Admin Flashcards
For Surveillance Test that was aborted, the…
A. Paperwork can be immediately discarded.
B. Acceptance review will be completed, noting that the ST is incomplete.
C. Acceptance review will be completed only after the complete performance of the ST.
D. Paperwork is maintained, however, the acceptance review is not required to be performed.
B. Acceptance review will be completed, noting that the ST is incomplete.
During an emergency situation the Emergency Coordinator has the authority to allow a worker to exceed _____ limits to protect valuable property.
A. 10 CFR 19
B. 10 CFR 20
C. 10 CFR 55
D. 10 CFR 100
B. 10 CFR 20
In accordance with 02DP-0ZZ01, Verification of Plant Activities, which ONE of the following is REQUIRED for ‘physical verification’ of throttled valve position?
A. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.
B. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by BOTH the manipulator and verifier.
C. The manipulator and verifier work independently. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.
D. The manipulator and verifier work independently. The valve is positioned by BOTH the manipulator and the verifier.
A. The manipulator and verifier work together. The valve is positioned by the manipulator only.
Per Conduct of Shift Operations, 40DP-9OP02, the minimum requirements to maintain an active Reactor Operator license are…
A. 40 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous month.
B. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous month.
C. 40 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.
D. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.
D. 60 hours of licensed watchstanding duties in the previous calendar quarter.
Which of the following is the 10 CFR20 annual exposure limit for Whole Body (TEDE) and Lens of the eyes (LDE)?
A. 1500 mrem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE
B. 1500 mrem TEDE, 50 Rem LDE
C. 5 Rem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE
D. 5 Rem TEDE, 50 Rem LDE
C. 5 Rem TEDE, 15 Rem LDE
A large break LOCA has occurred.
Due to emergency conditions a gaseous radioactive release from Containment must be performed to relieve pressure in the containment and bring the plant to a safer condition.
Who may authorize this release without a release permit?
A. Shift Manager.
B. Effluents Supervisor.
C. Chemistry Supervisor.
D. Radiation Protection Supervisor
A. Shift Manager.
Unit 1 is planning a 15% down power.
The crew is about to start the Reactivity Brief.
Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the Reactivity Management guidance found in Operations Department Practices (ODP-01)?
A. The Shift Technical Advisor (STA) must attend the reactivity brief.
B. A Maneuvering Box game plan must be used for this planned power reduction.
C. A peer check is required prior to each reactivity evolution performed during the down power.
D. An additional reactivity brief is required for each turbine manipulation performed during the down power.
C. A peer check is required prior to each reactivity evolution performed during the down power.
A General Emergency has been declared.
Satellite Technical Support Center (STSC) has been activated.
Operation so Support Center (OSC) has been activated.
It has been determined that in order to stabilize the plant repair activities are required to be performed in a high dose area.
Who can authorize a ‘Protecting Valuable Property’ exposure and what is the Dose Limit?
A. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 25 Rem TEDE.
B. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 10 Rem TEDE.
C. Emergency Coordinator or Radiation Protection Monitor, 10 Rem TEDE.
D. Emergency Coordinator or Radiation Protection Monitor, 25 Rem TEDE.
B. Emergency Coordinator ONLY, 10 Rem TEDE.
Note: Version of question for LifeSaving and LifeSaving Voluntary
Unit 1 has automatically tripped from 100% power.
Standard Post Trip Actions (SPTAs) are in progress.
You are the ‘At the Controls’ operator.
SIAS/CIAS have just actuated.
In accordance with Operations Department Practices (ODP-1) which one of the following is the correct method to communicate this information to the ‘Crew’?
A. Inform the CRS of the SIAS/CIAS, then wait for a Control Room Brief to inform the remaining crew members.
B. Announce ‘Crew Update’ wait for all crew members to respond ready then announce the SIAS/CIAS/. State ‘End of Update’.
C. Wait for SPTAs to be completed, then ensure that the CRS is aware of the SIAS/CIAS prior to them choosing which EOP to implement.
D. Announce ‘Attention for a Brief’. The CRS will wait for all crew members to report ready, you can then inform the crew of the SIAS/CIAS when the CRS asks you to report any problems or concerns. CRS announces ‘End of Brief’.
B. Announce ‘Crew Update’ wait for all crew members to respond ready then announce the SIAS/CIAS/. State ‘End of Update’.
What is the significance of the Control Room instruments that have a white placard attached?
These instruments…
A. Are appendix ‘R’ /fire qualified.
B. Are associated with ESFAS actuation set-points.
C. Can also be found at the Remote Shutdown panel.
D. Are post accident monitoring/harsh containment qualified.
D. Are post accident monitoring/harsh containment qualified.
Per 40AC-0ZZ06, (Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Control), when verifying the position of a locked throttled valve, the second checker must:
A. Check the valve closed and return it to throttled position and install lock.
B. Independently verify the valve is throttled by position indication then lock it.
C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.
D. Verifies proper position by redundant means (proper flow, temperature, or pressure).
C. Concurrently verify the correct throttled position and verify the lock installed correctly.
Which one of the following require entry into a one hour or less LCO conditions while in Mode 1, steady state conditions?
A. Pressurizer level is 57%.
B. Reactor Coolant system T-Cold is 540F.
C. An 86 lockout of SIA-P01, High Pressure Safety Injection Pump ‘A’.
D. WCB-UV-63, chill water supply header outside CNMT the isolation valve, has failed it’s stroke time surveillance test.
B. Reactor Coolant system T-Cold is 540F.
You have been directed to perform a valve lineup on the Purification filters with the following conditions:
-General area dose rate is 90 mrem/hr.
-Airborne Radioactivity exists due to ongoing maintenance activities.
-No environmental condition exist that preclude the use of a respirator.
Internal dose rate if respirator is worn is 0 mrem/hour.
Internal dose rate without respirator is 22 mrem/hour.
Time to complete job while wearing a respirator is 3.0 hours.
Time to complete job without a respirator is 2.5 hours.
Which one of the following describes whether a respirator will be worn and why?
A. No, wearing a respirator will raise total exposure.
B. Yes, wearing a respirator will lower total exposure.
C. No, wearing a respirator will make no difference to the total exposure.
D. Yes, a respirator must be worn anytime that airborne radiation is present.
B. Yes, wearing a respirator will lower total exposure.
The following information is posted on a survey map outside a room you are about to enter.
-General Area Radiation levels of 75 mrem/hr.
-Swipes of 75,000 dpm/100cm2.
The posting of this room should be a…
A. Radiation Area only.
B. Radiation Area and Contamination Area.
C. Radiation Area and High Contamination Area.
D. High Radiation Area and High Contamination Area.
B. Radiation Area and Contamination Area.
Pressurizer pressure is 250 psia.
Reactor Coolant System T-cold is 190F.
Shutdown Cooling Train ‘A’ is in service.
The crew attended training last week.
The Control Operator did not attend training but is scheduled to attend next week.
The Reactor Operator attended and successfully completed her training week.
The CRS failed the weekly exam and is scheduled to be remediated next week.
The 3rd Reactor Operator holds an active SRO license and successfully completed his training week.
Per 40DP-9OP02, Conduct of Shift Operations, _____ may be designed to maintain the Control Room command function for this shift?
A. Only the 3rd Reactor Operator.
B. Either the 3rd Reactor Operator or CRS.
C. Either the Reactor Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.
D. Either the Reactor Operator, Control Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.
D. Either the Reactor Operator, Control Operator or 3rd Reactor Operator.
1310 - An Alert, (FA-1) was declared due to a LOCA and the RCS being at saturation conditions.
1330 - REP CET readings are 710F.
1330 - RVLMS indicates 0% in the plenum.
It is the Emergency Coordinator responsibility to inform the State/County agencies no later than (A) of the upgrade to a (B).
A. (A) 1400 (B) Site Area Emergency.
B. (A) 1400 (B) General Emergency.
C. (A) 1430 (B) Site Area Emergency.
D. (A) 1430 (B) General Emergency.
A. (A) 1400 (B) Site Area Emergency.
Unit 1 is in Mode 5 during a refueling outage.
‘A’ Train shutdown cooing is in service.
Spent Fuel Pool Level Hi or Lo is in alarm.
Spent Fuel Pool Level Lo-Lo is in alarm.
An Auxiliary Operator confirms Spent Fuel Pool level is 136ft 6 inches and slowly lowering.
What is the current status of (A) LCO 3.7.14, Fuel Storage Pool Water Level (B) Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (C) and which procedure should be implemented to correct this condition?
A. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is not required (B) SFP cooling must be secured at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.
B. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.
C. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling must be secured at this level (C) 40EP-9EO11, Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure.
D. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is not required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40EP-9EO11, Lower Mode Functional Recovery Procedure.
B. (A) Entry in to LCO 3.7.14 is required (B) SFP cooling can remain in operation at this level (C) 40AO-9ZZ23, Loss of SFP Level or Cooling.
Per 01DP-9ZZ01, Systematic Trouble shooting, who is responsible to determine the level of troubleshooting gameplan?
A. Shift Manager.
B. System Engineer.
C. Shift Technical Advisor.
D. Unit Department Leader.
A. Shift Manager.
- Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
- An Abnormal Operating procedure has been implemented.
- The following steep has been completed.
If cooling water can not be restored, THEN perform the following:
1.) Ensure the Reactor is tripped.
2.) Stop all the RCPs.
3.) Isolate controlled bleed-off.
4.) PERFORM the appropriate procedure for current plant conditions.
Which statement below best describes the use of Abnormal Operating Procedures (AOPs) after the crew has entered the Emergency Operating procedures (EOPs)?
A. Immediately exit the AOP being performed.
B. No further AOP actions are permitted until after the SPTAs are completed.
C. Any AOP that has been started prior to a reactor trip must be performed through completion.
D. Continue through the AOP until a step is reached that directs exiting the procedure.
D. Continue through the AOP until a step is reached that directs exiting the procedure.
In accordance with PVNGS Policies, Practices and Procedures, which one of the following conditions/actions requires notification of the NRC?
A. Single PPS channel trip.
B. Loss of both Nuclear Cooling Water pumps.
C. Fire in the Operations Support Building that is extinguished within 10 minutes.
D. Auxiliary Operator is referred to medical due to a finger laceration while operating a manual valve.
B. Loss of both Nuclear Cooling Water pumps.
Which ONE of the following in the lower oxygen concentration limit which establishes confined space entry requirements?
A. 16.0%
B. 19.5%
C. 21.0%
D. 23.5%
B. 19.5%
Which ONE of the following describes the control room personnel that MUST attend a reactivity brief for a normal shiftly dilution per ODP-1 (Operations Principles and Standards)?
The CRS, RO…
A. And CO.
B. And STA.
C. CO and SM.
D. STA and SM.
A. And CO.
- Unit 1 is operating at 100% power.
- The operating crew is performing a lineup to Drain the Safety Injection Tank (SIT) 1A.
- SIE-V463 (SIT Fill and Drain Line Containment Isolation Valve) is to be opened to support the evolution.
- The CRS has verified this to be a normally locked closed Containment Isolation valve.
Per guidance found in 40DP-9OP19 (Locked Valve, Breaker, and Component Tracking), this valve…
A. Is prohibited from being operated while in Mode 1.
B. May be opened provided that the four hour action for an inoperable containment penetration is entered when the valves is opened.
C. May be opened provided an Operator is identified in the Control Room log with the responsibility to close the valve with in 1 (ONE) hour.
D. Many be opened provided a dedicated Operator is stationed at the valve who must be in constant communication with the Control Room.
D. Many be opened provided a dedicated Operator is stationed at the valve who must be in constant communication with the Control Room.
- A Surviellance Test (ST) is being performed on numerous valves.
- The ST is being performed at the 90% due date.
- The CO strokes one particular valve several times prior to beginning the ST due to his experience with this valve sticking.
- Upon completion of the ST several pages have no other entries than an N/A.
- One valve had to be re-tested due to a failure of M&TE.
- The CRS recognizes the pre-conditioning condition during his administrative review of the ST.
- The STA is NOT licensed.
Which one of the following statements is correct concerning this situation?
A. The ST pages whose only entry is an N/A should be discarded.
B. The acceptance review should be completed by the STA prior to the end of the shift.
C. Replacement pages may be added to complete testing on the valve with the failed M&TE.
D. The pre-conditioning valve must be declared inoperable at the time the CRS recognition.
C. Replacement pages may be added to complete testing on the valve with the failed M&TE.
Which ONE of the following describes the 10CFR20 NON-Emergency radiation dose limit for Extremities (Elbows and below, Knees and Below)?
A. 5 Rem per year.
B. 15 Rem per year.
C. 25 Rem per year.
D. 50 Rem per year.
D. 50 Rem per year.
- You are preparing to enter the RCA on an approved Radiological Exposure Permit (REP).
- Electronic Personnel Dosimeter (EPD) dose alarm setting is 500 mrem.
- Electronic Personnel Dosimeter (EPD) dose rate alarm setting is 1000 mrem/hr.
- The expected RP work area dose rate is 200 mrem/hr.
- The actual work area dose rate is 1000 mrem/hr.
Based on the conditions above which ONE of the following describes when you would be required to exit the Radiological Control Area (RCA)?
A. Immediately due to the EPD dose alarm.
B. In 30 minutes due to the EPD dose alarm.
C. Immediately due to the EPD dose rate alarm.
D. In 30 minutes due to an EPD dose rate alarm.
C. Immediately due to the EPD dose rate alarm.
- Unit 1 has tripped from 100% power due to an RCS leak.
- A loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) occurred on a trip.
- Standard Post Trip Actions (SPTAs) are in progress.
- Bus Plus criteria is not currently being met.
In accordance with the EOP User guide (40DP-9AP16) which ONE of the following actions is appropriate?
A. The Functional Recovery Procedure may be entered directly if the Entry Conditions are met.
B. The use of AOPs is NOT allowed in conjunction with the EOPs, The Standard Appendices shall be implemented as required.
C. Upon completion of the Reactivity Safety Function the CRS may direct actions in an AOP that would recover the required electrical bus(s).
D. If the CRS determines that the MVAC safety function is not met during the SPTAs he may immediately implement the Functional Recovery Procedure.
C. Upon completion of the Reactivity Safety Function the CRS may direct actions in an AOP that would recover the required electrical bus(s).
Unit 3 has tripped.
SPTAs are in progress.
Which ONE of the following describes the use of Alarm Response Procedures during the EOPs?
Use of Alarm Response Procedures should…
A. Resume only after the EOPs are exited.
B. Resume only after the SPTAs are exited.
C. Be used concurrently with the SPTAs at all times.
D. Resume only after the plant stabilizes and when directed by the CRS.
D. Resume only after the plant stabilizes and when directed by the CRS.
A plant perturbation is in progress that if not properly addressed could result in a manual or automatic Unit trip.
Which ONE of the following sets of procedures would be used to mitigate this event?
A. Normal Operating Procedures.
B. General Operating Procedures.
C. Abnormal Operating Procedures.
D. Emergency Operating Procedures.
C. Abnormal Operating Procedures.
Which ONE of the following describes when a plant-wide announcement is required to be made?
A. Changing from Mode 3 to Mode 2.
B. Energizing PNA-D25 after a permit has been cleared.
C. Starting HCN-A01C (CTMT Normal ACU Fan) from the Control Room.
D. AFB-P01 (Essential Motor Driven Aux Feed Pump) started automatically on AFAS-1.
A. Changing from Mode 3 to Mode 2.
- Unit 1 is in a Mid-Loop Condition
- Maintenance requests permission to re-lug ESFAS jumper leads.
Prior to this Work Order being released to the field, who (by title) is responsible to verify the proper RCS perturbation Code?
A. Releasing Organization and Outage Coordinator.
B. Releasing Organization and Operations Shift Manager.
C. Outage Coordinator and Mid-loop Operations Coordinator.
D. Mid-loop Operations Coordinator and Operations Shift Manager.
D. Mid-loop Operations Coordinator and Operations Shift Manager
Which ONE of the following is the lowest (least severe) Emergency Action Level that REQUIRES the EC to direct accountability, per Emergency Plan?
A. Unusual Event.
B. Alert.
C. Site Area Emergency.
D. General Emergency.
C. Site Area Emergency.