Aetiology of Malocclusion Flashcards

1
Q

What are the four components of facial skeleton ?

A

Maxilla base.
Mandibular base.
Alveolar processes of upper and lower.
Maxillary complex (attached to anterior skull base).
Mandibular complex (attached to posterior skull base).

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2
Q

What malocclusion is most commonly associated with genetic aetiology ?

A

Class III malocclusion.

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3
Q

What are 3 examples of environmental etiological factors affecting malocclusions ?

A

Muscles of mastication.
Mouth breathing.
Head posture.

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4
Q

Describe a Class I malocclusion.

A

Mandible related normally to maxilla so teeth erupt into normal occlusion. Jaws are normally the correct size.

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5
Q

Describe a Class II malocclusion.

A

Mandible placed posteriorly relative to maxilla.

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6
Q

What can be the anatomical reasons for a Class II malocclusion ?

A

Mandible too small - most common.
Maxilla too large.
Obtuse cranial base angle - normal mandible but set far back in skull base.

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7
Q

Describe a Class III malocclusion.

A

Mandible placed anteriorly relative to maxilla.

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8
Q

What can be the anatomical reasons for a Class III malocclusion ?

A

Maxilla too small - most common.
Mandible too large.
Acute cranial base angle - with normal jaw size.

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9
Q

What is dental alveolar compensation ?

A

Forces from lips, cheeks, tongue incline teeth towards position of soft tissue balance - leads to disguising of malocclusion with soft tissue envelope.

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10
Q

What is a lateral cephalogram ?

A

Standardised (reproducible) lateral radiograph of face and skull base.

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11
Q

What makes a lateral cephalogram reproducible ?

A

Patient at set distance from cephalostat between cone and film.

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12
Q

When would a cephalogram be beneficial in orthodontic treatment ?

A

Monitoring growth.
Severe malocclusions.

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13
Q

What does the SNA angle show ?

A

Relationship of maxilla to anterior cranial base.

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14
Q

What does the SNB angle show ?

A

Relationship of mandible to anterior cranial base.

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15
Q

What does the ANB angle show ?

A

Relationship of maxilla to mandible.

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16
Q

How is the SNA angle measured ?

A

Angle between lines -
- Between sella turcica and nasion.
- Between nasion and maximum concavity of upper incisors.

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17
Q

How is the SNB angle measured ?

A

Angle between lines -
- Between sella turcica and nasion.
- Between nasion and maximum concavity of lower incisors.

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18
Q

How is the ANB angle measured ?

A

Difference between upper and lower maximum concavity lines.

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19
Q

What is the normal SNA angle for a Class I malocclusion ?

A

81 degrees (+/- 3 degrees).

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20
Q

What is the normal SNB angle for a Class I malocclusion ?

A

78 degrees (+/- 3 degrees).

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21
Q

What is the normal ANB angle for a Class I malocclusion ?

A

3 degrees (+/- 2 degrees).

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22
Q

If the maxilla is prognathic in a Class II malocclusion, will the SNA angle be increased or decreased compared to the standard values ?

A

Increased.

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23
Q

If the mandible is prognathic in a Class III malocclusion, will the SNA angle be increased or decreased compared to the standard values ?

A

Decreased.

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24
Q

What value will ANB angle be in a Class II malocclusion ?

A

> 5 degrees.

25
Q

What value will ANB angle be in a Class III malocclusion ?

A

<1 (-) degrees.

26
Q

What is the Frankfort plane measured between ?

A

Lower orbital rim to superior border of external auditory meatus.

27
Q

What is the mandibular plane measured against ?

A

Lower border of mandible.

28
Q

Where should mandibular and Frankfort plane meet ?

A

External occipital protuberence.

29
Q

What angle can be measured between mandibular and Frankfort plane ?

A

Frankfort-mandibular plane angle - FMPA.

30
Q

What two anatomical features is upper anterior face height measured between ?

A

Glabella to base of the nose.

31
Q

What two anatomical features is lower anterior face height measured between ?

A

Subnasale to soft tissue menton.

32
Q

What is the average ratio between LAFH and UAFH ?

A

LAFH - 55%
UAFH - 45%

33
Q

In a patient with an anterior open bite, what will FMPA and LAFH values be vs. normal values ?

A

Increased FMPA.
Increased LAFH.

34
Q

What are five causes for transverse relationship variation ?

A

Arch discrepancies.
Mandibular displacement.
Transverse dento-alveolar discrepancy.
Facial asymetry.
Arch size discrepancy.

35
Q

What is an example of arch discrepancies ?

A

Unilateral or bilateral crossbite.

36
Q

What causes mandibular displacement ?

A

Inter-arch width discrepancy causing upper and lower posterior teeth to meet cusp to cusp. Mandible has to deviate to gain ICP.

37
Q

What are 3 examples of true facial asymmetries i.e. not to do with tooth position ?

A

Condylar hyperplasia.
Hemi-mandibular hyperplasia or elongation.

38
Q

What are the four causes of malocclusion ?

A

Skeletal pattern.
Dental.
Soft tissue.
Other i.e. habits.

39
Q

What is the definition of local causes of malocclusion ?

A

Localised problem or abnormality within either arch, usually confined to 1/2 or several teeth producing malocclusion which tends to get worst with time.

40
Q

What are 5 local causes of malocclusion ?

A

Variation in tooth number.
Variation in tooth size or form.
Abnormalities of tooth position.
Local abnormalities of soft tissues.
Local pathologies.

41
Q

What is the definition of hypodontia ?

A

Developmental absence of one or more teeth.

42
Q

Is hypodontia more common in males vs. females ?

A

Females - 3:2.

43
Q

What teeth are most commonly affected by hypodontia ?

A

Upper laterals and second premolars.

44
Q

What is the definition of retained primary teeth ?

A

A difference of more than 6 months between shedding of contra-lateral teeth - disruption in sequence of eruption.

45
Q

What are the five reasons which a primary tooth may be retained ?

A

Absent successor.
Ectopic successor or dilacerated.
Infra-occluded (ankylosed) primary molars.
Dentally delayed in terms of development.
Pathology/supernumerary.

46
Q

What are two treatment options for retained primary teeth ?

A
  1. Maintain primary tooth as long as possible if good prognosis.
  2. XLA deciduous tooth really to encourage spontaneous space closure in crowded cases.
47
Q

What is the definition of infra-occluded primary molars ?

A

Process where tooth fails to achieve or maintain its occlusal relationship with adjacent teeth.
Can be measured slight (<2mm from occlusal surface), moderate (inter-proximal contact) and severe (below inter-proximal).

48
Q

What are 4 causes for early loss of primary teeth ?

A

Trauma.
PA pathology.
Caries.
Resorption of successor.

49
Q

What is a balancing extraction ?

A

Extraction tooth from the opposite side of same arch - designed to minimise midline shift.

50
Q

What is a compensating extraction ?

A

Extraction of tooth from opposing arch of the same side - designed to maintain occlusal relationship.

51
Q

What is the impact of early loss of primary canines ?

A

Unilateral loss in crowded arch - causes midline shift.
Consider balancing extraction.

52
Q

What teeth are most commonly ectopic ?

A

8s, 3s, 6s, 1s.

53
Q

From what age should ectopic maxillary canines be palpated to check position ?

A

9+ years old.

54
Q

What % of ectopic canines are palatally placed ?

55
Q

What can be 4 signs of ectopic canines in clinical assessment ?

A

Visualisation/palpation of obvious bumps of 3.
Inclination of 2.
Mobility of c or 2.
Colour of c or 2.

56
Q

What 2 radiographs are required for radiographic assessment of ectopic canines ?

A

OPT and upper anterior oblique occlusal.
Use parallax technique.

57
Q

What are the 3Ps in assessment of ectopic canines ?

A

Presence, position, pathology.

58
Q

For are six management options of ectopic canines ?

A
  1. Prevention.
  2. Extraction of c to encourage improvement in position of 3 - interceptive orthodontic treatment.
  3. Retain 3s and observe - accept position.
  4. Surgical exposure and orthodontic alignment.
  5. Surgical extraction.
  6. Autotransplantation.