ACJ * Inferior angle of scapula * Lower rib cage * Iliac crests * PSIS * Greater trochanter * Ischial tuberosities * Popliteal fossa * Achilles
125
Q

What are some lateral landmarks to assess during postural analysis?

A
  • EAM * Cervical lordosis * Acromion/ACJ * Thoracic Kyphosis * Lumbar Lordosis * Iliac crest * Greater trochanter * Midline of lateral tibiofemoral joint * Lateral malleolus
126
Q

What methods are used for postural assessment?

A
  • Observation * Inspection * Palpation * Range of motion assessment
127
Q

What should be considered during postural assessment?

A

Anatomy, biomechanics, muscle contour, skin condition, and patient comfort.

128
Q

What are the common signs to observe during postural analysis?

A
  • Antalgia * Deformities of the spine * Spinal symmetry * Alignment and symmetry of body parts * Loss or increase of lordosis and kyphosis
129
Q

What lifestyle recommendations can be made based on postural assessment?

A
  • Lifestyle advice * Strength training * MSK rehab (yoga and pilates) * Soft tissue therapies * Dry Needling * Adjusting
130
Q

What is the role of the vestibular system in posture?

A

It helps maintain balance and spatial orientation.

131
Q

Fill in the blank: ‘Postural analysis is one piece of the puzzle that is the entire _______.

A

clinical picture

132
Q

True or False: ‘Good posture’ is defined by achieving ‘perfect posture’.

133
Q

What is a common impact of sitting posture on the spine?

A

Sitting puts a lot of stress on the spine.

134
Q

What should be the position of the spine when lying down?

A

Neutral with shoulders over the hips and no rotation.

135
Q

What cognitive process influences posture and gait control?

A

The cognitive process of posture-gait control as described by Takakusaki K.

136
Q

What are some examples of daily activities that can impact posture?

A
  • Work posture * Exercise (or lack of) * Mobile device usage (e.g. ‘text neck’)
137
Q

What are some conditions that can lead to postural changes?

A
  • Scheuermann’s disease * Gibbus deformity * MVA and impact trauma * Surgery * CNS disorders