Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Advanced health assessment > AHA Exam 3 > Flashcards

AHA Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

With female rectal exam a lax sphincter may indicate what?

A

neurologic deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

With female rectal exam absent sphincter tone may indicate what?

A

improper repair of 3rd degree perineal laceration after childbirth or trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Extremely tight sphincter in female rectal exam may indicate what?

A

anxiety, scarring, or spasticity from fissures, lesions, or inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you get a child to relax sphincter muscles with rectal exam?

A

Pant like a puppy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should a normal prostate feel like?

A

firm, smooth, and slightly movable, nontender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does cancer of the prostate feel like?

A

stony hard nodularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lack of anal wink in a child indicates what?

A

lower spinal cord lesion or chronic abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What type of hernia is most common in young men?

A

Indirect (inguinal canal, can pass into scrotum, may be bilateral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of hernia is most common in men greater than 40?

A

Direct (palpated medial to external canal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common hernia for women

A

Femoral (near femoral vessels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

inability to replace foreskin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is hypospadius?

A

urethral meatus on ventral surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What male GU condition includes yellow green discharge and pain or burning with urination?

A

Gonococcal urethritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

NGU is most often related to what condition?

A

Chlamydia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a hydrocele?

A

accumulation of fluid in the tunica vaginalis. Does transilluminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a spermatocele?

A

swelling of the epididymis; transilluminates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a varicocele?

A

engorged veins in the spermatic cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Orchitis is associated with what condition?

A

Mumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the causes for epididymitis?

A

UTI or STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Is a testicular tumor tendor?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Kleinfelter syndrome is what type of chromosome disorder?

A

XXY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis usually includes what symptoms?

A

fever, perineal pain, back pain, frequency, hurts when they sit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Benign prostatic hypertrophy is common after what age?

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Molluscum contagiosum has what type of appearance?

A

viral flesh colored papules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What condition causes deviation of the penis?

A

Peyronie disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Penile cancer typically occurs in what type of male?

A

Uncircumsized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What condition is described as a ‘bag of worms”

A

Vericocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Epididymitis is most often associated with what?

A

STDs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Testicular cancer appears in what age of men?

A

young

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Chronic pelvic prostatitis lasts for how long?

A

3-6 months: frequent UTIs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do you detect asymptomatic inflammatory prostatitis?

A

WBC in prostatic secretions with or without pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Name for injury to nails from picking at them

A

tic deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

nail lifts from nail bed; inflammation and thickening of nail

A

oncholysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hangnail with infection

A

paronychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Nail infected with tinea fungus

A

tinea unguium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

splitting of nails related to iron deficiency anemia

A

kollonychia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

lines across nails that often occur with major illness

A

Beau lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

appearance of nails with poor protein intake

A

white banding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

condition that may cause pitting of the nails as well as lesions on skin

A

psoriasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Term that means all over

A

diffuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

term that means distinct or by itself

A

discrete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

term that means lesions run together

A

confluent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

AST/ALT ratio <1 indicates what?

A

liver damage or hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

AST/ALT ratio >1 indicates what?

A

alcoholic liver disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What test is more specific to ETOH?

A

GGT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ALT more specific to what?

A

liver damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

AST reflective of what?

A

skeletal muscle and alcohol intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

ALP and ALT elevation specific to what condition

A

cholecystitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Total cholesterol should be what?

A

<200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

LDL is ideally less than what?

A

<130

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

HDL should be what in men?

A

> 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

HDL should be what in women?

A

> 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Triglycerides should be what?

A

<150

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

With prerenal failure, what happens to labs?

A

BUN elevates significantly, creatinine more slowly, BUN/Cr ration >20; Urine osmo >400 and urine Na <20 confirms dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What happens to labs with intra renal failure?

A

BUN rises gradually, creatinine rises rapidly, BUN/Cr ratio <20; Urine osmo <400 and Na >30

56
Q

What happens to labs with post renal failure?

A

BUN and Creatinine both increase

57
Q

What 5 things indicate a quality X-ray?

A

Inspiration 9-10 ribs; Rotation: vertebral process between the clavicles; Penetration: vertebral processes visible to the aortic notch; entire lung field is visible; clavicle is over the 3rd rib

58
Q

What condition on x-ray has flattened diaphrams, increased retrosternal space, and fewer markings

A

COPD: appears black because of hyperinflation of lungs

59
Q

What condition on xray has batwing markings, Kerly B lines, enlarged cardiac sillhouette?

A

CHF

60
Q

What 5 things are included in a pediatric assessment?

A

For infants <2 months, include prenatal and birth history; feeding patterns; stooling pattern; activity/ sleep/ Milestones

61
Q

At what age should an infant be able to keep his head aligned with his body?

A

4 months

62
Q

If delayed head lag, what is the possible link?

A

autism

63
Q

What is the Moro reflex?

A

full body extension

64
Q

When does the Moro reflex disappear?

A

2 months

65
Q

When does the stepping reflex disappear?

A

2 months

66
Q

When does the rooting reflex disappear?

A

4 months

67
Q

When does the fencing reflex disappear?

A

5-7 months

68
Q

When does the palmar grasp disappear?

A

5-6 months

69
Q

When does the plantar grasp disappear?

A

9-12 months

70
Q

At what age should a child be able to say their name, say several words, point to requests, and use a spoon?

A

18 months

71
Q

At what age should a baby be able to transfer objects hand to hand, roll over prone to supine, sit unsupported, and babble and repeat vowels?

A

6 months

72
Q

At what age should a child be able to roll over supine to prone, pull objects to mouth, and respond to human voice?

A

4 months

73
Q

At what age should a child walk with or without support, experience separation anxiety, use gestures, copy sounds and actions, and follow simple instructions?

A

12 months

74
Q

At what age should a child be able to pretend play, tell stories, sing songs, hop on 1 foot and catch a ball?

A

4 years

75
Q

At what age should a child be able to follow objects especially faces, hold head up when prone, and turn toward sounds?

A

2 months

76
Q

At what age should a child have a pincer grasp, crawl and cruise, stand with help, play patty cake or peek a boo, and say Momma, dada, and bye bye

A

9 months

77
Q

At what age should a child be able to copy shapes, dress and undress, identify body parts, and use complete sentences?

A

3 years

78
Q

At what age should a child be able to copy a line, run, be self centered, use 2-4 word sentences, parallel play, and be ready for toilet training

A

2 years

79
Q

How long should a head circumference be measured in an infant?

A

Each visit up to 2 years

80
Q

When can you start checking a blood pressure on a child?

A

3 years

81
Q

When should anemia be assessed in peds?

A

assess risk at 4 months and 2 years, check at 12 months, and assess risk in adolescent females

82
Q

When should lead levels be checked in peds?

A

Assess risk at 6-9 months, check lead levels at 1 year unless low risk, assess and check at 2 years if high risk

83
Q

When should you screen for autism?

A

9, 18, and 24 months

84
Q

What are screening risks for autism?

A

premature, family history, developmental delays)

85
Q

What types of tests are available to assess for autism?

A

M-CHAT or ages and stages

86
Q

When should hearing be checked?

A

newborn, at each visit

87
Q

How often should objective hearing tests be performed on children?

A

4, 5, 6, 8, and 10 years

88
Q

How do you check vision in a newborn and at 2 weeks?

A

corneal light reflex and red reflex

89
Q

How often should an objective vision screen be done in peds?

A

3, 4, 5, 6, 8, 10, 12, 15, 17

90
Q

When can you start supplementing nutrition with formula in an infant?

A

4-6 months

91
Q

When can whole milk be introduced to children?

A

1 year

92
Q

At what age should children switch to low fat milk?

A

2 years

93
Q

When can fluoride supplement be started on children?

A

6 months

94
Q

When can you wean from bottle to cup in children?

A

1 year

95
Q

When can a child first visit the dentist?

A

1 year

96
Q

When do dental assessments have to be done?

A

4-5 years and 9th grade

97
Q

How long should an infant not be exposed to direct sun?

A

6 months

98
Q

How long should an infant sleep on their back?

A

6 months

99
Q

Tanner stage breast: enlarges, areola and papilla form secondary contour

A

Stage 4

100
Q

Tanner stage breast: breast buds

A

Stage 2

101
Q

Tanner stage breast: small mounds beyond areola

A

Stage 3

102
Q

Tanner female pubic area: course curly hair spreads

A

Stage 3

103
Q

Tanner female pubic area: downy straight hair on labia majora

A

Stage 2

104
Q

Tanner female pubic area: hair involves medial thighs

A

Stage 5

105
Q

Tanner female pubic area: hair covers pubis

A

Stage 4

106
Q

Tanner boys: penis and scrotum increase to adult size, hair to interior thighs

A

Stage 5

107
Q

Tanner boys: scrotum enlarges, slightly reddens, straight downy hair

A

Stage 2

108
Q

Tanner boys: penis increases in length and circumference, hair covers pubis

A

Stage 4

109
Q

Tanner boys: scrotum continues to enlarge, penis lengthens, hair becomes course and curly

A

Stage 3

110
Q

Name for external representation via choice of clothing and/or mannerisms

A

gender expression

111
Q

Name for assigned gender based on physical attributes

A

sex at birth

112
Q

Female sex at birth living as male

A

transman

113
Q

personal sense on one’s own sexuality

A

gender identification

114
Q

sexual attraction (to male, female, both, or neither)

A

sexual orientation

115
Q

social and cultural expectations for behavior

A

gender norms

116
Q

What sexual orientation should have 3 swabs done to check for STD’s?

A

men having sex with men

117
Q

What sexual orientation is at highest risk for STI’s?

A

Bisexual women

118
Q

What type of patient should be offered a PreP?

A

men with male HIV positive partner

119
Q

What type of patient should have a prostate evaluation and mammogram?

A

Trans gender men over 50

120
Q

A chest xray shows a fissure and appears gray and fuzzy on one side

A

Pneumonia

121
Q

A chest xray shows costovertebral angle blunted on one side. Difficult to see diaphragm

A

Pleural effusion

122
Q

A chest xray shows diaphragms flattened. Lungs mostly black on film; barrel chest

A

emphysema

123
Q

How does cardiomegaly appear on xray?

A

heart fills more than 50% of the chest

124
Q

What happens to WBC count with a bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils will increase and lymphocytes will decrease

125
Q

What happens to WBC count with a viral infection?

A

neutrophyls or segs will decrease and lymphocytes will increase

126
Q

What happens to the white blood cell after an infection resolves?

A

monocytes increase

127
Q

What happens to WBC count with an acute infection?

A

bands increase

128
Q

high amylase, normal lipase indicate what condition?

A

early pancreatitis

129
Q

On chest xray, a thin black line just under the right diaphragm indicates what condition?

A

Free air in the abdomen

130
Q

On chest xray, linear densities indicate what condition?

A

pneumonia

131
Q

On xray, flattened diaphragms indicate what condition?

A

COPD

132
Q

Which hilem is higher on chest xray?

A

left

133
Q

Which diaphragm is higher on chest xray?

A

right

134
Q

Left shift on CBC indicates what?

A

bacterial infection

135
Q

High TSH indicates what?

A

hypothyroid

136
Q

High AST, high GGT indicates what?

A

alcoholism

137
Q

ALT is much higher than AST

A

hepatitis

Advanced health assessment (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions