Active Shooter Mass Casualty Protcol Flashcards

1
Q

____________ ___________:An incident, normally occurring in a confined and populated area, during which one or more armed persons are using deadly force in an on­ going manner and where persons have been killed, injured or are under imminent threat of death or serious bodily harm by such persons. In most cases, active shooters use firearms and there is no pattern or method to their selection of victims.

A

Active shooter

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2
Q

_________ __________: The person responsible for all aspects of an emergency response, including quickly developing incident objectives, managing all incident operations, application of resources as well as responsibility for all persons involved. The role of Incident Commander (IC) may be assumed by senior or higher-qualified officers upon their arrival or as the situation dictates. The IC performs all ICS command and staff responsibilities unless those functions are delegated and assigned. The first arriving law enforcement officer, regardless of actions taken, still assumes the responsibilities and functions of the IC until relieved of command by a subsequent arriving officer of higher qualification.

A

Incident commander

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3
Q

Incident Command System (ICS): A __________ response system of organization used for the command, control, and coordination of emergency operations of all types and complexities. ICS provides a standard management hierarchy that allows personnel from a wide variety of agencies to meld rapidly into a common management structure working toward a single set of objectives as developed through an incident action plan (IAP). Fundamental concepts of ICS include unity of __________, span of control, common terminology, and comprehensive resource management. It provides logistical and administrative support to operational staff . ICS is a subcomponent of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) and California’s Standardized Emergency Management System (SEMS) and is adopted as the incident management system to be used for operations under this policy.

A

Scalable

Command

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4
Q

_________ __________ Involves two or more individuals sharing the authority normally held by a single IC. Unified Command is used on larger or complex incidents when multiple agencies or multiple jurisdictions are involved.

A

Unified command

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5
Q

Contact Team​: An organized group of 1-4 law enforcement officers who enter an area or building where an active threat is believed to be currently using deadly force. The sole function of the Contact Team is to isolate, capture or neutralize the suspect(s) by ______ or _______ force.

A

Arrest

Deadly

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6
Q

Rescue Task Force: A team deployed into a potential ______ _____ to provide point of wound care to victims.

A

Warm zone

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7
Q

A Rescue Task Force (RTF) may be comprised of 2-4 law enforcement personnel providing force protection along with 2-4 Fire-based EMS providers. Ideally, each RTF should include at least one paramedic provider. RTF functions are very discipline-specific (the primary and sole purpose of fire personnel is the rescue and treatment of _______ persons, while the primary and sole purpose of law enforcement personnel is force _________).

A

Injured

Protection

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8
Q

Force Protection Actions taken by law enforcement to prevent or mitigate hostile actions against response personnel, resources, and facilities. Force protection for fire personnel will only be provided by _______ _________ personnel.

A

Law enforcement

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9
Q

________ ________ ________: the person responsible for the operations and deployment of the tactical team, to include but not limited to the deployment of the initial responding police officers such as Contact Teams, containment officers, and RTF teams. The Tactical Group Supervisor will work closely with a Rescue Group Supervisor (Fire) on the deployment of fire personnel in RTFs

A

Tactical group supervisor

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10
Q

• Inclusion of the Homeland Security Presidential Directive-5 requires domestic incidents to be managed by the ___________________ including a focus on _______________.

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

Unified Command

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11
Q

Because of the many varying factors, there should____ be one universal tactical policy.

A

NOT

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12
Q

a) The mission or objective should be ____ and obtainable, given the circumstances known at the time

A

clear

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13
Q

The Active Shooter Protocol is consistent with the “_____ ____ __ ______” video.

A

“Run, Hide, Defend” video.

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14
Q

B. Incident Command System (ICS) A _______ response system used for the command, control, and coordination (CCC)

A

scalable

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15
Q

C. ICS provides a standard management hierarchy that allows personnel from a wide variety of agencies to meld rapidly into a common management structure working toward a single set of objectives as developed through an incident action plan (IAP). ICS is a ______________ of the National Incident Management System (NIMS) and California’s Standardized Emergency Management System (SEMS).

A

subcomponent

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16
Q

The ________ Officer will ensure the following:

1. Inner/Outer Perimeter and Control Zones are established and communicated to all personnel

A

Safety

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17
Q

It is important to note that in Unified Command, the command representatives will appoint a ______ Operations Section Chief.

A

single

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18
Q

Hot Zone: The area where a _______ and ________ threat exists. Activities in this area are restricted to law enforcement Contact Teams working to isolate, capture or neutralize the active threat.

A

Direct

Immediate

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19
Q

Warm Zone: The area where a _______ threat exists, but the threat is not direct or immediate. The Warm Zone is an area that law enforcement Contact Teams have __________. An example of this is an unknown location of suspects in a given area already cleared.

A

Potential

Cleared

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20
Q

Cold Zone: The area where _____ significant danger or threat can be reasonably anticipated. This could be achieved by distance, geographic location or inaccessible areas from the incident. The Cold Zone is the location for ________ of resources, ICP, treatment and transportation of patients.

A

No

Staging

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21
Q

Cleared Area: An area that has been initially cleared by _____ _______ members and is determined to be safe for RTF. This area may contain CCPs.

A

Contact team

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22
Q

Secured Area An area that has been systematically cleared by law enforcement and found to be free of _________ . These areas have had ________ searches conducted and security has been actively maintained

A

Threats

Secondary

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23
Q

________: Any physical object or barrier that is capable of providing a responder with protection from gunfire.

A

Cover

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24
Q

An area or object that prevents or limits a suspect’s ability to observe a responder, but that may not provide protection from gunfire.

A

Concealment

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25
Q

_________ _________: An area that is a centralized location in the Cold Zone, near the incident scene where arriving resources will assemble once ready for assignment.

A

Staging area

26
Q

Casualty collection Point: (CCP) is a location within the _________ ________, under force protection, where casualties ______ be kept and receive medical care until they can be safely moved to a Patient Treatment Area.

A

Warm zone

May

27
Q

Triage Area: is located in the ________ _________, and is where the process of determining the priority of patients’ treatment based on the severity of their condition occurs.

A

Cold zone

28
Q

________ ________ _______: An area in a multi-casualty event under control of the Medical Group Supervisor or Treatment Unit Leader. Patient Treatment Areas should be established in a safe location in the Cold Zone, easily accessible to EMS transport vehicles arriving from medical staging.

A

Patient treatment area

29
Q

__________ _________: An area inside the Warm Zone, secured by law enforcement personnel (force protection), that allows for the egress of victims to a CCP, or from the CCP to a triage/ treatment area, in a mitigated risk environment.

A

Evacuation corridor

30
Q

_________ _________: Term used to describe a situation in which a RTF alters its objective or encounters a change of conditions that affects its movement (e.g. running out of supplies, encountering an IED, reaching the edge of the Hot Zone, or determining that there are no additional patients).

A

Stop point

31
Q

The first arriving officer may immediately move to the threat. It is still the responsibility of the initial officer to coordinate incoming response while _____ ______ the threat

A

actively seeking

32
Q

Once the ICP is established, all incoming units will respond to the _______ area and shall not ____ _____ into the incident

A

staging

self-deploy

33
Q
  1. Fire will operate per Santa Clara County Mutual Aid Plan Appendix 1 - Radio Communications Plan. All fire dispatch Communication Centers shall be notified by means of a “___ ___” broadcast or via the SVRCS Significant Event Radio Communications Protocol announcing an “active shooter” incident.
A

Red Net

34
Q
  1. The initial standard county-wide fire response to these types of events should be the equivalent of a full first alarm (e.g. __ engines, __ truck, and __ battalion chiefs).
A

3, 2, 2

35
Q

(a) It shall be the responsibility of any adjoining law enforcement jurisdiction ________ _______ ______ to provide information to their Communications Center regarding all available resources that could be called upon to assist in the resolution of an active shooter situation

A

ranking field supervisor

36
Q

The _______ _______ fire officer shall establish Unified Command with the _______ _______ law enforcement officer that remains in a command position not directly assigned as a Contact Team member.

A

first arriving

first arriving

37
Q

II. Safety Officer (SOF) - The IC shall designate a SOF to develop and recommend measures for assuring ________ safety and to assess and/ or anticipate hazardous and unsafe situations.

A

II. Safety Officer (SOF) - The IC shall designate a SOF to develop and recommend measures for assuring personnel safety and to assess and/ or anticipate hazardous and unsafe situations.

38
Q

E. The ________ Officer will ensure the following:

1. Inner/Outer Perimeter and Control Zones are established and communicated to all personnel

A

Safety

39
Q

________ _________: Deployment of law enforcement officers on or near the boundary between the Hot Zone and the Warm Zone w

A

Inner perimeter

40
Q

__________ _________: Deployment of personnel where appropriate in order to exclude unauthorized persons from entering potential danger areas or otherwise interfering with response operations.

A

Outer perimeter

41
Q

________ _________ _______ _______: (TECC) Forward deployment of stabilizing medical interventions in civilian disaster scenarios, based on military Tactical Casualty Combat Care (TCCC) principles. These principles focus on the three most common cause of preventable death in combat (active shooting) situations:

1) extremity hemorrhage,
2) tension pneumothorax,
3) airway obstructions. All of these are treatable in the field with minimal equipment.

A

Tactical emergency casualty care

42
Q

A. The IC/Unified Command shall approve any information released to the ___ or directly to the media.
B. Consider use of a ________ ______ _____ that consolidates all agency and incident information flow from the multitude of agencies involved. A JIS can establish a well-controlled information sharing plan amongst agencies.

A

PIO

Joint Information System (JIS)

43
Q

Planning lntelligence Section Chief (PSC) - The PSC is responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination and use of information about the development of the incident and status of resources. The PSC is also responsible for facilitating the ________ _______.
A. The IC should ensure that a specific _______ ______ _______ is designated as the PSC

This PSC law enforcement officer shall be responsible to coordinate incoming information and serve in the central role in the creation of the law enforcement report ______ the incident.

A

Planning Process

law enforcement officer

after

44
Q

The PSC or Deputy PSC not assigned to ___________ shall be responsible for the collection, evaluation, dissemination, and use of information about the development of the incident and status of resources. This person is also responsible for the Planning Process and to facilitate preparation of the___

A

intelligence

IAP

45
Q

Logistics Section Chief (LSC) - The LSC is responsible for providing ______ , _______, and supplies in support of the incident. The IC may authorize the assignment of a Deputy LSC to provide discipline-specific knowledge and expertise to complement that of the LSC.

A

facilities

services

46
Q
  1. RTF communications function on ___ ______ radio nets.
    (a) The RTF law enforcement personnel communicate with the _______ Group Supervisor.
    (b) The RTF fire personnel communicate with the Group Supervisor
A

two different
Tactical
Rescue

47
Q

Operations Section Chief (OSC) - (Law, Fire) The IC shall establish a single OSC that may be supported by a Deputy OSC. In the initial phases of the event, it may work best with ____ serving as the OSC with ____ serving as Deputy OSC.

A

law

fire

48
Q

II. Tactical Group Supervisor - (Law) A supervisor from the agency having primary jurisdiction of the incident. The Tactical Group Supervisor shall have specific operational control of the crime scene from the ______ _______ forward. It shall be the responsibility of the Tactical Group Supervisor, upon the direction of the IC, to supervise the tactical response segment of the plan of action

A

Inner Perimeter

49
Q

A. The objective of the tactical response shall be:
1. Stop the criminal acts being ______ by either ________ the threat or by _________ the suspect(s) to a point where the threat to others is eliminated (the threat is neutralized)

A

committed
eliminating
confining

50
Q

B. Although terminology may differ among agencies and tactics will depend upon the nature of the situation and the availability of resources, it is of paramount importance that the IC consider the following basic contingencies and universal priority:

  1. Contact Team(s)
  2. _______Task Force(s)
  3. _______ Teams
A

Rescue

Corridor

51
Q
Initial RTF(s)
(a)	Primary objective is to reduce mortality through the use of life-saving interventions for rapid \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_, tension pneumothorax, and airway control in accordance with Tactical Emergency Casualty Care (TECC) guidelines. RTF(s) operating in the Warm Zone should not conduct \_\_\_\_\_.
A

hemorrhage

triage

52
Q

______ tape will be used to indicate an injured but viable patient, while _____________ tape will indicate a non-viable patient

A

Red

Black-striped

53
Q

Law enforcement personnel assigned to RTF

(a) Will provide security and control movement of RTF. They should ___ _______ with any patient care or movement of patients
(b) Shall remain with the RTF and should ___ ________ themselves from fire personnel.

A

not assist

not separate

54
Q

________ _______ ________ Supervisor-(Fire) Responsible for the short-term collection, sorting and limited first aid treatment of patients for rapid removal as soon as reasonably practicable to the Treatment/Transportation Area

A

Casualty Collection Point (CCP)

55
Q

________ __ _______ medical stabilization should occur prior to evacuation to CCP

A

Point of wound

56
Q

________Group Supervisor- responsible to manage the triage treatment and transportation of casualties

A

Medical

57
Q

Law Group Supervisor- (Law) a supervisor from the agency with primary jurisdiction responsible for all law enforcement functions _______ of the Tactical Group

A

outside

58
Q

Upon receiving information that an Active Shooter Incident is occurring in an adjoining jurisdiction, the allied jurisdiction field supervisors shall immediately initiate the process of_______ available resources to appropriate locations that could compliment a timely response if a deployment of resources is _______.

A

staging

requested

59
Q

A. That any deployment shall only commence after notification to and with the _________ of ranking personnel of the agency of jurisdiction.
B. Self-deployment without notification and concurrence of the agency of jurisdiction shall only commence after all reasonable attempts to notify the agency have _______.

A

concurrence

failed

60
Q

II. The Investigative Assistance for Violent Crimes Act of 2012 (HR2076) authorizes the
___________ (through the deployment of the FBI) to assist, with providing investigatory assistance in response to violent acts or shootings occurring in a place of public use and in investigation of mass killings (__ or more) and attempted mass killings.

A

U.S. Attorney

3

61
Q

Initial Resources Dispatched
__ - __ Law Enforcement Officers

__-__ Fire Companies plus 2 Chief Officers

__ Ambulances plus 1-2 Supervisors

A

6 to 10

5 to 6

4