Aeronautical Navigation

Question 1

While conducting a published RNAV GPS approach procedure, you pass the final approach fix and realize the ground-based NAVAID (VOR) has not been tuned and identified. You are the first officer and pilot monitoring during this flight. What would you do in this situation?
a. Inform the captain the VOR isn’t transmitting and notify ATC your
intentions to go-around.
b. Inform the captain the VOR isn’t transmitting and continue the approach.
c. Execute the published missed approach procedure.
d. Ensure the VOR service volume is turned up and set the inbound course for the approach.

Answer 1

Inform the captain the VOR isn’t transmitting and continue the approach.

Question 2

While on arrival into KMEM at 12,000 feet, you observe a resolution advisory on your TCAS screen. What should you do?

a. Notify maintenance of your flight conditions upon landing.
b. Notify ATC that your TCAS screen is inoperative.
c. Follow the TCAS recommended course deviations even if IMC.
d. If possible, maintain VMC and land as soon as practicable.

Answer 2

Follow the TCAS recommended course deviations even if IMC.

Question 3

You have been instructed by ATC to extend your downwind for Traffic. When do you turn base?

a. Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC. ATC will call your base.
b. Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC. Call base when you begin your turn.
c. Extend your downwind unless you are unable, then call base.
d. Inform ATC if you do not have OPSPECs to conduct extended downwind procedures.

Answer 3

Extend your downwind as instructed by ATC. ATC will call your base.

Question 4

While being vectored off the arrival you realize you have lost communications with the controller due a stuck microphone and are well below the published airway MEA at the controller’s MVA. What are your actions?
a. Squawk 7600 and continue your present heading/altitude until changing to the published final controller frequency.
b. Squawk 7600 and turn back to the airway while climbing up to the MEA.
c. Squawk 7600 and continue your present heading/altitude until reaching your expected or filed NAVAID.
d. Squawk 7600 and continue your present heading until reaching your
expected or filed NAVAID and climb back up to the MEA.

Answer 4

Squawk 7600 and continue your present heading until reaching your expected or filed NAVAID and climb back up to the MEA.

Question 5

While on an arrival into Boston, ATC has you maintaining10,000 feet and 250 KIAS. ATC then clears you to immediately descend to 6,000 feet and slow to your final approach speed. When are you required to advise ATC you are unable to comply with their instructions.

a. When unable to descend at least 100 FPM.
b. When unable to descend at least 500 FPM.
c. When unable to descend at least 1000 FPM.
d. When able to descend at least 1500 FPM.

Answer 5

When unable to descend at least 500 FPM.

Question 6

Three common patterns used for procedure turns include the following: 45/180/45, 80/260 and 30 degree teardrop. Which pattern is best to use if you have several thousand feet to lose before the approach?

a. 45/180/45
b. 80/260
c. 30 degree teardrop
d. Neither is “best”

Answer 6

30 degree teardrop

Question 7

Three common patterns used for procedure turns include the following: 45/180/45, 80/260 and 30 degree teardrop. Which pattern is the fastest type of procedure turn, and easiest to get into trouble with?

a. 45/180/45
b. 80/260
c. 30 degree teardrop
d. Neither is “fastest”

Answer 7

80/260

Question 8

Three common patterns used for procedure turns include the following: 45/180/45, 80/260 and 30 degree teardrop. Which procedure is considered the most common and is usually depicted on IAC?

a. 45/180/45
b. 80/260
c. 30 degree teardrop
d. Neither is “most common”

Answer 8

45/180/45

Question 9

On a hot day, the indicated airspeed or IAS:

a. Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a cold day.
b. Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a cold day.
c. Equates to a higher CAS when compared to cold day.
d. Equates to a lower CAS when compared to a cold day.

Answer 9

Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a cold day.

Question 10

On a cold day, the indicated airspeed or IAS:

a. Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a hot day.
b. Equates to a lower TAS when compared to a hot day.
c. Equates to a higher CAS when compared to hot day.
d. Equates to a lower CAS when compared to a hot day

Answer 10

Equates to a higher TAS when compared to a hot day.

Question 11

You are on final approach into Memphis runway 27. After frequency change to tower and receiving clearance to land, ATC advises “Runway 27 windshear alert, 20 knot loss 3 miles final, threshold wind 200 at 15”. What is ATC advising?
a. To execute a missed approach.
b. On about a 3 mile final, you can expect a windshear condition with
decreasing winds and turbulence.
c. Upon landing, you can expect winds to shift to a 7 knot tailwind.
d. You should expect turbulence throughout the approach with 5 knot gusts.

Answer 11

On about a 3 mile final, you can expect a windshear condition with decreasing winds and turbulence.

Question 12

You are attempting to track inbound on the EWO 090 radial. Forecast winds for your flight level are 360 at 20 knots. Your CDI needle indicates one dot to the right of course with a “From” flag displayed and your distance to the station is 30 miles. From the answers below, what should you initially do to correctly track your course?

a. Turn to heading 300 until the needle centers, then turn to heading 285 to see if this holds you on course.
b. Turn to heading 240 until the needle centers, then turn to heading 255 to see if this holds you on course.
c. Turn to heading 250 until the needle centers, then turn to heading 270 to see if this holds you on course.
d. Turn to heading 290 until the needle centers, then turn to heading 270 to see if this hold you on course.

Answer 12

Turn to heading 240 until the needle centers, then turn to heading 255 to see if this holds you on course.

Question 13

A great circle route:

a. Is less accurate than a rhumb line route.
b. Covers the course of an aircraft traversing the globe.
c. Is more accurate than a VOR course.
d. Is depicted on navigational charts within parallel lines of meridian.

Answer 13

Is more accurate than a VOR course.

Question 14

You are flying with a heading of 090 degrees and establish your track is100 degrees. Select the best answer from below.

a. Your track angle error is 10 degrees south.
b. Your cross track distance is 10 degrees south.
c. Your drift angle is 10 degrees south.
d. Your wind drift correction is 10 degrees south.

Answer 14

Your drift angle is 10 degrees south.

Question 15

You are level at 5000 feet maintaining 190 knots in a clean
configuration. What pitch and power changes are required to start a descent at 1000 feet per minute to 4000 feet while maintaining your air speed.

a. Pitch and power will both increase
b. Pitch and power will both decrease
c. Pitch will remain constant and power will decrease
d. Pitch will decrease and power will remain constant

Answer 15

Pitch and power will both decrease

Question 16

You desire to trim the airplane for hands off flying. What is the best method to accomplish this task.

a. Set pitch and power based on aircraft weight and trim out the
aerodynamic forces you are feeling in the column.
b. Set your attitude and apply pressure to the control surface that needs trimming and roll the trim wheel in the direction pressure is being held.
c. Trim in the opposite direction until the control column centers and
the desired attitude is achieved.
d. Use trim to achieve the desired attitude and gradually reduce the
amount of trim as the desired attitude is approached.

Answer 16

Set your attitude and apply pressure to the control surface that needs trimming and roll the trim wheel in the direction pressure is being held.

Question 17

You can stay at FL 300 with calm winds or climb to FL 340 with a 30 knot tail wind. You are limited operationally to Mach .80 at either altitude. Which altitude should you fly at to make it to destination
quicker.

a. Stay at FL 300 because the higher true airspeed will have an adverse effect on your endurance.
b. Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.
c. Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the better endurance.
d. Stay at FL 300 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.

Answer 17

Climb to FL 340 to take advantage of the higher ground speed.

Question 18

ATC wants you to make a ½ standard rate turn from heading 360 to heading 045. How long will it take you to make this turn?

a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 25 seconds
d. 30 seconds

Answer 18

30 seconds

Question 19

You are tracking inbound to the VOR on the 180 degree radial 60 miles from the station at 10,000 feet and 250 knots. Wind is from 360 at 10 knots. ATC gives you a clearance to intercept the 185 degree radial and track it inbound.

a. Turn 90 degrees left to make the intercept to travel 1 radial per mile.
b. Turn 45 degrees right to make the intercept due to the wind.
c. Turn 30 degrees left to make the intercept, wind is not a factor.
d. Turn 30 degrees right to make the intercept, wind is not a factor.

Answer 19

Turn 30 degrees left to make the intercept, wind is not a factor.

Question 20

Your are flying at 10,000 feet and 250kts and the pitot tube becomes blocked by ice. What changes would you expect to see in your airspeed indicator and altimeter as you slow to 200kts?

a. No change to indicated airspeed; Altimeter would decrease.
b. No change to indicated airspeed; No change to altimeter.
c. No change to indicated airspeed; Altimeter would increase.
d. Indicated airspeed would decrease; No change to altimeter.

Answer 20

No change to indicated airspeed; No change to altimeter.

Question 21

You are hand flying the aircraft with the autopilot and auto throttles off at FL250 and a speed of 290 kts. ATC clears you to descend to15,000 ft. You are in no hurry to descend.

a. Reduce power, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots at
approximately 1000 fpm, adjust power as necessary.
b. Reduce power to idle, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots.
c. Leave the power set where it’s at, extend the speed brakes and lower the nose to maintain 290 knots.
d. Reduce power, lower the nose to descend at approximately 1000
fpm, use speed brakes as necessary to maintain 290 knots.

Answer 21

Reduce power, lower the nose to maintain 290 knots at

approximately 1000 fpm, adjust power as necessary.

Question 22

You are entering a constant airspeed, level 45 degree banked steep turn to the left.

a. You must increase pitch to overcome the loss of lift to maintain altitude and add power due to increased induced drag to maintain
airspeed.
b. You only need to increase power to compensate for the increased
induced drag to maintain your airspeed and altitude.
c. A strong tailwind will negate the need for additional power to
maintain your airspeed and only a slight increase in pitch will be
necessary to maintain altitude.
d. You must increase your pitch slightly and therefore increase your
angle of attack to maintain altitude and reduce power to compensate for the reduction of induced drag.

Answer 22

You must increase pitch to overcome the loss of lift to maintain altitude and add power due to increased induced drag to maintain
airspeed.

Question 23

You are on final approach to Phoenix Sky Harbor airport with
isolated storms reported in the area. Which would cause you the most concern and why?

a. Light rain with benign appearing virga due to the potential for
turbulence and passenger comfort.
b. Light rain with benign appearing virga and lenticular cloud
formations due to the possibility of downdrafts.
c. Light rain with benign virga appearning and rings of blowing dust due
to the possibility of a dust storm
d. Light rain with benign virga appearn and rings of blowing dust due to the possibility of microburst activity.

Answer 23

Light rain with benign virga appearn and rings of blowing dust due to the possibility of microburst activity.

Question 24

You are on a 10 mile final approach to landing with isolated
thunderstorms and rain showers in the vicinity. Winds are gusting to 15 knots and the last Terminal Doppler Weather Radar (TDWR) report of wind shear was 45 minutes ago. What action should you take.

a. The last TDWR report was long enough ago for the wind shear to
have dissipated and since you can expect timely warnings proceed
normally.
b. Even though TDWR gives effective coverage to 12 miles on final and
8 miles on departure wind shear is a possibility with the current
conditions and you should take wind shear precautions.
c. There are not enough signs to be concerned with wind shear and you should proceed with normal operations.
d. Conditions warrant taking wind shear precautions.

Answer 24

Conditions warrant taking wind shear precautions.

Question 25

You are established on an 8 mile final to runway 27 when tower broadcasts the following: Dz RUNWAY 27 ARRIVAL,
MICROBURST ALERT, 35 KT LOSS 2 MILE FINAL,
THRESHOLD WIND 250 AT 20.”

a. You should continue the approach since by the time you reach a 2
mile final the microburst will have dissipated.
b. You should continue the approach and be ready to apply go around
procedures should you encounter a microburst.
c. You should go around.
d. You should continue the approach, increase airspeed as necessary
and be ready to apply go around procedures should you encounter a
microburst.

Answer 25

You should go around.

Question 26

You are flying in VMC and approaching a severe thunderstorm
which is painting on your weather radar. The outside air temperature is within 5 degrees celcius of freezing. What is the best course of action and why?

a. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of
severe turbulence and the increased probability of Saint Elmo’s fire.
b. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of
severe turbulence and increased probability of lighting strikes.
c. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 10 miles due to the possibility of
turbulence and increased probability of compressor stalls.
d. Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 10 miles due to the possibility of
turbulence and increased probability of icing.

Answer 26

Avoid the thunderstorm by at least 20 miles due to the possibility of severe turbulence and increased probability of lighting strikes.

Question 27

You departed Los Angeles, CA where the temperature was 15
degrees celsius. You landed in Albuquerque, NM where the temperature is 15 degrees Celsius and are computing takeoff data. What is the anticipated effect on aircraft performance if the takeoff weight remains the same.

a. Even though the elevation and pressure altitude are higher the
temperature remained the same so there is no effect on the aircraft
performance.
b. Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature is higher than normal in Albuquerque therefore the increase in density altitude will have an adverse effect on aircraft performance.
c. Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature in Albuquerque is
equal to the temperature in Los Angeles and there will be no effect on
pressure altitude and therefore no effect on aircraft performance.
d. Since density altitude is inversely proportional to temperature and
pressure altitude aircraft performance will improve.

Answer 27

Based on a standard lapse rate the temperature is higher than normal in Albuquerque therefore the increase in density altitude will have an adverse effect on aircraft performance.

Question 28

You are level at 10,000 feet with an airspeed of 300 knots. ATC
directs you to slow to 250 knots. What best describes the controls and forces at work as you slow down and maintain your altitude.

a. As airspeed is decreased the pitch must increase to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the loss of lift.
b. As airspeed is decreased the pitch must increase to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the reduced thrust setting.
c. As airspeed is decreased the angle of attack must increase while
applying upward trim to maintain your altitude.
d. As the airplane slows and back pressure is applied the tail lowers and the nose rises effectively reducing angle of attack to maintain altitude.

Answer 28

As airspeed is decreased the pitch must increase to increase the angle of attack to compensate for the loss of lift.

Question 29

You completed your intercept of the 205 radial inbound and are tracking inbound to the station on a heading of 025 degrees. You notice your course deviation indicator drifting off to the right. The probable cause and correction are:

a. A right crosswind is pushing the aircraft left of course requiring a turn to the right to return to course.
b. A left crosswind is pushing the aircraft to the right of course
requiring turn to the right to return to course.
c. A left crosswind is pushing the aircraft to the right of course requiring
turn to the left turn to return to course.
d. A right crosswind is pushing the aircraft left of course requiring a
turn to the left to return to course.

Answer 29

A right crosswind is pushing the aircraft left of course requiring a turn to the right to return to course.

Question 30

If you had to choose one of the following altitudes to fly which would it be and why?

a. The minimum reception altitude (MRA) because it identifies the
altitude at which course reception is guaranteed and provides obstacle
clearance.
b. The minimum obstruction clearance altitude (MOCA) because it
provides obstruction clearance and guarantees signal reception.
c. The minimum obstacle and reception altitude (MORA) because it
provides obstacle clearance and navigation reception within 22 miles of
course centerline.
d. The minimum en route altitude (MEA) because it ensures navigation
signal strength and obstacle clearance.

Answer 30

The minimum en route altitude (MEA) because it ensures navigation signal strength and obstacle clearance.

Question 31

You are departing the airport at night in VMC conditions. The tower is closed. Which method would you choose to depart the airport and why?

a. To save time depart VFR and maintain VMC until contacting ATC for
an IFR clearance.
b. It is perfectly safe to depart VFR and maintain VMC until contacting
ATC for an IFR clearance.
c. Obtain an IFR clearance prior to departure and fly a departure
procedure to transition to the en route structure.
d. Obtain and IFR clearance prior to departure, depart VFR and
maintain VMC until contacting ATC.

Answer 31

Obtain an IFR clearance prior to departure and fly a departure
procedure to transition to the en route structure.

Question 32

The TO/FROM indicator shows:

a. Whether you will home to or from the station after intercepting the
selected course.
b. Whether your heading will take you to or from the station
c. Whether the selected course if intercepted will take you to or from
the station.
d. Whether the selected course requires a crosswind correction to take
you to or from the course.

Answer 32

Whether the selected course if intercepted will take you to or from the station.

Question 33

To fly a VOR/DME arc once established on the arc:

a. Maintain a constant 5 degree angle of bank to keep the RMI bearing
pointer on the wing tip.
b. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to
move 5 to 10 degrees ahead of the wing tip then turn toward the facility
to place the bearing pointer 5 to 10 degrees behind the wingtip
c. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to
move 5 to 10 degrees behind the with tip then turn toward the facility to
place the bearing pointer 5 to 10 degrees ahead of the wingtip
d. Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to
move 5 to 10 degrees behind the with tip then turn away from the
facility to place the bearing pointer 5 to 10 degrees ahead of the wingtip.

Answer 33

Maintain a constant heading and allow the RMI bearing pointer to move 5 to 10 degrees behind the with tip then turn toward the facility to place the bearing pointer 5 to 10 degrees ahead of the wingtip

Question 34

You are taking off from Miami at 2300 local time. It will take you 4 hours and 30 minutes to fly to Los Angeles. You will arrive in Los Angeles at 0730 zulu time. What was the zulu time when you left Miami and what will be the local time when you arrive in Los Angeles?

a. 0300 zulu; 0330 local
b. 0200 zulu; 0130 local
c. 0400 zulu; 0030 local
d. 0300 zulu; 0030 local

Answer 34

0300 zulu; 0030 local

Question 35

It is 0215 local Memphis time with a plus 5 hour zulu conversion. You have a 3 hour and 15 minute flight today and must not arrive earlier than 1145 zulu at your destination due to curfew restrictions. What is the earliest you can takeoff Memphis local time?

a. 0315
b. 0330
c. 0345
d. 0430

Answer 35

0330

Question 36

You are level FL350 and need to cross a point on the arrival at FL 190. Assuming a no wind constant speed 3 to 1 descent how far from the point would you start your descent to cross it at FL 190?

a. 38 miles
b. 40 miles
c. 50 miles
d. 58 miles

Answer 36

50 miles

Question 37

You are level at 17,000 feet and 325 knots. Assuming a no wind constant speed descent how far away would you start your descent to cross a point on the arrival at 250 knots and 10,000 feet. It takes one mile to slow down 10 knots in level flight.

a. 22 miles
b. 30 miles
c. 37 miles
d. 41 miles

Answer 37

30 miles

Question 38

Your bearing to the VOR station is 210 degrees. Your heading is 090 degrees. Assuming no wind what heading will take you to the station?

a. 010
b. 030
c. 210
d. 270

Answer 38

030

Question 39

Your are tracking outbound on the 175 degree radial at 10 DME at 200 knots ground speed. At what DME and in what direction would you start your turn to arc north on the 15 arc?

a. 12 DME, left turn
b. 13 DME, right turn
c. 13 DME, left turn
d. 14 DME, right turn

Answer 39

13 DME, left turn

Question 40

ATC asks for your position. Your VOR/DME is tuned to MEM. You note the DME is 25 and the head of the VOR pointer is between the nose of the aircraft and the right wing pointing to 046 . You read back your position as:

a. 25 miles north west of MEM.
b. 25 miles north east of MEM.
c. 25 miles south west of MEM.
d. 25 miles south east of MEM

Answer 40

25 miles south west of MEM.

Question 41

You are level at FL310. ATC asks you to descend to 17,000 feet and be level in 4 minutes or less. What is the minimum descent rate is required to comply with their request?

a. 3150 fpm
b. 3350 fpm
c. 3550 fpm
d. 3750 fpm

Answer 41

3550 fpm

Question 42

Your bearing to the VOR station is 135 at 60 DME. Your heading is 045. How many miles until you reach the 121 radial?

a. 7
b. 10
c. 14
d. 21

Answer 42

14

Question 43

You are southwest of the VOR at 30 DME. What heading would you fly to reach and then track inbound on the 280 degree radial?

a. 090; 280
b. 270; 360
c. 360; 100
d. 180; 100

Answer 43

360; 100

Question 44

You are on a bearing from the Memphis VOR of 045 at 65 DME heading 275. Your ground speed is 300 knots. Due to weather delays, Memphis center asks you to maintain present heading and track inbound on the 010 degree radial. At what lead radial will you start your turn and what direction will you turn?

a. 007; 010
b. 010; 225
c. 013; 190
d. 019; 190

Answer 44

013; 190

Question 45

You are approaching your clearance limit. If further clearance is not received what does ATC expect you to do?

a. Maintain your last assigned altitude until your ETA and then descend
in holding and commence a published approach.
b. Maintain your last assigned altitude and begin holding using
standard left hand turns and request further clearance.
c. Maintain your last assigned altitude and enter a standard holding
pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix.
d. Maintain your last assigned altitude and proceed on the route
expected to destination.

Answer 45

Maintain your last assigned altitude and enter a standard holding
pattern on the course on which the aircraft approached the fix.

Question 46

When should you start slowing down when a speed reduction is required prior to holding and why?

a. Slow down when 5 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to help ATC
maintain proper spacing between aircraft.
b. Slow down when 5 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.
c. If slowing greater than 3 minutes from the holding fix due to an extended EFC time inform ATC of your intentions. Cross the holding fix
at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.
d. Slow down when 3 minutes or less from the holding fix. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed if in mountainous
terrain.

Answer 46

If slowing greater than 3 minutes from the holding fix due to an
extended EFC time inform ATC of your intentions. Cross the holding fix at or below the maximum holding speed to prevent overshooting the holding airspace.

Question 47

The destination weather is ceiling 1000 feet and visibility 5miles.
There are few clouds at 500 feet. You are on a 5 mile final with the airport in sight. Can you accept a visual approach?

a. Yes since you have the required ceiling of 1000 feet and required
visibility of 5 miles and can maintain clear of clouds at 1000 and 500
feet.
b. Yes since you have the required ceiling of 1000 feet and required
visibility of 3 miles and do not have more than momentary contact with
the clouds at 1000 feet and 500 feet.
c. Yes since you have the required ceiling of 1000 feet and required
visibility of 3 miles and can maintain clear of clouds.
d. Yes since you have the required ceiling of 1000 feet and required
visibility of 3 miles and can proceed VFR to the airport.

Answer 47

Yes since you have the required ceiling of 1000 feet and required
visibility of 3 miles and can maintain clear of clouds.

Question 48

You are cleared for the ILS approach with the localizer and glide
slope captured. You are descending through 4100 feet on a 12 mile final. There is a step down fix at 8 miles with a crossing altitude of at or above 2450 feet. The glide slope intercept altitude is 1200 feet at 4 miles.

a. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept
altitude and is cleared for the ILS approach the step down fix does not
apply.
b. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept
altitude they are guaranteed to meet the step down fix crossing altitude.
c. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they are guaranteed to meet step down fixes and obstacle clearance.
d. If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept
altitude they remain responsible for complying with step down fixes.

Answer 48

If the pilot is tracking the glide slope prior to the glide slope intercept altitude they remain responsible for complying with step down fixes.

Question 49

You are flying a visual approach and are on a 7 mile dog leg to final to an airport in mountainous terrain. The weather is clear and the wind is calm. No instrument approaches are available but you have the VASI in sight. You should:

a. Continue your descent to landing since the VASI gives you
obstruction clearance out to 10 miles.
b. Continue your descent to landing visually the VASI are not required
since the weather is greater than VFR and you are VMC.
c. Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 5 degrees of runway centerline out to 3 to 5 miles.
d. Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 10 degrees of runway centerline out to 4 miles.

Answer 49

Continue your descent to landing but be aware because the VASI does not guarantee obstruction clearance until plus or minus 10 degrees of runway centerline out to 4 miles.

Question 50

The Captain is making the landing in low visibility conditions on a precision runway. You are backing the Captain up making sure he stays on centerline during the rollout. You cannot see the end of the runway. But you know from the centerline you are:

a. 3000 to 2000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are
alternating amber and white.
b. 3000 to 2000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are
alternating amber and red.
c. 3000 to 1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are
alternating red and white.
d. 3000 to 1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are
alternating amber and white.

Answer 50

3000 to 1000 feet from the end because the centerline lights are
alternating red and white.

Question 51

You have been given clearance to taxi across the runway. Just as your aircraft crosses the hold line onto the runway you notice the Runway Entrance lights (REL) illuminate.

a. If they illuminate green it is a verification of your taxi clearance and
you should taxi as cleared.
b. If they are flashing red they indicate you have nominal time to
continue but any aircraft behind you should STOP.
c. If they illuminate steady red there is a potential conflict and you
should use caution.
d. If they illuminate steady red contact ATC and proceed according to
your best judgment understanding the lights indicate the runway is
unsafe.

Answer 51

If they illuminate steady red contact ATC and proceed according to your best judgment understanding the lights indicate the runway is unsafe.

Question 52

You are holding short of the runway. You hear tower give several
aircraft clearance to cross the runway downfield. Tower then gives you clearance to Dz line up and wait dz. As you approach your takeoff position on the runway you notice the Takeoff Hold Lights (THL) illuminate steady red.

a. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield
and they will extinguish after all aircraft have cleared the runway.
b. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield.
Tower may give clearance for take with THL still illuminated due to
anticipated separation criteria at some airports.
c. THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield.
A pilot may notice the THL extinguish prior to down field aircraft being
completely clear of the runway due to the anticipated separation
feature.
d. THL steady illumination under these circumstances signal an
immediate threat to safety. Proceed according to your best judgment
and contact ATC as soon as possible.

Answer 52

THL steady illumination is expected with aircraft crossing downfield. A pilot may notice the THL extinguish prior to down field aircraft being completely clear of the runway due to the anticipated separation feature.

Question 53

You check the ATIS and notice LAHSO is in effect at your destination. After checking in with tower you notice several aircraft ahead of you have been given a LAHSO landing clearance. Tower clears you to land without a LAHSO clearance. During landing rollout the Runway Intersection Lights (RIL) illuminate.

a. Since you have not received a LAHSO landing clearance the RIL’s do not apply to you, proceed with caution.
b. You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting
runway.
c. You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting
runway. High speed traffic is with 3 seconds of meeting you at the
intersection.
d. Visually clear the intersecting runway in both directions and proceed
with caution if it is safe. Contact ATC as soon as possible.

Answer 53

You should stop prior to the LAHSO stop bar for the intersecting
runway.

Question 54

Surface Movement Guidance and Control System (SMGCS) low
visibility taxi operations are in effect for your departure. You are
holding short of the runway when tower clears you for takeoff.

a. The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar extinguishes. Continue your takeoff.
b. The green lead on lights illuminate and red stop bar stays
illuminated. Anticipated separation timing will extinguish the red stop
momentarily. Continue your takeoff
c. The green lead on lights are notamed out of service and the red stop
bar remains illuminated. Continue to line up and wait but do not take
off until verifying takeoff clearance with tower.
d. The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar remains
illuminated. The red stop bar should extinguish prior to line up with the
runway. Continue to line up and contact ATC if in doubt about your
clearance.

Answer 54

The green lead on lights illuminate and the red stop bar extinguishes. Continue your takeoff.

Question 55

You are taking off from a runway with a displaced threshold. Unless other wise noted you may:

a. Only begin your takeoff from the displaced threshold.
b. Begin your takeoff from the portion of the runway behind the
displaced threshold.
c. Not apply takeoff power until abeam the displaced threshold.
d. Receive specific clearance from tower to begin your takeoff from the
portion of the runway behind the displaced threshold.

Answer 55

Begin your takeoff from the portion of the runway behind the
displaced threshold.

Question 56

You are landing on a runway with a displaced threshold at the
opposite end. Unless otherwise noted you may:

a. Not land. The runway is designed for landing only from the end with
the displaced threshold.
b. Land but not use the portion of the runway behind the displaced
threshold.
c. Land and use the portion of the runway behind the displaced
threshold.
d. Land if your landing data is computed for a shortened runway to
account for the displaced threshold.

Answer 56

Land and use the portion of the runway behind the displaced

threshold.

Question 57

You are taxing toward a runway for takeoff with a displaced threshold. You notice the area behind the displaced threshold is marked with yellow chevrons.

a. The chevrons designate an unusable landing surface but the area may be used for taxi or takeoff.
b. With tower clearance you may use the area marked with yellow chevrons for additional takeoff runway.
c. The chevrons are directional. They indicate the direction which the area is safe to use for taxi and takeoff only with tower clearance.
d. The chevrons show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing.

Answer 57

The chevrons show pavement areas aligned with the runway that are unusable for landing, takeoff and taxiing.

Question 58

While taxiing the captain begins to veer right for an obstruction
ahead. It appears the captain will exceed the boundary of the painted taxiway edge. There is plenty of concrete available to the right and no other obstructions or conflicts.

a. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or don’t go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.
b. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a broken double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or don’t go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.
c. You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You help the captain clear the area because you know the area is intended for use.
d. The painted taxiway edge is not a factor as long as you will not hit
any blue taxiway edge lights. Clear the area for the Captain and
continue.

Answer 58

You see the taxiway edge is painted with a continuous double yellow line. You tell the captain stop or don’t go beyond the painted edge because it is not intended for use.

Question 59

When ATC has not used the term Dz At Pilot’s Discretion dz nor imposed any restrictions, pilots should initiate descent promptly and:

a. Descend at least 1000 fpm until 1000 feet above your level off
altitude and then at 500 to 1000 fpm until level. If unable to descend at
least 500 fpm advise ATC.
b. Descend at least 1500 fpm until 1000 feet above your level off
altitude and then at 500 to 1000 fpm until level.
c. Descend at an optimum rate until 1000 feet above your level off
altitude and then at 1500 to 500 fpm until level. If unable to descend at
least 500 fpm advise ATC.
d. Descend and level off normally in accordance with the aircraft
operations manual. If unable to descend at least 500 fpm advise ATC.

Answer 59

Descend at an optimum rate until 1000 feet above your level off
altitude and then at 1500 to 500 fpm until level. If unable to descend at least 500 fpm advise ATC.

Question 60

ATC has cleared you for the ILS approach to runway 09 in Memphis. What is your clearance limit?

a. Final approach fix unless cleared to land.
b. The published decision altitude.
c. Runway 09.
d. The published hold.

Answer 60

The published hold.