Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Fedex Hiring Prep > Aeronautical Engineering > Flashcards

Aeronautical Engineering Flashcards

1
Q

The basic elements of the accessory section of a turbofan engine are:
a. The accessory case, which has machined mounting pads for the engine-driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.
b. The accessory gearbox, which has machined mounting pads for the
engine-driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed on the
accessory case.
c. The engine starter, auxillary power unit, oil pump and filter, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.
d. The engine starter, auxillary power unit, oil pump and filter, and the gear train, which is housed on the accessory case.

A

The accessory case, which has machined mounting pads for the engine-driven accessories, and the gear train, which is housed within the accessory case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A turbine engine usually has an accessory section gear train driven by:

a. The engine low-pressure fan turbine through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.
b. The engine high-pressure fan turbine through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.
c. The engine low-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.
d. The engine high-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.

A

The engine high-pressure compressor through an accessory drive shaft gear coupling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The reduction gearing within the accessory section casing provides suitable drive speeds for:

a. The engine air intake section.
b. The engine compressor section.
c. The engine turbine section.
d. Each engine accessory or component.

A

Each engine accessory or component.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An accessory section reduction gear ratios are relatively high because:

a. The rotor operating rpm is so high.
b. The rotor operating rpm is so low.
c. The rotor operating pressure is so high.
d. The rotor operating pressure is so low.

A

The rotor operating rpm is so high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Since turbine ignition systems are operated mostly for a brief period during the engine-starting cycle, they are:

a. As a rule, more trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system.
b. As a rule, less trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system.
c. As a rule, more typical of a reciprocating engine ignition system design.
d. As a rule, more typical of a diesel engine ignition system design.

A

As a rule, more trouble-free than the typical reciprocating engine ignition system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The turbine ignition system:
a. Needs to be timed to spark during an exact point in the operational cycle.
b. Does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the
operational cycle.
c. Needs to turned on during an exact point in the operational cycle.
d. Does not need to turned on during an exact point in the operational
cycle.

A

Does not need to be timed to spark during an exact point in the
operational cycle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Normally, the turbine ignition system:
a. Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched off.
b. Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched to continuous.
c. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off.
d. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched to
continuous.

A

Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Normally, the turbine ignition system:
a. Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched off.
b. Is used to turn the turbine fan, ignites the fuel in the combustion section and is then switched to continuous.
c. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off.
d. Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched to
continuous.

A

Is used to ignite the fuel in the combustor and then it is switched off.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Other modes of turbine ignition system operation:

a. Such as continuous ignition that is used at a lower voltage and energy level, are used for certain flight conditions.
b. Such as continuous ignition that is used at a higher voltage and energy level, are used for certain flight conditions.
c. Such as generators that are used at a lower voltage and energy level, are used for certain flight conditions.
d. Such as generators that are used at a higher voltage and energy level, are used for certain flight conditions.

A

Such as continuous ignition that is used at a higher voltage and energy level, are used for certain flight conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Fill in the blanks: Fowler flaps not only _____ the trailing edge of the wing when deployed but also slide _____, effectively _____ the area of the wing.

a. Raise; forward; decreasing
b. Lower; laterally; increasing
c. Raise; aft; increasing
d. Lower; forward; decreasing

A

Raise; aft; increasing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An enhanced version of the fowler flap:

a. Contains an aerodynamic surface that separates from the wing to increase the angle of attack.
b. Contains an aerodynamic surface that is triple-slotted.
c. Consists of a foreword, middle and aft panel that when deployed, slides each the aft panel rearward on tracks as it lowers.
d. Consists of a foreword, middle and aft panel that when deployed, slides each the aft panel forward on tracks as it raises.

A

Contains an aerodynamic surface that is triple-slotted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

An enhanced version of the fowler flap:

a. Has sections that combine and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as aft of each of the flap sections.
b. Has sections that raise and leave an continuous slot below the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.
c. Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.
d. Has a section that separates to leave an open slot above the wing and the fore flap, as well as below each of the flap sections.

A

Has sections that separate and leave an open slot between the wing and the fore flap, as well as between each of the flap sections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

On fowler flaps, air from the underside of the wing flows through slots that enhances:

a. Laminar flow on the lower surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increases overall lift.
b. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the lower camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.
c. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area decrease overall lift.
d. Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.

A

Laminar flow on the upper surfaces and the greater camber and effective wing area increase overall lift.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Heavy aircraft often have leading edge flaps that are used in conjunction with the trailing edge flaps. While they are not installed or operate independently, their use with:
a. Spoilers can greatly decrease wing camber and lift. When stowed,
leading edge flaps extend over the leading edge of the wing.
b. Slats can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When extended, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.
c. Trailing edge flaps can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When
stowed, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.
d. Speed brakes can greatly decrease wing camber and lift. When stowed, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.

A

Trailing edge flaps can greatly increase wing camber and lift. When stowed, leading edge flaps retract into the leading edge of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Activation of the trailing edge flaps automatically deploys:
a. The slats, which are driven out of the leading edge and downward, extending the camber of the wing.
b. The slats, which are driven out of the leading edge and downward,
extending the chord of the wing.
c. The leading edge flaps, which are driven out of the leading edgeand
downward, extending the camber of the wing.
d. The leading edge flaps, which are driven out of the leading edge and downward, extending the chord of the wing.

A

The leading edge flaps, which are driven out of the leading edge and downward, extending the camber of the wing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The speed brake control can deploy all spoiler and speed brake surfaces fully when operated.
a. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when engine thrust reversers are retracted.
b. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when engine thrust reversers are activated.
c. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when brakes are activated.
d. Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when brakes
are retracted.

A

Often, these surfaces deploy on the ground automatically when engine thrust reversers are activated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT WINGLETS

  1. WINGLETS ADDED WEIGHT HAS AN ADVERSE EFFECT ON TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE
  2. WINGLETS CREATE MORE PARASITE DRAG DECREASING THE OVERALL TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE
  3. WINGLETS CONTRIBUTE TO INCREASED PAYLOAD OR INCREASED SHORT FIELD TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE
  4. WINGLETS HAVE NO IMPACT ON TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE
A

WINGLETS CONTRIBUTE TO INCREASED PAYLOAD OR INCREASED SHORT FIELD TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

HOW DOES WEIGHT IMPACT AN AIRCRAFTS TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE

  1. INCREASED TAKEOFF DISTANCE IS REQUIRED
  2. WEIGHT HAS NO IMPACT ON TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE AT SEA LEVEL
  3. INCREASED CLIMB GRADIENTS CAN BE EXPECTED
  4. DECREASED TAKEOFF DISTANCE IS REQUIRED
A

INCREASED TAKEOFF DISTANCE IS REQUIRED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE ABOUT TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE

  1. DOWN SLOPING RUNWAYS CAN SHORTEN TAKEOFF RUNS
  2. UP SLOPING RUNWAYS CAN SHORTEN TAKEOFF RUNS
  3. RUNWAY SLOPE HAS NO SIGNIFICANT IMPACT ON TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE
  4. DOWN SLOPING RUNWAYS INCREASE TAKEOFF RUNS
A

DOWN SLOPING RUNWAYS CAN SHORTEN TAKEOFF RUNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

WHEN PLANNING TO TAKEOFF FROM AN AIRPORT WITH CLOSE SURROUNDING MOUNTAINOUS TERRAIN, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING CONSIDERATIONS ARE REASONABLE

  1. CLIMB OUT AT BEST RATE AIRSPEED MIGHT BE BEST FOR TERRAIN AVOIDANCE
  2. CLIMB OUT AT BEST ANGLE AIRSPEED MIGHT BE BEST FOR TERRAIN AVOIDANCE
  3. ENSURE AIRCRAFT IS LOADED WITH AN AFT CG TO ENHANCE STABILITY FOR POTENTIAL GUST UPSETS COMMON TO MOUNTAINOUS TERRAIN
  4. ENSURE AIRCRAFT IS LOADED WITH A FORWARD CG TO ENHANCE MANEUVERABILITY FOR TERRAIN AVOIDANCE
A

CLIMB OUT AT BEST ANGLE AIRSPEED MIGHT BE BEST FOR TERRAIN AVOIDANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

WHY IS IT IMPORTANT TO DE-ROTATE AS QUICKLY AS POSSIBLE ON LANDING.

  1. ALLOWS AERODYNAMIC BRAKING TO BE MORE EFFECTIVE
  2. HYDROPLANING IS LESS LIKELY TO OCCUR IF THE NOSE WHEEL IS ON THE GROUND.
  3. TO INCREASE BRAKING EFFECTIVENESS
  4. IT NOT REALLY IMPORTANT SINCE AERODYNAMIC BRAKING IS 2 TIMES MORE EFFECTIVE AT LANDING SPEEDS CERTIFIED ON TRANSPORT CATEGORY AIRCRAFT
A

TO INCREASE BRAKING EFFECTIVENESS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

WHICH STATEMENT COULD BEST DESCRIBE GROUND EFFECT

  1. A CUSHION OF AIR THAT AN AIRPLANE FLOATS ON NEAR THE GROUND
  2. A REDUCTION OF DOWNWASH
  3. AN INCREASE OF UPWASH WITHIN ONE WINGSPAN LENGTH OF THE GROUND
  4. AN INCREASE OF STABILITY DUE TO ANHEDRAL WING DESIGN
A

A REDUCTION OF DOWNWASH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

WHEN CONSIDERING OBSTACLE CLEARANCE FOR ONE ENGINE INOPERATIVE TAKEOFF PERFORMANCE, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS TRUE

  1. PERFORMANCE IS PREDICATED ON CLEARING A 15 FOOT OBSTACLE WITH WET RUNWAY CONDITIONS
  2. PERFORMANCE IS PREDICATED ON CLEARING A 35 FOOT OBSTACLE WITH WET RUNWAY CONDITIONS
  3. PERFORMANCE IS PREDICATED ON CLEARING A 15 FOOT OBSTACLE WITH DRY RUNWAY CONDITIONS
  4. PERFORMANCE IS PREDICATED ON CLEARING A 50 FOOT OBSTACLE WITH DRY RUNWAY CONDITIONS
A

PERFORMANCE IS PREDICATED ON CLEARING A 15 FOOT OBSTACLE WITH WET RUNWAY CONDITIONS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

REGARDLESS OF AIRCRAFT OR PROCEDURAL REQUIREMENTS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE GOOD CONSIDERATIONS TO NOT TAKEOFF FROM A WET RUNWAY

  1. THRUST REVERSERS INOPERATIVE
  2. ANTISKID INOPERATIVE
  3. AUTOBRAKES INOPERATIVE
  4. AUTO SPOILERS INOPERATIVE
A

ANTISKID INOPERATIVE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Your maintenance crew informs you that the accessory drive gear train has sheared and will likely cause a large delay. What is the primary function of the accessory section of a turbine engine?
a. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for
operation and control of the engine.
b. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for
operation and control of the aircraft air intake section.
c. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for
operation and control of the aircraft compressor section.
d. It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for
operation and control of the aircraft turbine section.

A

It provides space for the mounting of accessories necessary for operation and control of the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

REGARDLESS OF AIRCRAFT OR PROCEDURAL REQUIREMENTS, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING WOULD BE GOOD CONSIDERATIONS TO NOT TAKEOFF FROM A WET RUNWAY

  1. THRUST REVERSERS INOPERATIVE
  2. STANDING WATER EXCEEDS A SPECIFIED LEVEL
  3. AUTOBRAKES INOPERATIVE
  4. AUTO SPOILERS INOPERATIVE
A

STANDING WATER EXCEEDS A SPECIFIED LEVEL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

IF AN AIRCRAFT IS LIMITED BY AN OBSTACLE IN THE SECOND SEGMENT BECAUSE ITS CLIMB PERFORMANCE IS INSUFFICIENT TO CLEAR THE OBSTACLE(S), WHAT COULD DONE TO MAKE THE TAKEOFF POSSIBLE

  1. USE A REDUCED TAKEOFF THRUST SETTING
  2. INCREASE V1 SETTING
  3. USE INCREASED FLAP SETTING
  4. USE A DECREASED V2 SPEED
A

USE INCREASED FLAP SETTING

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

IF AN AIRCRAFT IS LIMITED BY AN OBSTACLE IN THE SECOND SEGMENT BECAUSE ITS CLIMB PERFORMANCE IS INSUFFICIENT TO CLEAR THE OBSTACLE(S), WHAT COULD DONE TO MAKE THE TAKEOFF POSSIBLE

  1. USE A REDUCED TAKEOFF THRUST SETTING
  2. INCREASE V1 SETTING
  3. REDUCE WEIGHT TO ENSURE OBSTACLE CLEARANCE
  4. USE A DECREASED V2 SPEED
A

REDUCE WEIGHT TO ENSURE OBSTACLE CLEARANCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

PLANNING TAKEOFFS AT HIGH ALTITUDE AIRPORTS WITH HIGH TEMPERATURES REQUIRE SOME SPECIAL CONSIDERATIONS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ONE OF THOSE CONSIDERATIONS

  1. POTENTIAL OF EXCEEDING TIRE LIMIT SPEEDS
  2. ENGINE EGT MARGINS BEING EXCEEDED
  3. DECREASED EFFECTIVENESS OF REVERSE THRUST
  4. INCREASING PAYLOAD TO ENHANCE BRAKING EFFECTIVENESS DURING A REJECTED TAKEOFF
A

POTENTIAL OF EXCEEDING TIRE LIMIT SPEEDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

PLANNING TAKEOFFS AT HIGH ALTITUDE AIRPORTS WITH HIGH TEMPERATURES REQUIRE SOME SPECIAL CONSIDERATIONS. WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS ONE OF THOSE CONSIDERATIONS?
1. POTENTIAL TO EXCEED BRAKE ENERGY LIMITS
2. ENGINE EGT MARGINS BEING EXCEEDED
3. DECREASED EFFECTIVENESS OF REVERSE THRUST
4. INCREASING PAYLOAD TO ENHANCE BRAKING EFFECTIVENESS DURING A
REJECTED TAKEOFF

A

POTENTIAL TO EXCEED BRAKE ENERGY LIMITS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE TRUE STATEMENTS WITH REGARDS TO BEST RATE OF CLIMB SPEED (Vy)

  1. PROVIDES THE GREATEST ACHIEVEMENT OF ALTITUDE OVER A SPECIFIED DISTANCE
  2. USES MORE TRIP FUEL
  3. WILL TAKE A LONGER AMOUNT OF TIME REACH CRUISE ALTITUDE
  4. USES LESS TRIP FUEL
A

USES LESS TRIP FUEL

32
Q

WHEN CONSIDERING FACTORS RELATING TO TAKEOFF AND CRUISE FLIGHT PLANNING, WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE
1. USE OF THE BEST ANGLE SPEED WILL RESULT IN LESS TRIP FUEL BURNED AND FASTEST TIME TO CLIMB TO CRUISE ALTITUDE
2. USE OF BEST RATE SPEED WILL RESULT IN MORE TRIP FUEL BURNED AND SLOWEST TIME TO CLIMB TO CRUISE ALTITUDE
3. USE OF BEST RATE SPEED WILL RESULT IN LESS TRIP FUEL BURNED AND FASTEST
TIME TO CLIMB TO CRUISE ALTITUDE
4. USE OF BEST ANGLE SPEED WILL RESULT IN MORE TRIP FUEL BURNED AND FASTEST TIME TO CLIMB TO CRUISE ALTITUDE

A

USE OF BEST RATE SPEED WILL RESULT IN LESS TRIP FUEL BURNED AND FASTEST

33
Q

DURING AN ENGINE START AFTER THE FUEL IS INTRODUCED, THE ENGINE FAILS TO REACH A SELF-SUSTAINING SPEED. THIS MIGHT BE AN EXAMPLE OF WHICH TYPE OF START ANOMALY

  1. HOT START
  2. NO START ANOMALY EXISTS IN THIS SCENARIO
  3. HUNG START
  4. NO START
A

HUNG START

34
Q

YOU ARE PREPARING FOR ENGINE START AT AN AIRPORT THAT HAS AN ALTITUDE OF 6400 FT MSL AND AN OUTSIDE AIR TEMPERATURE OF 32 CELSIUS. WHAT CONCERNS MIGHT YOU HAVE REGARDING ANY POSSIBLE START ANOMALIES?

  1. THE HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE MAY CONTRIBUTE TO A HUNG START
  2. THE HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE MAY CONTRIBUTE TO INADEQUATE FUEL VAPORIZATION LEADING TO A HOT START
  3. AIR STARTER LIMITS MAY BE EXCEEDED
  4. THE HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE MAY CONTRIBUTE TO INADEQUATE IGNITION EFFECTIVENESS LEADING TO A HOT START
A

THE HIGH DENSITY ALTITUDE MAY CONTRIBUTE TO A HUNG START

35
Q

DURING ENGINE START YOU NOTICE THAT THE N2 IS NOT SPOOLING UP AS FAST AS YOU NORMALLY MIGHT SEE IT. YOU ARE AT AN AIRPORT THAT IS 5600 FT MSL ON A VERY HOT DAY WITH A SLIGHT WIND FROM BEHIND. GIVEN THE SITUATION, WHAT POSSIBLE START ANOMALY WOULD YOU WANT TO BE ON THE LOOKOUT FOR

  1. HOT START
  2. HUNG START
  3. NO START ANOMALY EXISTS IN THIS SCENARIO
  4. NO START
A

HUNG START

36
Q

WITH THE CENTER OF PRESSURE FORWARD OF THE CENTER OF GRAVITY, EXTENDING FLAPS WILL CAUSE THE FOLLOWING

  1. THE AIRCRAFT WILL PITCH UP
  2. THE AIRCRAFT WILL PITCH DOWN
  3. THE AIRCRAFT WILL EXPERIENCE NO PITCH CHANGE
  4. THE AIRCRAFT WILL PITCH DOWN AND THEN PITCH UP
A

THE AIRCRAFT WILL PITCH UP

37
Q

WHAT ADVANTAGES DO AUTOBRAKES PROVIDE

  1. MODULATION OF INDIVIDUAL BRAKES FOR GREATER EFFICIENCY
  2. REDUCED CHANCES OF HYDROPLANING
  3. CONSTANT DECELERATION TO A STOP
  4. LESS WEAR AND TEAR OF ANTISKID VALVES
A

CONSTANT DECELERATION TO A STOP

38
Q

DURING AN ENGINE START YOU NOTICE THAT THE N2 IS LOWER THAN NORMAL AND THE EGT IS HIGHER THAN USUALLY SEEN, BUT NOT EXCESSIVE OR APPROACHING THE START LIMITS. WHAT PROBLEM, IF ANY, IS THE ENGINE
EXPERIENCING
1. A HOT START
2. START IS NORMAL
3. A POSSIBLE HUNG START
4. WEAK IGNITERS IN THE COMBUSTOR SECTION

A

A POSSIBLE HUNG START

39
Q

WHICH START ANOMALY IS CAUSED BY THE ENGINE REACHING A SELF SUSTAINING SPEED BUT THE COMBUSTION IS UNSTABLE

  1. HOT START
  2. START IS NORMAL
  3. NO IGNITION
  4. HUNG START
A

HOT START

40
Q

YOU ARE STARTING ENGINES AT AN AIRPORT WITH AN ALTITUDE OF 5700 FT MSL AND 32 DEGREES CELSIUS. YOU NOTICE THAT THE EGT IS RISING RAPIDLY AS N2 INCREASES. WHAT START ANOMALY ARE YOU EXPERIENCING AND WHAT IS THE APPROPRIATE ACTION

  1. NO START, DISENGAGE THE STARTER
  2. HOT START, DISENGAGE THE STARTER
  3. HUNG START, RE-ENGAGE THE STARTER AND MOTOR THE ENGINE
  4. HOT START, CUTOFF THE FUEL
A

HOT START, CUTOFF THE FUEL

41
Q

WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING MIGHT CONTRIBUTE TO AN ENGINE HOT START

  1. A HEADWIND IN EXCESS OF 15 KNOTS
  2. A TAILWIND
  3. ICE BLOCKING THE P2T2 SENSOR
  4. INSUFFICIENT FUEL FLOW
A

A TAILWIND

42
Q

DURING ENGINE STARTS, WHAT INITIAL INDICATION MIGHT SIGNIFY AN IMPENDING HOT START

  1. LOW N1 ROTATION
  2. HIGHER THAN NORMAL FUEL FLOW
  3. HIGHER THAN NORMAL N1 ROTATION
  4. LOWER THAN NORMAL FUEL FLOW
A

HIGHER THAN NORMAL FUEL FLOW

43
Q

YOU ARE LANDING ON A VERY SHORT RUNWAY IN A B-757 NEAR ITS MAXIMUM GROSS LANDING WEIGHT. WHAT PROTECTION DO TIRE FUSE PLUGS PROVIDE IN THIS SITUATION

  1. NO PROTECTION
  2. PROTECTION AGAINST THERMAL EXPANSION
  3. PROTECTION AGAINST HYDRAULIC OVERPRESSURE IN THE ANTISKID SYSTEM
  4. PROTECTION AGAINST BRAKE FADE
A

PROTECTION AGAINST THERMAL EXPANSION

44
Q

WHAT IS A CHARACTERISTIC OF FOWLER FLAPS

  1. LESS DRAG IN THE LANDING RANGE THAN A NORMAL FLAP
  2. INCREASES THE SURFACE AREA OF THE WING AND ARE GENERALLY SLOTTED
  3. SIGNIFICANTLY INCREASES DRAG IN LOW FLAP SETTING RANGES
  4. DO NOT ALLOW FOR DECREASED APPROACH SPEEDS COMPARED TO OTHER FLAP DESIGNS
A

INCREASES THE SURFACE AREA OF THE WING AND ARE GENERALLY SLOTTED

45
Q

WHAT IS A KRUEGER FLAP AND WHAT DOES IT DO, SPECIFICALLY.

  1. FLAP ATTACHED TO THE TOP OF THE WING AND IS DESIGNED TO AUGMENT ROLL CAPABILITIES
  2. TYPE OF FLAP ATTACHED TO THE REAR OF THE WING TO DECREASE LANDING DISTANCES
  3. TYPE OF FLAP ATTACHED TO THE REAR OF THE WING TO INCREASE WING CAMBER
  4. FLAP ATTACHED TO THE FRONT OF THE WING AND IS DESIGNED TO INCREASE WING CAMBER AND LIFT
A

FLAP ATTACHED TO THE FRONT OF THE WING AND IS DESIGNED TO INCREASE WING CAMBER AND LIFT

46
Q

WHEN SPOILERS ARE FULLY EXTENDED AS A SPEED BRAKE, BOTH SIDES REMAIN IN THE EXTENDED SPEED BRAKE POSITION, AND THEREFORE, THE SPOILERS DO NOT PROVIDE ANY ROLL CONTROL. WHAT TYPE OF SPOILER SYSTEM DOES THIS BEST DESCRIBE?

  1. SEQUENTIAL
  2. NON-SEQUENTIAL
  3. DIFFERENTIAL
  4. NON-DIFFERENTIAL
A

NON-DIFFERENTIAL

47
Q

UPON LANDING ON A WET RUNWAY YOU DISCOVER THAT THE ANTISKID HAS FAILED. YOU APPLY THE BRAKES AND THE AIRCRAFT BEGINS TO SKID. WHAT IS THE BEST METHOD TO REGAIN CONTROL OF THE AIRCRAFT

  1. ONLY APPLY BRAKES ON THE DOWNWIND WHEELS AND RE-ESTABLISH A POSITIVE TRACK
  2. APPLY MORE PRESSURE TO THE UPWIND WHEELS
  3. RELEASE THE BRAKES AND RE-ESTABLISH A TRACK DOWN THE RUNWAY. THEN RE-APPLY BRAKES
  4. APPLY MORE BRAKING FORCE TO THE SKIDDING WHEEL
A

RELEASE THE BRAKES AND RE-ESTABLISH A TRACK DOWN THE RUNWAY. THEN RE-APPLY BRAKES

48
Q

A principle advantage of an axial flow compressor on a turbine engine compared to a centrifugal flow compressor is:

  1. It requires relatively low inlet velocities.
  2. Simplicity
  3. High compressor ratio per stage
  4. Ability to handle large volumes of airflow.
A

Ability to handle large volumes of airflow.

49
Q

A principle disadvantage of a centrifugal flow compressor on a turbine engine compared to an axial flow compressor is:

  1. It is more expensive to manufacture.
  2. The provision of more than one or two stages is rarely feasible.
  3. It is more susceptible to foreign-object damage.
  4. Its total compression section is heavier.
A

The provision of more than one or two stages is rarely feasible.

50
Q

During climb out on departure your EGT and engine rpm indications are fluctuating significantly on your number 2 engine. You suspect a compressor stall. The pilot with whom you are flying references the airplane’s Quick Reference Handbook for the appropriate procedure. In the meantime, as you are flying, the best
course of action would be to:
1. Reduce the throttle, increase the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
2. Reduce the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
3. Increase the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.
4. Increase the throttle, increase the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

A

Reduce the throttle, decrease the aircraft’s angle of attack, and increase airspeed.

51
Q

On a Boeing 727, the engine which is most susceptible to compressor stalls is the:

  1. Number 1 engine.
  2. Number 2 engine.
  3. Number 3 engine.
  4. All engines are equally susceptible to compressor stalls.
A

Number 2 engine.

52
Q

Which of the following could cause a compressor stall?

  1. Engine rpm is too low.
  2. Low pressure in subsequent compressor stages.
  3. A bleed air valve stuck in the open position.
  4. Insufficient intake air.
A

Insufficient intake air.

53
Q

For a typical fixed geometry, speed-rated jet engine,
the top 10 percent of available engine rpm (i.e. 90%-100% N1) represents approximately how much of the maximum available thrust?
1. 10%.
2. 20%.
3. 30%.
4. 40%.

A

30%.

54
Q

Under normal operating conditions, what point in a jet engine has the highest static pressure?

  1. The combustion chamber inlet.
  2. The turbine inlet section.
  3. The turbine discharge section.
  4. The exhaust nozzle.
A

The combustion chamber inlet.

55
Q

Under normal operating conditions, what point in a jet engine has the highest temperature?

  1. The combustion chamber inlet.
  2. The turbine section inlet.
  3. The turbine discharge section.
  4. The exhaust nozzle.
A

The turbine section inlet.

56
Q

What effect, if any, does high ambient temperature have upon the thrust output of a turbine engine?

  1. The thrust will be reduced due to the increase in air density.
  2. The thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.
  3. Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperature will be higher.
  4. Thrust will be higher because more heat energy is extracted from the hotter air.
A

The thrust will be reduced due to the decrease in air density.

57
Q

The primary function of the compressor section in a gas turbine engine is:

  1. Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.
  2. Compress air which is used to pressurize the cabin.
  3. Provide bleed air for the anti-ice/deice system.
  4. Turn the turbines through a mechanical connection on a common shaft.
A

Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.

58
Q

The primary function of the turbine section in a gas turbine engine is to:

  1. Progressively “squeeze” air in preparation for combustion.
  2. Accelerate air from the combustion section and subsequently provide thrust through the exhaust nozzles.
  3. Help to direct and compress the flow of air between each set of rotor blades.
  4. Drive the compressors through common shafts.
A

Drive the compressors through common shafts.

59
Q

You are flying a jet at FL300. The tropopause is at 36,500 feet. Assuming similar winds and standard temperature lapse rate, a climb to FL360 would be advantages, in part, because:
1. A greater amount of air is available for combustion.
2. Less drag exists to slow down the compressors, thereby allowing the engines to run at a higher RPM.
3. At a low altitude, the engine RPM necessary to produce the required thrust is low and, generally, well below the normal rated value. An increase in engine speed to the normal rated value will reduce the
specific fuel consumption.
4. Less drag exists on the airframe. However, there is no advantage for the engines, as specific fuel consumption is essentially the same for jet engines at altitudes from approximately FL250 up to the tropopause.

A

At a low altitude, the engine RPM necessary to produce the required thrust is low and, generally, well below the normal rated value. An increase in engine speed to the normal rated value will reduce the specific fuel consumption.

60
Q

The ability of an airplane to efficiently convert fuel energy into flying distance is one of the most important items of airplane performance. The formula used to calculate a specified distance with fuel expenditure is the formula for:

  1. Specific range.
  2. Specific endurance.
  3. Specific fuel consumption.
  4. Specific drag.
A

Specific range.

61
Q

You are level at your cruise altitude of FL310 at a speed of Mach .83. ATC tells you to maintain a speed of no greater than Mach .80. You pull the thrust levers back and the engines decelerate. The engine are decelerated because:

  1. The turbine power exceeds the compressor power required to maintain Mach .83.
  2. The turbine power is less than the compressor power required to maintain Mach .83.
  3. The power extracted by the turbine will equal the power required to operate the compressor.
  4. The amount of ram air available to the compressor section diminishes.
A

The turbine power is less than the compressor power required to maintain Mach .83.

62
Q

On a jet engine, the process of taking high velocity, low pressure air, and turning it into low velocity, high pressure air is the primary function of the:

  1. Compressor.
  2. Turbine.
  3. Diffuser.
  4. Combustion chamber.
A

Diffuser.

63
Q

The principle that fluids are flexible but non-compressible is the basis for which major aircraft system?

  1. The engine fuel system.
  2. The pneumatic system.
  3. The hydraulic system.
  4. The engine lubrication system.
A

The hydraulic system.

64
Q

Which hydraulic operation normally uses a double-acting, unbalanced linear actuator?

  1. Brakes.
  2. Landing gear.
  3. Autopilot servo.
  4. Rudder actuators.
A

Landing gear.

65
Q

One of the most important characteristics of hydraulic fluid is that it cannot be:

  1. Capable of breaking down insulation on electrical wires.
  2. Susceptible to vaporization.
  3. Harmful while coming into contact with human skin.
  4. Corrosive.
A

Susceptible to vaporization.

66
Q

Why are hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?

  1. To provide an alternate source of pressure in case of a hydraulic pump failure.
  2. To assure a positive feed of foam-free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes.
  3. To insure an adequate supply of fluid to the hydraulic pump inlet during negative-G flight.
  4. To provide an alternate source of hydraulic fluid in the event a hydraulic filter becomes clogged.
A

To assure a positive feed of foam-free fluid to the hydraulic pump at high altitudes.

67
Q

When the aircraft is shut down after flight, what is typically used to maintain pressure for the parking brake?

  1. The in-line variable restrictor orifice.
  2. The hydraulic fuse.
  3. The hydraulic reservoir.
  4. The hydraulic accumulator.
A

The hydraulic accumulator.

68
Q

A major advantage of ni-cad batteries over lead-acid batteries is that ni-cad batteries:

  1. Put out sustained voltage over a longer period of time.
  2. Are less expensive.
  3. Are not subject to thermal runaway.
  4. Do not need to be deep-cycled for optimal performance.
A

Put out sustained voltage over a longer period of time.

69
Q

Which are protective functions of an AC generator control unit?

  1. Undervoltage, differential fault, and manual paralleling.
  2. Generator underspeed and bus-tie circuit-breaker automatic closing.
  3. Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator underspeed.
  4. Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator overspeed.
A

Overvoltage, current limiting, and generator overspeed.

70
Q

Under normal operating conditions during flight, what is typically powering the electrical system of a large turbine aircraft?

  1. A generator providing 115 KVA, 400-Hz alternating current, powered through an engine’s constant-speed drive unit.
  2. A generator providing 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current, powered through a ram air turbine.
  3. A generator providing 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current, powered through an engine’s constant speed drive unit.
  4. A generator providing 115 KVA, 400-Hz alternating current, powered through an engine’s generator control unit.
A

A generator providing 115 volts, 400-Hz alternating current, powered through an engine’s constant speed drive unit.

71
Q

The primary purpose of an aircraft’s electrical ground is to:

  1. Act as an electrical shock absorber in the event of a lightning strike.
  2. Complete the electrical circuit.
  3. Dissipate electrical build-ups caused by the airframe’s interaction with clouds that would otherwise interfere with radio transmissions.
  4. Electrically connect the aircraft to the fuel truck in order to prevent sparks from occurring when the truck’s fuel hose first comes in contact with the aircraft’s refueling port.
A

Complete the electrical circuit.

72
Q

What increases or decreases the voltage of a generator so it carries its share of the load?

  1. Current limiter
  2. Rectifier.
  3. Paralleling circuit.
  4. Reverse current cut-out relay.
A

Paralleling circuit.

73
Q

The primary reason for using a crossfeed fuel system is to:

  1. Be able to purge any fuel tank.
  2. Allow fuel to be used for ballast when needed.
  3. Jettison fuel during emergencies.
  4. Help maintain aircraft center of gravity.
A

Help maintain aircraft center of gravity.

74
Q

When wing fuel tanks on certain heavy aircraft, such as the MD-11, get below a certain fuel quantity, VMO/MMO is reduced. The primary reason for this is because:

  1. The weight of the fuel in the wing fuel tanks that has been burned off is no longer available to provide added structural stability required at higher true airspeeds.
  2. The weight of the fuel in the wing fuel tanks that has been burned off is no longer available to provide added structural stability required at higher indicated airspeeds.
  3. Without the added weight of the fuel on the wing, the angle of attack increases, making the aircraft more susceptible to Mach tuck at higher airspeeds.
  4. Without the added weight of the fuel on the wing, the angle of attack increases, making the aircraft more susceptible to wing twist at higher airspeeds
A

The weight of the fuel in the wing fuel tanks that has been burned off is no longer available to provide added structural stability required at higher indicated airspeeds.

75
Q

The primary purpose of the fuel-oil heat exchanger is to:

  1. Cool the entire oil system in order to keep it within operating limitations.
  2. Cool the oil prior to it being released into the shafts’ bearing assembly.
  3. Heat the fuel to prevent ice crystals from clogging fuel filters.
  4. Heat the fuel to prevent clogging the transfer lines.
A

Heat the fuel to prevent ice crystals from clogging fuel filters.

76
Q

In relation to the cooling function of the oil, the engine is most prone to critical overheating:

  1. During climb-out.
  2. During cruise flight.
  3. During an idle descent.
  4. After the engine has been shut down.
A

During climb-out.

77
Q

The primary function of the oil system in the modern gas turbine engine is to:

  1. Cool and lubricate the main bearings and accessory drive gears.
  2. Move the variable geometry diffusers and inlet guide vanes.
  3. Heat the fuel just prior to entering the fuel filters.
  4. Operate the thrust reversers.
A

Cool and lubricate the main bearings and accessory drive gears.

Fedex Hiring Prep (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions