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AGK Flashcards

1
Q

What do the seals around the piston do?

A

Prevent the loss of power around sides and the passage of oil to combustion chamber

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2
Q

What does the inlet valve do?

A

Allows Fuel/Air mixture into cyclinder

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3
Q

What is the four stroke cycle?

A

Induction
Compression
Power
Exhaust

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4
Q

What happens in intake?

A

Fuel/air sucked into cylinder
Piston goes down
air flows through carburettor and onto cylinder via inlet valve and manifold

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5
Q

What happens in compression?

A

Inlet valve closes
Piston moves up
Pressure of fuel/air mixture increases
temp increases

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6
Q

When does the spark ignite the fuel/air mixture

A

Near completion of compression

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7
Q

What happens during power stroke?

A

Piston driven down

exhaust valve opens just prior to completion

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8
Q

What happens during exhaust stroke?

A

Piston goes up

Burned gases escape via exhaust manifold

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9
Q

Why is some exhaust heat reclaimed?

A

For carby heat

Mixed with cold air for cabin air

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10
Q

How many rotations do you get out of one complete stroke?

A

2 rotations

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11
Q

What is the top dead centre

A

Piston top of stroke

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12
Q

What does a higher compression do?

A

More power but need higher quantity of fuel and results in more cylinder wear

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13
Q

What is the compression ratio?

A

Total Volume / Clearance Volume

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14
Q

What controls the timing of the inlet and exhaust valve timing?

A

Camshaft that is gear driven by the crankshaft

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15
Q

When does the inlet valve open?

A

Just prior to TDC, known as valve lead

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16
Q

When does the inlet valve close?

A

Just prior to BDC, known as valve lag

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17
Q

What is valve overlap?

A

When both valves are open together

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18
Q

What does better valve timing do to the engine volume efficiency?

A

Increases engine volume efficiency

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19
Q

What is the most effective crank angle between con rod and crank web?

A

90 degrees

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20
Q

At what angle does ignition occur?

A

25 degrees before top dead centre

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21
Q

At what angle does peak pressure occur?

A

30 degrees after top dead centre

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22
Q

What is the power formula?

A

(Force x Distance) / Time

or thrust x velocity

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23
Q

What does a higher compression do?

A

More power but need higher quantity of fuel and results in more cylinder wear

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24
Q

What is volumetric efficiency?

A

Ratio of actual weight of mixture in cylinder after closure of valves TO weight of mixture present if no resistance to flow
Expressed as %

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25
Q

What controls the timing of the inlet and exhaust valve timing?

A

Camshaft that is gear driven by the crankshaft

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26
Q

When does the inlet valve open?

A

Just prior to TDC, known as valve lead

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27
Q

When does the inlet valve close?

A

Just prior to BDC, known as valve lag

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28
Q

What is valve overlap?

A

When both valves are open together

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29
Q

What does better valve timing do to the engine volume efficiency?

A

Increases engine volume efficiency

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30
Q

What is the most effective crank angle between con rod and crank web?

A

90 degrees

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31
Q

What happens after take off at approximately 300 ft and 2500rpm?

A

MP drops to approximately 25 in. Hg

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32
Q

At what angle does peak pressure occur?

A

30 degrees after top dead centre

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33
Q

What is the power formula?

A

(Force x Distance) / Time

or thrust x velocity

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34
Q

What does one horsepower equal?

A

33000 feet pounds/min
550 ft/s
0.746 kW

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35
Q

What happens to the engine output with a loss in oil temperature?

A

Cannot deliver full power

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36
Q

What is thermal efficiency?

A

Ratio of power actually produced by engine TP power theoretically available in fuel

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37
Q

What is the advantages of impulse coupling?

A

Higher volt to create stronger spark
Retard ignition timing at low RPM until TDC
Immediately after start allow timing of spark to return to normal (approx 25 degrees before TDC)

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38
Q

What are the max rpm drops for the magnetto check?

A

max 125 rpm drop with max 50 inbetween

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39
Q

As the throttle is increase to 1500 rpm, what happens to MP?

A

increases to roughly 15 in. Hg

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40
Q

At take off rpm of 2500-2650rpm, what happens to MP?

A

Increases to roughly 28 in. Hg

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41
Q

What happens after take off at approximately 300 ft and 2500rpm?

A

MP drops to approximately 25 in. Hg

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42
Q

What is the most important parameter for engine monitoring?

A

Oil Pressure

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43
Q

What happens if there is a large oil pressure drop?

A

Engine likely to fail

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44
Q

What happens to the oil temperature if the is a loss in pressure?

A

Temperature will rise

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45
Q

What happens to the engine output with a loss in oil temperature?

A

Cannot deliver full power

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46
Q

What is the likely cause of the fuel pressure fluctuating?

A

Air is likely to be present

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47
Q

What are some symptoms of pre-ignition?

A

Rough running
Back firing
high CHT

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48
Q

What are the max rpm drops for the magnetto check?

A

max 125 rpm drop with max 50 inbetween

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49
Q

What does the accelerator pump do?

A

Adds extra squirt of fuel when throttle is pushed fully open

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50
Q

Why do we have an accelerator pump?

A

Airflow increases at a rate greater than the fuel flow, resulting in a weaker mixture

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51
Q

What will leaning to peak EGT do?

A

Best economy

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52
Q

What are the symptoms of icing?

A

Power loss
MP drop
loss in airspeed
rough running

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53
Q

What can an over rich mixture lead to?

A

Loss of power, higher fuel consumption, fouling of plugs and formation of carbon on piston heads and valves

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54
Q

What can over lean mixture do?

A

Detonation and high CHT

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55
Q

What is the cause of detonation?

A

Lower fuel grade
Over leaned mixture
Too high MP
over Heated engine

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56
Q

How do we cure detonation?

A

Mixture rich
Throttle back
increase airspeed

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57
Q

What are some symptoms of pre-ignition?

A

Rough running
Back firing
high CHT

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58
Q

When can carburettor ice occur?

A

Humidity above 50%

OAT as high as 35 degrees celcius

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59
Q

What happens if you go higher than full throttle height?

A

Decrease in MP

Power reduces as altitude increases

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60
Q

What is fuel ice/fuel vapour ice?

A

Downstream of jet where fuel introduced to carburettor airstream

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61
Q

What is throttle ice?

A

Fuel/air mixture of gases accelerate past throttle valve leading to decrease in static pressure and temp.
ice on throttle valve

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62
Q

What are the symptoms of icing?

A

Power loss
MP drop
loss in airspeed
rough running

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63
Q

What happens when you apply full carby heat?

A

Drop in RPM due to less dense hot air

Mixture enrichens

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64
Q

What is used to supply intake manifold with more pressure?

A

Compressor

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65
Q

What does a increase pressure do from the compressor?

A

Increase mass of air
Additional fuel supplied
more power

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66
Q

What are the advantages of maintaining MP?

A

Maintaining MP maintains density of air fed into the engine so power output can remain constant with increasing altitude

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67
Q

What is the difference between internal supercharge and turbocharger?

A

Internal supercharge uses mechanically drive compressor

Turbo charger uses exhaust gas from engine to turn turbine which turns compressor

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68
Q

What is the sequence for decreasing power?

A

Decrease MP, decrease RPM

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69
Q

What happens if you go higher than full throttle height?

A

Decrease in MP

Power reduces as altitude increases

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70
Q

What happens to the MP as you climb in a supercharger engine?

A

MP maintained and power increases. The power increase is due to increase in volumetric efficiency

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71
Q

How is the exhaust gases brought from the engine to the turbine in a turbo charged engine?

A

Through the wast gate valve

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72
Q

What happens if there is a leak upstream from the waste gate valve?

A

Engine acts as through normally aspirated

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73
Q

What happens if there is a leak downstream from the waste gate valve?

A

No effect

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74
Q

What is a likely cause of manifold pressure fluctuations?

A

Sticky waste gate valve

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75
Q

What pitch should be selected at low speeds and high rpm?

A

fine pitch

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76
Q

What pitch should be selected at high speeds and low rpm?

A

Coarse pitch

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77
Q

What is the sequence for increasing power?

A

Mixture rich, increase RPM, increase MP

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78
Q

What is the sequence for decreasing power?

A

Decrease MP, decrease RPM

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79
Q

Which is larger, CTM or ATM?

A

CTM

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80
Q

What does CTM attempt to do?

A

move pitch to fine

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81
Q

What happens in a CSU if there is carby ice?

A

MP drops, RPM remains constant

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82
Q

What is windmilling?

A

When the prop drives the engine

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83
Q

When is windmilling likely to occur?

A

Steep dive
Power off
Engine failure

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84
Q

Why would we feather a prop?

A

to minimise drag following an engine failure

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85
Q

What pitch should be selected at low speeds?

A

fine pitch

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86
Q

What pitch should be selected at high speeds?

A

Coarse pitch

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87
Q

What does the McCauley system do?

A

through oil pressure, moves to coarse pitch and seeks fine pitch through springs

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88
Q

What does the Hartzell system do?

A

Through oil pressure moves to fine pitch, counter weight moves to coarse pitch

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89
Q

What happens if there is a loss in oil pressure in the McCauley system

A

Fine pitch stop

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90
Q

What happens is there is a loss in oil pressure in the Harzell system?

A

Coarse pitch stop

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91
Q

What is the formula for aspect ratio?

A

Span / chord
or
Span squared / blade area

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92
Q

What is feathering?

A

Aligning the chord line of prop with airflow

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93
Q

Why would we feather a prop?

A

to minimise drag following an engine failure

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94
Q

Dual ignition on an aircraft engine provides extra safety and what during flight?

A

More efficient combustion of charge during power stroke

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95
Q

If mixture is set to peak EGT, enrichening the mixture without adjusting the throttle will cause the power to?

A

Increase then decrease

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96
Q

How long should take off power be used?

A

To a limit of about three minutes

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97
Q

What is the purpose of a booster pump?

A

To guard against vapour lock

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98
Q

Application of carby heat when ice in present with a CSU will result in?

A

initial drop then increase in MP

Constant RPM

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99
Q

If the engine is flooded, what is the correct way to start it again?

A

Mixture idle cut off
Throttle full open
crank and re-start

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100
Q

What is the main difference between CHT and EGT in regards to heat?

A

CHT responds more slowly to combustion temp change

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101
Q

Fluctuating fuel pressure indicates what?

A

Fuel vapourization

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102
Q

When is fuel vaporisation likely to occur?

A

Hot fuel and low atmospheric conditions

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103
Q

Dual ignition on an aircraft engine provides extra safety and what during flight?

A

More efficient combustion of charge during power stroke

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104
Q

Aircraft electric system operates at constant?

A

Voltage

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105
Q

If the alternator fails during flight, what will be shown on the centre zero ammeter?

A

discharge shown on CZA

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106
Q

Circuit breakers and fuses protect against?

A

Too many amps

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107
Q

Capacity of the battery is measure in?

A

Amp hours

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108
Q

A leak in the induction system of turbocharged engine with automatic boost control will be noticed when?

A

on climb to high level

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109
Q

What are bearings?

A

Ensure minimum wearing and friction

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110
Q

What is the formula for Brake Horse Power?

A

BHP = Indicated Horse Power - Frictional Horse Power

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111
Q

Describe radial engines

A 
Used in older aircraft
Pistons radically around crankshaft
Excellent power to weight ratio
Good cooling
Large frontal area creates high drag and low visibility
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112
Q

What is the ideal stoichiometric ratio? What about rich and lean?

A

15 parts air to 1 part fuel (ideal)

8: 1 rich
20: 1 lean

113
Q

What do you need to do in regards to the mixture if the density decrease?

A

Lean mixture

114
Q

What are the symptoms of detonation?

A

High and increasing CHT
Significant power loss
Engine vibration
‘Pinging’ from engine

115
Q

What are the symptoms of pre ignition?

A

Rough running
Back firing
Rise CHT
Engine damage

116
Q

Where is heat in combustion removed?

A

half through exhaust gases

rest through cylinder walls to cooling fins and via engine oil to cooler

117
Q

When are cowl flaps opened and closed?

A

Open during take off and climb

Closed during descent and cruise

118
Q

What happens if cowl flaps left open during cruise?

A

Increase drag and reduce airspeed

119
Q

What is the oil like if it has high viscosity

A

thick and sticky (cold)

120
Q

What is the oil like if it has low viscosity?

A

Thin and runny (hot)

121
Q

What does the pressure relief valve do?

A

Allows oil to return to inlet side of pump if oil pressure is too high

122
Q

A scavenge pump and external oil tank are used in which oil system?

A

Dry sump

123
Q

What does the antisurge and thermostatic bypass valve allow?

A

allows oil to bypass cooler when starting cold

also allows to bypass cooler if bloked

124
Q

What does a generator do?

A

Supplies DC by rotating magnetic field in vicinity of coiled conductor.
Magnetic field provided by permanent magnet’s strength cant be changed

125
Q

What happens when the RPM is low in a generator?

A

Generator volts too low so battery must assist

126
Q

What happens the RPM is high in a generator?

A

Generator output can get too high and must be controlled by voltage regulator

127
Q

What does an alternator do?

A

Magnetic field provided by electromagnet who’s strength can be altered

128
Q

What happens at low RPM in an alternator?

A

Power sent to electromagnet can be increased

129
Q

What happens at high RPM in an alternator?

A

Power sent to electromagnet can be decreased

130
Q

What does a left centre zero ammeter measure?

A

Alternator output

131
Q

What does centre zero ammeter measure?

A

Current to and from battery

132
Q

What does a position on CZA mean?

A

Current into battery a charge

133
Q

What does a negative on CZA mean?

A

Battery dicharge

134
Q

What does excessive negative on CZA mean?

A

Alternator has failed/battery is being drained

135
Q

What does excessive positive on CZA mean?

A

Battery is not holding/accepting a charge

136
Q

What does the voltmeter measure with alternator running?

A

Measure alternator output

137
Q

What does a voltmeter measure prior to engine start up with master on?

A

Battery voltage

138
Q

What do relays and solenoids do?

A

Remove dangerous high tension leads running into cockpit

139
Q

What is a relay?

A

Allows pilot to switch light current on which is applied to solenoid?

140
Q

What is a solenoid?

A

Metal bar placed inside a coil

When light current applied, magnetic field pushes through coil and completes a heavy circuit

141
Q

What does a rectifier do?

A

Converts AC to DC current

142
Q

What does a inverter do?

A

Converts DC to AC

143
Q

What does a fuse protect from?

A

Protects from too high current (amps)

144
Q

What does the condenser do?

A

Prevents unwanted sparks across breaker points. Stores current when circuit is broken

145
Q

During you magneto check, there is an excessive RPM drop with the engine running smoothly, what could this be?

A

Magnetto timing is incorrect

146
Q

During your magneto check, there is excessive RPM drop and rough running, what could this be?

A

Spark plugs fouled/faulty

147
Q

During your magneto check, there is no RPM drop and engine runs smoothly, what could this be?

A

Fault in the switch or wiring

Magnetos remain live

148
Q

When is spark fouling likely to occur?

A

During prolonged descents with low power

149
Q

With regards to RPM, what happens if engine torque is equal to prop torque?

A

RPM is constant

150
Q

With regards to RPM, what happens if engine torque is greater than prop torque?

A

RPM will increase

151
Q

With regards to RPM, what happens if engine torque is less than prop torque?

A

RPM will decrease

152
Q

What pitch should you select for climbs?

A

Fine pitch

153
Q

Define fine pitch?

A

Climb prop
used for low airspeeds
Small blade angle
Small geometric pitch

154
Q

What pitch should you use during the cruise?

A

Coarse pitch

155
Q

Define coarse pitch

A

Cruise prop
Used for High speeds
Large blade angle
Large geometric pitch

156
Q

What is geometric pitch?

A

How far the prop would theoretically movie forward in one rev

157
Q

What is aerodynamic twisting moment?

A

Attempting to twist blade to coarse pitch

158
Q

What is centrifugal twisting moment?

A

Attempting to twist blade to fine pitch

159
Q

Which is stronger, ctm or atm?

A

CTM

160
Q

Where is the blade angle greater, hub or tip?

A

Hub

161
Q

What happens if the speeder spring fails?

A

fly weigh fling outwards
governor senses overspeed
blades coarsen
large rpm

162
Q

How do you lean for best power?

A

slightly rich of peak EGT

163
Q

How do you lean for best economy?

A

slightly lean of EGT

164
Q

What does the fuel vent do?

A

Allows air to flow into fuel tank to replace fuel

165
Q

What would happen if there was no fuel vent?

A

Fuel would be unable to enter lines

166
Q

What happens in the carburettor?

A

fuel/air is mixed in correct proportion for engine

167
Q

Where is the throttle valve in relation to venturi?

A

downstream

168
Q

What is ‘idling jet?’

A

at low engine speeds, uses low pressure at throttle butterfly lop to deliver fuel

169
Q

What is impact ice?

A

Super cooled dropletts freeze on impact with cold surface

170
Q

Where is impact likely to occur?

A

Air filter, manifold walls, throttle butterfly

171
Q

When is carby ice likely to occur?

A

Low power during long descent

172
Q

What can be done if the air filter is blocked?

A

Carby heat can be used as alternate air supply

173
Q

What does a fluctuating fuel pressure indicator likely to mean?

A

Fuel vapour is present

174
Q

What should you do if the fuel pressure indicator is fluctuating?

A

Use the boost pump

175
Q

What is cavitation?

A

Low and high pressure producing bubbles of vapour in fuel pump

176
Q

What does applying carby heat do in a fixed prop?

A

Causes RPM drop

177
Q

What does applying carby heat do in a variable pitch prop?

A

Drop in MP

178
Q

Where is manifold pressure measured?

A

At the inlet valve

179
Q

How does the compressor work?

A

Speeds the flow of air up

  1. Air enters at centre of impeller
  2. Centrifugal forces accelerates air outwards resulting in increased energy
  3. Air is slowed by diffuser, increasing pressure
  4. This compresses air and makes it more dense, which is then introduced through induction
180
Q

Why is a compressor used?

A

Compensates for lack of air with increasing altitude.

Pumps air into inlet manifold allowing power to be maintained with increasing altitude

181
Q

What is ground boosting?

A

Occurs when engine can achieve more power at sea level through use of compressor
MP can be increased above normal seal level value of 30in HG to approx 35 in Hg.

182
Q

Where is the supercharger linked to?

A

Linked to crankshaft via gears or belt driven

183
Q

With internal supercharger, where is the compressor located?

A

Between carburettor and inlet valve

184
Q

Where is the compressor located with an external supercharger?

A

Before carburettor

185
Q

Explain how gear driven supercharger gets air?

A

Crankshaft connected to gears allowing impeller to spin approx 10 times faster. This increases the MP

186
Q

What happens if the impeller spins too fast?

A

There could be too much pressure, leading to over boosting and detonation

187
Q

What is ‘rated boost’?

A

Recommended limitation of MP for supercharged engine

188
Q

What happens if you go over the rated boost?

A

Increasing the MP above the rated boost will result in detonation

189
Q

Explain how the turbo charge system works?

A

Uses exhaust gas to spin turbine which is connected to compressor before inlet of engine

190
Q

What happens if the waste gate is open?

A

Exhaust gases go overboard

191
Q

What happens if was gate is closed?

A

Exhaust gases diverted to turbine

192
Q

Why must the throttle be partly closed with a fixed waste gate?

A

To prevent overboosting

193
Q

How does the ‘throttle open wastegate’ work?

A

As butterfly valve begins to open, waste gate remains open. When b.v. fully open waste gate begins to rotate to closed position

194
Q

How does the automatic waste gate work?

A

Uses density and differential pressure to control and monitor waste gate

195
Q

What is the critical altitude?

A

With throttle fully open and waste gate closed, height above which engine power drops and aircraft climbs

196
Q

What is full throttle height?

A

Altitude where certain MP for full throttle not available

197
Q

What happens if there is a leak upstream of waste gate?

A

Engine will behave as though normally aspirated

198
Q

What happens if there is a leak downstream of wastegate?

A

No effect on turbo system

199
Q

What does fluctuations of manifold pressure indicate?

A

A sticky wastegate

200
Q

What is the main cause of turbine failure?

A

Turbine spinning at high RPM in very hot exhaust, leads to deformation of turbine blades

201
Q

How would you recognise turbine failure?

A

Smoke as oil from turbines is exposed to hot exhaust

202
Q

What is turbo lag?

A

Apparent lag in MP increase prior to closure of wastegate. Once waste gate begins to close MP increase at a greater rate.

203
Q

What is the main risk of turbo lag?

A

Risk of overboosting the engine

204
Q

Why is there turbo lag?

A

Compressor wont spin until the waste gate starts to close and airflow is directed over the turbine

205
Q

Why is the hydraulics reservoir vented?

A

To prevent vacuum forming as fluid is removed

206
Q

What is the purpose of the hydraulics reservoir?

A

To store fluid.

Feeds main power pump via standpipe

207
Q

How does the variable displacement hydraulic pump work?

A

Changes the volume of flow to meet demands of the system. Can be electric or engine drive

208
Q

How does the constant displacement hydraulic pump work?

A

Maintains constant volume of hydraulic fluid

209
Q

What is a pressure regulator and what pump is it used in?

A

Used in constant displacement pump

Spring loaded to relieve pressure when it reads a preset value. This allows oil to flow back to reservoir

210
Q

What does the accumulator do?

A

Stores oil pressure and assists pump to maintain pressure

211
Q

Why do we not use vegetable based hydraulic fluids?

A

They can’t be mixed

Form sludge and cause corrosion

212
Q

When can you use synthetic hydraulic fluids?

A

Only in systems designed for it

213
Q

What happens if there is air in the hydraulic system?

A

Lead to system over heating due to inadequate lubrication and cooling

214
Q

What happens if there is a leak in the hydraulic system?

A

Piston may slip back again after fluid begins to escape.

i.e. if 30 degrees flaps selected, the flaps may be begin to come back up again

215
Q

What happens if there is low accumulator pressure?

A

The pump must do more work which leads to slower operation. The operations will be noisier without surge protection

216
Q

Explain how the toe brakes work?

A

As pedal on rudder is depressed, this applies pressure to piston in master cylinder which is transmitted through brake line to slave cylinder. The slave cylinder presses brake pads on the brake discs.

217
Q

What happens if there is air in the brake system?

A

They feel spongy and brake effectiveness is reduced

218
Q

How do you fix air in the brake system?

A

Air must be bled of all air

219
Q

What will happen if there is a leak in the brake system?

A

Initially the system will feel normal but will be noticed as fluid levels decrease

220
Q

If the CoG is behind the main wheels, do we have a nose or tail wheel?

A

Tail wheel

221
Q

If the CoG is ahead of the main wheels, do we have a nose or tail wheel?

A

Nose

222
Q

What is stronger, tail + nose wheels or main wheels?

A

Main wheels. Nose/tail wheels cannot withstand as high a loads

223
Q

What is a spring steel strut?

A

Absorbs shocks by bending under load and then returning to original shape when load removed

224
Q

What is a ‘bungee’?

A

Elastic bands which absorb shocks by stretching under load

225
Q

How do oleo pneumatic struts work?

A

Piston acting against compressed gas (nitrogen) and oil in cylinder. The gas absorbs shocks and oil smooths out operations and prevents bouncing

226
Q

What are torque links?

A

In oleo fitted systems, prevents wheel turning on own accord

227
Q

What does the shimmy damper prevent?

A

Lateral vibration

228
Q

What does retracting the undercarriage reduce?

A

Parasite drag

229
Q

What is the retractable undercarriage powered by?

A

Electrical pump

230
Q

How do down locks work?

A

Locks the landing gear down with mechanical latches at end of extension cycle

231
Q

What is the squat switch?

A

Prevents system from activating when weight on wheels

232
Q

Why are there uplocks used?

A

Allows hydraulic system/electrical system to shut down after cycle

233
Q

What does a dry powder system do to extinguish fire?

A

When heated releases CO2 which doesnt support combustion

234
Q

Why should dry powder not be used in engine fires?

A

Residue is a corrosive

235
Q

What is the most effective fire extinguisher system?

A

Halogenerated hydrocarbon agents

236
Q

How are fire protection systems operated?

A

by the electrical system

237
Q

How do fire detectors work?

A

Switches turn on when certain temp is reached. Circuit closes

238
Q

What does a single axis autopilot control?

A

Longitudinal axis (roll)

239
Q

What is a single axis autopilot made up of?

A

Turn coordinator, computer amplifier and actuator

240
Q

What does a two axis autopilot control?

A

Roll and pitch

241
Q

What are the factors affecting rigidity?

A

Weight (more heavy = more rigid)
Speed (faster spin = more rigid)
Radius of mass from axis (further away = more rigid)

242
Q

What is precession?

A

Tendency to resist force applied at point with displacement at 90 degrees in direction of rotation.

243
Q

If you apply a force on gyro, where does it move?

A

90 degrees from applied force (in direction of rotation)

244
Q

What does a gimbal do?

A

Supports but allows gyro to move freely

245
Q

How is a vacuum driven gyro rotated?

A

Shaft at rear of engine. Air against buckets cut into rim of gyro

246
Q

What are the disadvantage of vacuum gyro?

A

Ineffective at high altitude
Cant be contained within sealed case
Dust and moisture affect life
Can’t be run until engine started

247
Q

Under IFR what are the conditions for gyro instruments?

A

Can’t all be from one source

248
Q

Which instruments are generally vacuum and which are generally electric?

A

AH and DG vacuum

TC electric

249
Q

What is the degrees limitation in pitch?

A

85 degrees

250
Q

What are acceleration errors in gyros?

A

AH.

Causes false right bank indication

251
Q

Which is more serious, acceleration or turn errors?

A

Acceleration

252
Q

What direction does DG indicate?

A

Magnetic north

253
Q

What are the errors with the DG

A

Doesn’t know where north actually is

Needs to reset with reference to compass (usually every 15 mins)

254
Q

What does the turn coordinator use to indicate turn?

A

Precession. It responds to yaw with roll

255
Q

What does the pitot and static measure?

A

Change in atmospheric pressure

256
Q

What happens if the pitot tube is blocked on climb?

A

ASI will over read on climb

257
Q

What happens if the pitot tube is blocked on descent?

A

ASI will under read on descent

258
Q

What happens if the static tube is blocked on climb?

A

ASI will under read on climb
VSI will read 0
ALT will be read alt that it became blocked at and hence under read

259
Q

What happens if the static tube is blocked on descent?

A

ASI will over read on descent
VSI will read 0
ALT will read alt that is became blocked and hence overread

260
Q

If QNH is set at 1005 but actual QNH is 1017, what will your actual height be when altimeter reads 3500?

A

1017 - 1005 = 12
12 x 30 = 360
360 + 3500 = 3860 feet

261
Q

What is the difference between true north and magnetic north called?

A

Magnetic variation

262
Q

What is compass deviation caused by?

A

Metals and electrics in the aircraft

263
Q

Where is magnetic dip the greatest?

A

Maximum at the poles

264
Q

Where is magnetic dip the least?

A

At the equator

265
Q

If you are on an easterly course, and start to accelerate, what will the compass show?

A

Apparent turn to south

266
Q

If you are on a northerly course and accelerate what will the compass show?

A

No deviation

267
Q

If you are on a westerly course and start to decelerate, what will the compass show?

A

Apparent turn to the north

268
Q

If you are on a southerly course and start to decelerate, what will the compass show?

A

No deviation

269
Q

If you are turning onto a northerly heading, what will happen?

A

Overshoot north by approximately 30 degrees

270
Q

If you are turning onto a southerly heading, what will happen?

A

Undershoot south by approximately 30 degrees

271
Q

When will detonation occur?

A

After ignition spark

272
Q

What is the purpose of a fuel control unit in fuel injection system?

A

To supply metered fuel to fuel manifold unit

273
Q

When operating an engine fitted with a supercharger, the use of carby heat should be regulated by reference to what?

A

CAT

carburetor air temp gauge

274
Q

Angle of attack of prop blade =?

A

Angle between relative airflow and face of blade

275
Q

Blade angle =?

A

Angle between chorine of prop and plane of rotation

276
Q

Angle between resultant velocity of prop blade and plane of rotation is?

A

Helix angle

277
Q

Resistance to motion in plane of rotation is?

A

Prop torque

278
Q

To be coupled to an ILS, an autopilot must be capable of operating in how a minimum of how many axes?

A

2

CPL (11 decks)

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