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MSK > Abx & Friends > Flashcards

Abx & Friends Flashcards

1
Q

Mnemonic

The Queens Guidance Counsellor Finds Abx Can Protect Large Royal Members

A
  • tetracyclines
  • fluoroquinolones
  • glyco/lipopeptides
  • cephalosporins
  • folate antagonists
  • aminoglycosides
  • carbapenems
  • penicillins
  • lincosamides
  • rifampin
  • metronidazole
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2
Q

Gram coverage of tetracyclines

A

+/-

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3
Q

Name one tetracycline and what it can treat

A

Doxycycline - chlamydia trach., Treponema pallidum, MRSA

PO/IV

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4
Q

Name some contraindications or adverse effects for tetracyclines

A

Do not use with penicillins

AEs: teeth discoloration, photosensitivity

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5
Q

What is the gram coverage of Fluoroquinolones

A

+/-

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6
Q

What are some AEs of fluoroquinolones

A

tendon ruptures, QT prolongation

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7
Q

Name some examples of a fluoroquinolone and what they treat

A

Levofloxacin (pneumonia), Ciprofloxacin (enteric, pseudomonas, Neisseria)

PO/IV

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8
Q

Name some AEs of glyco/lipopeptides

A

Infusion reactions, “red man” syndrome

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9
Q

What is the gram coverage of glyco/lipopeptides

A

+

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10
Q

Name an example of a glyco/lipopeptide and what it can treat

A

Vancomycin (s. aureus, MRSA, MRSE, C. diff)

PO/IV

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11
Q

What is the gram coverage of cephalosporins

A

+/- (increasing negative coverage with higher generations)

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12
Q

What are some AEs of cephalosporins

A

allergies, red stools, biliary sludge

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13
Q

Name some examples of each generation of cephalosporin and what they can treat

A

1: cephalexin (PO), cephazolin (IV) - E. coli, Kleibsiella
2: Cephaclor (PO) - Neisseria
3: Ceftriaxone (IV), Cefdinir (PO) - gonorrhea, meningitis
4: Cephapine (IV) - pseudomonas aeruginosa
5: Cefteroline (IV) - MRSA

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14
Q

Name an AE of folate antagonists

A

steven’s johnson’s syndrome

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15
Q

What is the gram coverage of folate antagonists

A

+/-

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15
Q

What is an example of a folate antagonist

A

Sulfamethoxazole/Bactrim

PO/IV

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15
Q

What is an adverse effect of aminoglycosides

A

ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity

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15
Q

What is an example of an aminoglycoside and what can it treat

A

Gentamycin (IV) - pseudomonas, pneumonia

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15
Q

What is the gram coverage of aminoglycosides

A

-

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15
Q

What is an adverse effect of carbapenems

A

seizures

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15
Q

what is the gram coverage of carbapenems

A

+/-

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16
Q

What are some examples of carbapenems

A

Meropenem (IV)
Imepenem (IV) - broadest coverage

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17
Q

What are some side effects of penicillins

A

allergy, rash, diarrhea

18
Q

what is the gram coverage of penicillins

A

+/-

19
Q

What are some of the classes of penicillins and some examples

A

Natural: PCN G (IM), PCN V (PO) - Neiserria meningitides, treponema pallidum
Amino: Amox/Clav (PO), Amp/Sulb (PO) - E. coli, salmonella, anaerobes
Pseud: Pip/taz (IV): pseudomonal

20
Q

What is an adverse effect of macrolides

A

QT prolongation

21
Q

What is the gram coverage of macrolides

A

+

22
Q

What is an example of a macrolide and what it treats

A

Azithromycin (PO/IV) - atypicals, chlamydia, legionella

23
Q

What is an adverse effect of lincosamides

A

increased C. diff risk

24
Q

What is the gram coverage of lincosamides

A

+

25
Q

Name a lincosamide and what it can treat

A

Clindamycin (PO/IV) - anaerobes, MRSA

26
Q

What is the gram coverage of Rifampin

A

+/-

27
Q

What is an AE of rifampin

A

orange/red body fluids

28
Q

What is the gram coverage of metronidazole

A

+/-

29
Q

What is an adverse effect of metronidazole

A

dark urine

30
Q

What can metronidazole treat

PO/IV

A

anaerobes, protozoals: giardia, trichomonas

31
Q

What are some biologic/Kinase inhibitor DMARDs

A

Humira/adalimumab, Enbrel/etanercept (TNF-a inhibitors)

sub-q

32
Q

What is an example of a traditional DMARD

A

methotrexate (PO)

33
Q

Name a glucocorticoid and its route

A

prednisone (PO)

34
Q

name some non-opioid pain agents

A

acetaminophen, aspirine, duloxetine (SSNRI), gabapentin (delta ligands)

35
Q

name some opioid pain meds

A

hydrocodone-acetaminophen (Vicodin), oxycodone (oxycontin)

36
Q

name some NSAIDs

A

diclofenac, ibuprofen, indomethacine, toradol, naproxen

37
Q

name some muscle relaxers

A

cyclobenzaprine, diazepam

38
Q

name some gout meds

A

allopurinol (nonselective), colchicine (antigout)

39
Q

what would you likely use to treat osteomyelitis

A

Fluoroquinolones (no residual infected bone = 2-5 days PO, residual infected bone = 6 weeks PO, hardware = 6 weeks IV then 12 weeks PO)

40
Q

Would you use PO or IV vancomycin for MRSA

A

IV because PO isn’t as bioavailable

41
Q

Name some drugs with high oral bioavailability

A

Clindamycin, Metronidazole, Fluoroquinolones, Doxycycline, Oxazolidinones, Rifampin

42
Q

What would you use empirically for osteomyelitis or infected prosthetic joints (IV)

A

Vancomycin (for MRSA) + Cefepime (3/4th gen ceph for gram -)

43
Q

What would you use to treate septic arthritis empirically (IV)

A

Vancomycin (gram+) + Cefepime (Gram-), + Gentamicin or cipro (pseudomonas)

44
Q

What would you use for all open fractures emperically (IV)

A

Cefazolin and vancomycin (add coverage for contaminations)

45
Q

Directed IV therapy for MSSA infection

A

nafcillin, oxacillin, or cefazolin

46
Q

Directed IV therapy for MRSA infection

A

Vancomycin or daptomycin

47
Q

Directed IV therapy for strep infection

A

PCN G, ampicillin, ceftriaxone, or vanco

48
Q

directed IV therapy for gram- infections

A

ciproflox, levoflox, ceftazidime, cefepime, ertapenem, meropenem

49
Q

Directed IV therapy for enterococcus

A

pcn G, ampicillin, vanco, dapto

50
Q

Directed PO therapy for MSSA infection

A

dicloxacillin, cefadroxil, cephalexin

51
Q

Directed PO therapy for MRSA

A

smx-tmp, doxycycline, clindamycin

MSK (9 decks)

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