Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Army Aviation > Aeromed > Flashcards

Aeromed Flashcards

1
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

AAMA is short for:

A

US Army Aeromedical Activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

US Army Aeromedical Activity reviews and recommends ________ for continued flight status of RA, AR, and NG soldiers.

A

Flight physicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

US Army saftey center investigates all ________ and select _______ accidents and writes safety policy for the Army.

A

Class A and B mishabs , *******

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

USAARL is short for:

A

US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

US Army Aeromedical Research Laboratory conducts research in the effects of _______ factors in the aviation enviroment and the development of ___________.

A

Exogenous , Environmental life support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

USASAM is short for:

A

Us Army School of Aviation Medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Us Army School of Aviation Medicine conducts training for all _______ and ______ crew members.

A

Rated , Non-rated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

______ , ______ , ______ , are members of the aviation medicine healthcare program

A

*** , *****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

FDME is short for:

A

Flight Duty Med Exam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

The two broad categories of FDME are _______ , and ______

A

Initial , Comprehensive

  • And the 5y exam.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

True/False: The flight surgeon is the final approval authority of the Da Form 4185 (now 2992 - the Upslip).

A

False - The Commander is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

A permanent disqualification is one that will likely take longer than _____ days.

A

365 Days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

A crew member may request _____ extension each annual period.
And for how long?

A

One

One month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

True/False: A FDHS is only completed every 5 years?

A

False - Every year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Aviation Resource management surveys are conducted by ______.

A

USASAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

The duties and responsibilities of the FS and APA as part of the healthcare team are ______ , ______ , ______ , ______.

A

** , ** , ** , **

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

The aeromedical psychologist responsibilities as part of the health care team are ______ , ______ , ______.

A

Clinical support , *** , ***

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Rate whom are Rated crewmembers and not:

Flight Surgeon
Aeromedical physician assistant
Psycologist

A

Flight Surgeon - Rated
Aeromedical physician assistant - Non
Psycologist - Non

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

The “Aviation Medicine Program” primary goal is:

A

Preventive medicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Initial FDME is valid for? (normally and maximum)

A

12 months normally, 18 Months max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

at what interval is the Comprehensive FDME performed?

A

Every 5 years (between 20-49 years old)

After that every year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Who will be in Class 1 FDME?

A

Pilot students

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Who will be in Class 2 FDME?

A

Trained aviators, flight surgeons, DAC pilots and APAs/AMNPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Who will be in Class 3 FDME?

A

Non-rated crew members

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Who will be in Class 4 FDME?

A

Air Traffic Controllers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Who is required to maintain a DD form 2992?

A

All military and civilian personnel on flight status.

Aviators in a non-operational position:

  • Desk job
  • Simulator flying positions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Define Temporary Disqualification:

A

Aeromedical condition likely to result in requalification within 365 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Permanent Disqualification

A

Aeromedical condition NOT likely to result in requalification within 365 days.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Grounding time for:

Anesthesia (general)
Anesthesia (Local)
Alcohol
Immunization
Blood and plasma donations

Altitude chamber run of 25,000 ft or higher
SCUBA diving

Simulator sickness
Centrifuge runs

A 
Anesthesia (general) - 48 hr
Anesthesia (Local) - 12 hr
Alcohol - 12 hr or no symptoms 
Immunization - 12 hr
Blood and plasma donations - 72/24 hr

Altitude chamber run of 25,000 ft or higher - 24 hr
SCUBA diving - 24 hr

Simulator sickness - 12 hr
Centrifuge runs - 6 hr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Medicine Class 1 covers what type of medicine?

A

Over-The-Counter (OTC) medications

Occasional and infrequent use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Medicine Class 2A covers what type of medicine?

A

Require a prescription

Short-term use

Under supervision of a FS/APA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Medicine Class 2B covers what type of medicine?

A

Require prescription

Short-term or chronic use

Under supervision of a FS/APA

Medical condition may require a waiver

Must be noted on FDME

First time use ground for 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Medicine Class 3 covers what type of medicine?

A

Require prescription

Requires a waiver for underlying medical condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Aviation Medicine Orientation

Medicine Class 4 covers what type of medicine?

A

Grounds the aircrew member

Not-waiverable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Gravitational Forces

The measure of the magnitude of an accelerative force with respect to gravity at the earths surface is _____.

A

9.81 m/s^2 or 32.2 ft/s^2 or 1G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Gravitational Forces

______ is a reduction in the velocity of a moving body with respect to time.

A

Deceleration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Gravitational Forces

______ is the resistance to a change in state of rest or motion.

A

Inertial Force

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Gravitational Forces

The ______ identifies the direction in which the body receives accelerative forces.

A

Triaxial reference system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Gravitational Forces

The greater the ______ the more servere the effects of accelerative forces.

A

intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Gravitational Forces

The longer the force is applied, the more the severe the effect is the definition of ______.

A

Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Gravitational Forces

Lateral accelerations in the _____ axis are the most lethal to aircraft and crewmen.

A

G_y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Gravitational Forces

The physiological effects of high magnitude accelerations are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Minor discomfort , Minor Injury , incapacitation , irreversible injury , lethal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Gravitational Forces

Aircrew members experience mild transverse accelerations during _____ , _____

A

Ldg , T/O

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Gravitational Forces

The aircraft design features that enhance crash survivability are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Container , Restraint , Environment , Energy absorption , Post crash factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Gravitational Forces

The primary source of high magnitude accelerations and decelerations are ______.

A

A/C crashes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Gravitational Forces

The up/down axis is called:

A

Gz

20G / -15G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Gravitational Forces

The forward/backward axis is called:

A

Gx

80G / -40G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Gravitational Forces

The left/right axis is called:

A

Gy

9G / -9G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Gravitational Forces

Define Low Magnitude Accelerations:

A

G’s that range from 1 – 10 G’s and lasting for several seconds.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Gravitational Forces

Redout occurs between:

A

Negative 2.5-3 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Gravitational Forces

Grayout occurs between:

A

Positive 2.5-4.0 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Gravitational Forces

Blackout occurs between:

A

Positive 4.0-4.5 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Gravitational Forces

G-LOC occurs after:

A

Positive 4.5 G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Gravitational Forces

Define High Magnitude Accelerations:

A

G-forces exceeding 10 G’s and lasting less than a second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The sensory inputs the provide orientation and equilibrium are the _____ , _____ , and _____ systems.

A

Visual , Vestibular , Proprioreceptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Spatial Disorientation

A false perception of reality caused by the conflict of orientation information from one or more mechanisms of the equilibrium is a ______.

A

Sensory illusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The _____ system is the most important/dominant sense providing orientation.

A

Visual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Spatial Disorientation

_____ or _____ vision allows us to perceive images clearly.

A

Focal , Central

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Spatial Disorientation

_____ is the falsely perceived self-motion in relation to the motion of another object.

A

Relative motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Spatial Disorientation

_____ is the most important function of the vestibular system

A

Visual tracking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Spatial Disorientation

_____ illusions are produced when the body is subjected to gravito-inertial forces

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Spatial Disorientation

True/False: Type 3 (Incapacitating) spatial disorientation is the most dangerous type of spatial disorientation?

A

False - Type 1 (Unrecognized) is

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The most important measure to reduce the possibility of spatial disorientation is ______.

A

Training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The _____ Is the most common form of spatial disorientation.

A

Leans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The semicircular canals will not detect the roll if the rate is less than _____.

A

2*

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Define spatial disorientation:

A

The inability to determine one’s position, attitude and motion relative the earth or significant objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Define vertigo:

A

The sensation that everything is spinning around the person and is the opposite of dizziness which is the sensation that one is spinning in a stationary place - used to explain most types of spatial disorientation.

68
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Define sensory illusion:

A

False perception of reality caused by the conflict of orientation information from one or more mechanisms of equilibrium.

69
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Fire Fire Fire CRASH CSAR is short for:

A

Fascination / Fixation

False horizons

Flicker vertigo

Confusion with ground lights

Relative motion

Altered planes of reference

Structural illusions

Height depth perception illusion

Crater illusion

Size-distance illusion

Autokinesis

Reversible perspective

70
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Fire Fire Fire CRASH CSAR is short for:

A

Fascination / Fixation

False horizons

Flicker vertigo

Confusion with ground lights

Relative motion

Altered planes of reference

Structural illusions

Height depth perception illusion

Crater illusion

Size-distance illusion

Autokinesis

Reversible perspective

71
Q

Spatial Disorientation

What is the purpose of the Otolith organs?

A

Linear acceleration and deceleration

72
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Describe “the leans”

A

Pilot banking with less than 2*/sec and not realising

73
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Derscribe “Graveyard Spin”

A

A/C goes into spin without visual references, recovers, starts spin in the other direction.

74
Q

Spatial Disorientation

Derscribe “Coriolis illusion”

A

Pilot enters a turn
stimulating one
semicircular canal

Pilot makes a head
movement in a
different geometrical
plane stimulating a
second and/or third
semicircular canal
75
Q

Spatial Disorientation

The 3 types of Somatogravic Illusions are:

A

Oculoagravic:
- Rapid downward motion of aircraft
Eyes shift upward

Elevator:
- Occurs during sudden upward acceleration
Eyes gaze downward

Oculogravic:
while acceleration and deceleration

76
Q

Visual System

The _____ is the transparent protective tissue located over the front of the eye.

A

Cornea

77
Q

Visual System

The _____ is the opening in the center of the iris. It allows light to enter the eye.

A

Pupil

78
Q

Visual System

The _____ is a transparent, biconvex membrane the directs light rays entering the pupil upon the retina.

A

Crystalline lens

79
Q

Visual System

The day blind spot covers _____ to _____ degrees while the night blind spot covers an area of _____ to _____ degrees.

A

5.5 , 7.5

5 , 10

80
Q

Visual System

_____ compensates for the night blindspot.

A

The other eye

81
Q

Visual System

An unequal curvature of the corona resulting in the inability of the eye to focus on multiple objects simultaneously in the horizontal axis and vertigal planes are ______.

A

Astigmatism.

82
Q

Visual System

Astigmatism occurs with the aging process and results in the hardening of the lens _____.

A
83
Q

Visual System

The three types of vision are _____ , _____ , _____.

A

Photopic (daylight)
Mesiphic (dusk/dawn)
Scotopic (night)

84
Q

Visual System

Eating a balanced nutritious diet vil provide sufficient amounts of vitamin A which is required for the production of _____.

A

Rhodopsin

85
Q

Visual System

The apparent relative motion of stationary objects as viewed by a moving observer is _____.

A

Motion parallax

86
Q

Visual System

Average time to dark adapt is _____ - _____ minutes for a well rested aviator.

A

30 , 45

87
Q

Visual System

Describe what Cone cells are:

A

Used in periods of bright light

Identifies colors

Sharp visual acuity and color sense

7 million in fovea and parafoveal regions

1:1 ratio of cone cells to neuron cells

Produces Iodopsin

88
Q

Visual System

Describe what Rod cells are:

A

Used in periods of low ambient light and darkness

Identifies outline of shapes and silhouettes

Poor color sense and visual acuity

120 million rod cells

10:1 to 10,000:1ratio of rod cells to neuron cells

Produces Rhodopsin (Visual Purple)

89
Q

Visual System

The three types of Visual Deficiencies are:

A

Myopia: Nearsightedness

Hyperopia: Farsightedness

Presbyopia: (aging) Hardening of lens, loss of elasticity

90
Q

Visual System

Which Refractive Surgeries are allowable (in US - not DK)

A

PRK – Photorefractive Keratectomy

LASIK – Laser in Situ Keratomileusis

LASEK – Laser Subepithelial Keratomileusis

91
Q

Visual System

Self-imposed Stresses covers: (DEATH)

A

Drugs

Exhaustion

Alcohol

Tobacco

Hypoglycemia

92
Q

Aviation Toxicology

_____ is anything capable of producing an adverse health effect on a worker.

A

Occupational hazard

93
Q

Aviation Toxicology

_____ is a long term exposure to an agent or series of repeated exposures to an agent that lead to adverse health changes.

A

Chronic exposure

94
Q

Aviation Toxicology

_____ is exposure of an agent over a short period of time that can cause adverse health changes.

A

Acute Exposure

95
Q

Aviation Toxicology

There are 3 principle ways a toxin can enter the body they are _____ , _____ and _____

A

Inhalation , Ingestion , Absorption

96
Q

Aviation Toxicology

How long a toxin is kept in the body is _____.

A

Retention

97
Q

Aviation Toxicology

_____ is how quickly the body rids itself of the toxin.

A

Excretion

98
Q

Aviation Toxicology

The three environmental principals of toxicity are _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Atmospheric , Temperature , Humidity

99
Q

Aviation Toxicology

Three physiological principles the determine a response to a toxin are _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Genetics , Metabolism , Bodyfat

100
Q

Aviation Toxicology

_____ is an odorless, tasteless and colorless vapor produced by the incomplete combustion of any fuel.

A

CO

101
Q

Aviation Toxicology

True/False: Plastics release NO harmfull chemicals when burned.

A

False - they do

102
Q

Aviation Toxicology

True/False: The primary hazard with fibers is absorption.

A

False - Inhalation is

103
Q

Aviation Toxicology

The effects of a toxin on the body depend on the _____, and the _____ of the exposure.

A

Dose , Duration

104
Q

Aviation Toxicology

TLV is short for:

A

Threshold Limit Values

Concentrations of a chemical that will produce no effects to individuals who are exposed for 8 hours a day

105
Q

Aviation Toxicology

TLV-STEL is short for:

A

Short Term Exposure Limits

Concentration of chemicals that are allowed for exposure times of 15 minutes during the work day

106
Q

Aviation Toxicology

TLV-C is short for:

A

Ceiling Concentration

Concentration of a chemical that must never be exceeded during any part of the workday

107
Q

Aviation Toxicology

6 toxic substances in aviation are:

A

Aviation fuels and fuel combustion products

Solvents and degreasers

Lubricants

Hydraulic fluids

Fire extinguishers

Composites and plastics

108
Q

Stress and fatigue

True/False: Stress involves a physical or body response?

A

True

109
Q

Stress and fatigue

The to physical changes of stress that we control are _____ and _____

A

Breathing , Muscle tension

110
Q

Stress and fatigue

The belief that if you dont have it all, you have nothing is _____.

A

All or nothing thinking

111
Q

Stress and fatigue

Improper use of _____ can have effects that threaten safety

A

Drugs

112
Q

Stress and fatigue

The cognitive abilities crew members rely on to successfully perform their mission are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Psychomotor abilities , Memory , Judgement , Priority of tasks , Memories

113
Q

Stress and fatigue

The four stress coping methods are _____ , _____ , _____ , _____.

A

Minimizing stressores , Learn to relax , Change thinking , Ventilating stress

114
Q

Stress and fatigue

It can take _____ , _____ minutes to fully recover from sleep inertia and gain a full level of alertness.

A

20 , 30

115
Q

Stress and fatigue

True/False: Crew members may be in therapy or counseling and maintain flight status as long their symptoms are not a flight safety issue.

A

True

116
Q

Stress and fatigue

True/False: Alcohol should be used as a sleep aid.

A

False

117
Q

Stress and fatigue

The nonspecific response of the body to any demand placed on it is the definition of _____.

A

Stress

118
Q

Stress and fatigue

Factors that may decrease one’s vulnerability to combat stress are _____ , _____ , _____ and _____.

A

Confidence , Competence , Cohesion , Control

119
Q

Stress and fatigue

The _____ cycle causes you to be at your peak level of alertness between the hours of _____ and _____.

A

Circadian , 0800 , 1200

120
Q

Stress and fatigue

Define stress

A

“The nonspecific response of the body to any

demand placed upon it”

121
Q

Stress and fatigue

What are the 9 physical responses in relation to stress?

A

Increased heart rate
Shortness of breath
Muscle tension
Sleep problems

Increased blood pressure
Gastrointestinal distress
Trembling
Increase in adrenaline
Sweaty palms
122
Q

Stress and fatigue

The 6 behavioral signs of stress?

A 
Late to work
Poor performance
Explosiveness
Alcohol and/or other drug abuse
Social isolation
Suicide
123
Q

Stress and fatigue

The 8 emotionel signs of stress?

A 
Irritability
Hostility
Anger
Anxiety
Sadness
Loss of self-esteem
Feelings of helplessness
Suppressed emotions
124
Q

Stress and fatigue

The 5 mental signs of stress?

A 
Obsession or excessive worrying
Decreased attention
Impaired memory
poor judgment
Poor psychomotor coordination
125
Q

Stress and fatigue

What are the 4 types of stressors?

A

Psychosocial
- External things that happen and impact you emotionally

Cognitive (Mental)
- Internal ways you think and approach situations

Physiological
- Your physical state and health

Environmental

126
Q

Stress and fatigue

Define combat stress:

A

All the physiological and emotional stresses encountered as a direct result of the dangers and mission demands of combat

127
Q

Stress and fatigue

The 6 long term stress reactions:

A

Flashbacks

Sleep problems

Social isolation

Hyper-alertness

Alcohol or drug abuse

Problems trusting others

128
Q

Stress and fatigue

Define fatigue:

A

The state of feeling tired, weary, or sleepy that results from periods of anxiety, exposure to harsh environment, or loss of sleep.

129
Q

Stress and fatigue

7 Signs and symptoms of fatigue:

A

Attention / concentration difficult

Feel or appear dull and sluggish

Accuracy, timing, and ability to reason logically degrade

General attempt to conserve energy

Feel or appear careless, uncoordinated, confused, or irritable

Social interactions decline

Involuntary lapses into sleep begin to occur

130
Q

Stress and fatigue

List the 5 stages of sleep

A

Stage 1 = Transition between awake and sleep

Stage 2 = light sleep stage

Stages 3 and 4 = deep sleep, also called “slow wave”

Stage 5 = Rapid Eye Movement (REM)

131
Q

Stress and fatigue

What is sleep inertia?

A

Short-term grogginess right after awaking

132
Q

Stress and fatigue

At what intervals does the circadian cycle increase and decrease?

A 
24 hour cycle
0800 - 1200 hrs. Peak
1300 - 1500 hrs. Decrease
1500 - 2100 hrs. Increase
2100 + decrease to sleep
133
Q

Stress and fatigue

3 types of sleep disruption:

A

Circadian disruptions

Intentional sleep restriction

Personal habits (poor sleep habits)

134
Q

Stress and fatigue

What are optimal napping times?

A

2-4 hr

135
Q

Noise and Vibrations

_____ is the mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by _____ waves in a material medium and is the objective cause of hearing.

A

Sound , Longitudinal pressure

136
Q

Noise and Vibrations

True/False: Sound can be transmitted through any elastic substance such as air, water, or bone.

A

True

137
Q

Noise and Vibrations

_____ occurs when noise masks and obscures words.

A

Speech interference

138
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Hearing loss can occur due to exposure to noise that is above safe limits and damage may be either _____ or _____.

A

Temporary , Permanent

139
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Impulse noise is usually _____; therefore acoustic trauma is usually _____

A

Predictable , Preventable

140
Q

Noise and Vibrations

_____ is characterized as how long you are exposed to noise.

A

Duration

141
Q

Noise and Vibrations

True/False: In most cases conductive hearing loss can be treated medically.

A

True

142
Q

Noise and Vibrations

_____ are the most practical end economical method available for noise protection,

A

Personal protection devises

143
Q

Noise and Vibrations

True/False: If the HGU-56P and IHADSS are worn properly the noise attenuation brings the noise exposure within the confines of risk criteria for every aircraft.

A

False

144
Q

Noise and Vibrations

_____ is tha maximum displacement of an object from its point of rest.

A

Magnitude

145
Q

Noise and Vibrations

True/False: Environmental factors such as turbulence may also intensify vibrations.

A

True

146
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Aircrew members may suffer from _____ at an earlier age than normal.

A

Back pain

147
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Define sound:

A

Sound is mechanical radiant energy that is transmitted by longitudinal pressure waves in a material medium (such as air) and is the objective cause of hearing.

148
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Define Noise:

A

Sound that is:
Loud (perception of the listener)
Unpleasant
Unwanted

149
Q

Noise and Vibrations

3 Measurable characteristics of noise:

A

Frequency
Intensity
Duration

150
Q

Noise and Vibrations

What gives sound quality and pitch?

A

Frequency

151
Q

Noise and Vibrations

The human hearing ranged from _____ to _____ Hz

A

20 , 20,000

152
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Define intensity:

A

A measure that correlates sound pressure to loudness

153
Q

Noise and Vibrations

The damage-risk noise limit is?

A

85 db

154
Q

Noise and Vibrations

what is steady noise?

A

Continuous noise at high intensity

155
Q

Noise and Vibrations

What is impulsive noise

A

Explosive noise, High intensity and low duration

156
Q

Noise and Vibrations

What are the 3 types of hearing loss?

A

Conductive Hearing Loss

Sensorineural Hearing Loss

Mixed

157
Q

Noise and Vibrations

What are the 2 types of Noise Induced Hearing Loss?

A

Temporary Threshold Shift (TTS)

Permanent Threshold Shift (PTS)

158
Q

Noise and Vibrations

3 types of noise in the army a/c

A

Overall noise levels are equal to or exceed 100 dB’s

Most intense noise below 300 Hz

Low frequency noise will produce high frequency hearing loss

159
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Types of noise protection - a/c and personel.

A

Aircraft design, silent operation or noise suppression

Isolate, distance or enclose source (insulate)

Personal protective equipment (most economical and practical)
Attenuation: noise reduction amount
Speech intelligibility increased due to noise reduction
Maximum attenuation is ~50 dB; due to bone conduction

160
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Define Vibration:

A

The motion of an object relative to a reference position (object at rest) involving series of oscillations resulting in the displacement and acceleration of the object

161
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Vibration terminology (5 things):

A 
Frequency
Amplitude
Duration
Natural Body Resonance
Damping
162
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Damping is:

A

Loss of mechanical energy in a vibrating system

163
Q

Noise and Vibrations

3 different sources of vibration:

A

Increased air speed

Internal and external loading

Environmental factors (turbulence)

164
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Short term physical effects of vibration:

A 
Fatigue
Respiratory effects
Circulatory effects
Motion sickness
Disorientation
Pain
165
Q

Noise and Vibrations

Long term Physical effects of vibration:

A

Raynaud’s Disease
Backache/back pain
Kidney and lung damage

166
Q

Noise and Vibrations

How can you reduce the effects of vibration in the a/c?

A

Good posture during flight promotes good circulation

Restraint systems provide protection against high magnitude vibration during extreme turbulence

Maintain your aircraft (rotor blade tracking/balancing)

Army Aviation (8 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions