ACE Review - OR Management Flashcards

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1
Q

Radiation therapy. What is it’s effect on bone marrow

A

Suppression.

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2
Q

Radiation therapy. What effects does it have on the heart most commonly.

A

Pericarditis.

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3
Q

Radiation therapy. When can this pericarditis occur.

A

6-24 months post treatment

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4
Q

Radiation therapy. What is the symptom of pericarditis.

A

It is usually asymptomatic.

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5
Q

Radiation therapy. What is the concerning cardiac condition.

A

Myocardial infarction.

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6
Q

Radiation treatment. How many people can develop radiation pneumonitis

A

From 5-20%

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7
Q

Radiation treatment. When can it occur

A

It can occur from 2-6 months after treatment

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8
Q

Radiation. Treatment. What increases the chances of radiation pneumonitis.

A

The use of chemotherapy and antibiotic based chemos like bleomycin.

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9
Q

heat loss. what is the most common way of heat loss

A

radiation

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10
Q

heat loss. what are the modes

A

conduction, convection, evaporation, radiation

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11
Q

heat loss. how does radiation work

A

lost of heat 2ndry to temperature difference in room to the 4th power

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12
Q

heat loss. how does evaporation work

A

it only accounts for 10% of heat loss

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13
Q

heat loss. how does conduction work

A

it is the heat loss by the temp differentials between 2 surfaces

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14
Q

heat loss. how does convection work

A

It is the loss of heat by a flowing fluid across a surface.

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15
Q

Anaphylaxis. What immunoglobulin is it mediated by

A

Ige

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16
Q

Anaphylaxis. When can symptoms manifest.

A

Within 10-15 minutes of admin of drug causing reaction.

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17
Q

Anaphylaxis. Why do no need to keep pt in step down unit after anaphylactic reaction.

A

Because anaphylaxis can reoccur in patients 6-10hours after first inciting episode.

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18
Q

Anaphylaxis. How many grades are there

A

4 grades.

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19
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is grade 4 of anaphylaxis

A

It is cardiac arrest. This can happen as the coronaries an also be affected and vasospasm. The patient can suffer a cardiac arrest.

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20
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the cause of Bronchoconstriction of anaphylaxis

A

Prostaglandin d2

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21
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the difference between anaphylaxis versus anaphylactoid.

A

Ige is the mediator for anaphylaxis. Not anaphylactoid.

22
Q

Anaphylaxis. Can you tell the difference between anaphylactoid and anaphylaxis clinically

A

No.

23
Q

Anaphylaxis. How can you tell on your ventilator that it is bronchospasm.

A

Elevated peak pressures but normal plateau pressures.

24
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the most common drug that causes anaphylaxis.

A

Muscle relaxants.

25
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the second most common cause for anaphylaxis.

A

Latex.

26
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the second most common cause for anaphylaxis.

A

Antibiotics.

27
Q

Anaphylaxis. What to look for in lidocaine that can cause allergic reaction.

A

See if the lidocaine is multidose vial. PABA use to be added to lidocaine that can cause allergic reaction. However now we have MPF lidocaine multiuse vials that can avoid this allergic reaction.

28
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is PABA

A

Para-amino benzoic acid.

29
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is MPF.

A

Methyl-parabin free

30
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the drug to administer.

A

Epinephrine.

31
Q

Anaphylaxis. What is the dosing of epinephrine.

A

It depends on the grade. If it is grade 2, 10-20 mcg. If it is grade 3, 100-200mcg every 2 minutes until the patient is stable and an infusion could be started.

32
Q

Postoperative cognitive dysfunction. What is the highest risk factor

A

Advanced age.

33
Q

Postoperative cognitive dysfunction. What is considered advanced age.

A

Age greater than 80.

34
Q

Postoperative cognitive dysfunction. What is the rate of advanced age pts getting pocd

A

33 percent

35
Q

Fires. When determining what to do first. What should u look for.

A

If there is an airway fire or not.

36
Q

Fires. What should be the order of things if there is no airway fire.

A

Stop all flows. Remove burning material. Flood field with water

37
Q

Fires. What should be done in order if there was an airway fire.

A

Pull tube. Stop flows. Remove fired material. Flood field.

38
Q

pulmonary artery catheter. what is the most common complication

A

dysrythmia

39
Q

pulmomary artery catheter. what is the most common type of bbb seen with it

A

right bundle branch block

40
Q

pulmonary artery catheter. what preexisting bbb is concerning for pac placement

A

a lbbb bc if a rbbb is caused by placement then the pt is now in complete heart block

41
Q

pulmonary artery catheter. what is the mech of action of pulm art cath assc infarction

A

malposition of pac….this is more common than emboli from pac

42
Q

pulmonary artery catheter. what is the most common type of infarction by pac if an infarction does occur

A

a pulmonary infarction

43
Q

pulmonary artery catheter. does changing out the pac decrease the chance of bacteremia

A

no. bc the cordis is still in place. the whole thing needs to be chagned

44
Q

Latex allergy. Who is at an increased risk for latex allergy.

A

Spina bifida or urinary tract abnormality pts bc they have an increase in usage of latex gloves at a young age.

45
Q

Latex allergy. What is the treatment when pt develops latex anaphylaxis

A

Removal all latex and start fluids epi and bronch dilators

46
Q

SIRS. what are the 4 major criteria

A

wbc>12000/10%bands; heart rate greater than 90; rr>20/paco238 or <36

47
Q

SIRS. what is sepsis.

A

when SIRS + source of infection

48
Q

SIRS. when is it considered severe

A

when there is end organ hypoperfusion.

49
Q

SIRS. what are signs of end organ hypoperfusion

A

prolong cap refill, oliguira, lactate level >2, alt mental status, thrmobocytopenia, dic, ards, cardiac dysfunc

50
Q

SIRS. how is hypotension defined as

A

sbp <90