Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Flashcards > Abnormal Psychology Exam 1 > Flashcards

Abnormal Psychology Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Psychological disorder

A

psychological dysfunction with an individual associated with distress or impairment in functioning and a response that diverges from what is typical or culturally anticipated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Psychological Dysfunction

A

A breakdown in cognitive, emotional, or behavioral functioning
-The more dysfunctional behaviors and feelings are, the more likely they are to be considered abnormal
-Every type of dysfunction does not lead to a disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Dysfunctional distress

A

When a person is much more distressed than others would be
-Distress is a normal reaction in some situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Impairment

A

must be pervasive and/or significant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Statistical infrequency

A

how unusual the behavior must be?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Cultural Norms

A

consider “normalcy” relative to behavior of others in same cultural context
-cultural perspective remains a crucial reference point
-different with genders
-different with generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Psychopathology

A

Scientific study of psychological dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ph.D. Clinical and counseling psychologist

A

trained in research and delivering treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Psy. D Clinical and counseling “Doctor of Psychology

A

trained in delivering treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

M.D. Psychiatrist

A

investigate the nature and causes of psychological disorders
-biological point of view -> diagnosis -> treatment
-First earn MD then specialize psychiatry in Residency Training (3-4 years)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Psychiatric nurses

A

specialize in psychological disorders
-MD or PhD
-Hospitals; treatment team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Licensed clinical social worker

A

trained in delivering treatment
-MD
-treat after focus on family problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Marriage & family therapists and mental health counselors

A

employed for clinical services by hospitals or clinics
-under supervision of a doctoral-level clinician
1-2 years MD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Scientist Practioner

A

scientific approach to clinical work by mental health professional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mental health professional functioning as a scientist-practitioner (hint: CEC of science)

A

Consumer of science, Evaluator of science, and Creator of science

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mental health professional functioning as a scientist-practitioner: Consumer of science

A

-enhancing the practice
-use the most current diagnosis & treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mental health professional functioning as a scientist-practitioner: Evaluator of sciece

A

-determining the effectiveness of the practice
-accountability to patients, government agencies, and insurance companies bring obligation to demonstrate effectivity of treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mental health professional functioning as a scientist-practitioner: Creator of sciece

A

-conducting research that leads to new procedures useful in practice
-clinics or hospitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Three categories make up the study of Psychological disorders (hint: CCT)

A

Clinical description, Causation (etiology), Treatment and outcome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Clinical description

A

details of the combination of behaviors, thoughts, and feelings of an individual that make up a disorder
-begins with a presenting problem
-aim: distinguish clinically significant dysfunction from common human experience

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Presenting problem

A

specific issue and reason person came in for

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Prevalence

A

the number in the population with the disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Incidence

A

the number of new cases during a given period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Set ratio

A

the percetage of women to men with the disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Onset of disorders include (vs.)

A

Acute vs. Insidious onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Acute onset

A

when a disorder occurs suddenly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Insidious onset

A

when a disorder occurs gradually over an extended period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Course

A

the individual pattern followed by a disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Course of disorders include (3)

A

episodic, time-limited, or chronic course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Episodic course

A

recover and reoccurrence, may repeat throughout a lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Time-limited course

A

improve without treatment in a relatively short period with little to no risk of reoccurrence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Chronic course

A

long-time, sometimes lifetime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Prognosis

A

the anticipated course of a disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2 types of Prognosis (hint: GG)

A

Good and Guarded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Good prognosis

A

probably recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Guarded prognosis

A

probable outcome doesn’t look good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Developmental psychology

A

study of changes in behavior overtime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Developmental psycopathology

A

study of changes in abnormal behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Etiology

A

the study of origins; why a disorder begins
-biological, psychological, and social dimensions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment development includes

A

how can we help alleviate psychological suffering
-pharmacological, psychosocial, and combined treatments
-the effectiveness of certain drugs may help lead to understanding the Etiology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Three dominant traditions have existed in the past to explain abnormal behavior

A

Supernatural, Biological, and Psychological

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Supernatural explanation of abnormal behavior

A

the supposed agents outside our bodies and in the environment that influence our behavior, thinking, and emotions
-ex: divinities, demons, spirits
-Battles of “good” vs “evil”
-Treatments included exorcism, torturer, and religious rituals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Since what era was the Biological and Psychological explanations brought

A

Since the era of Ancient Greece, the mind (“soul”) considered separate from the body
-mind can influence the body and vice versa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Exorcism

A

various religious rituals were performed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Competing view that coexisted with supernatural tradition was

A

“Insanity”
-caused by emotional stress, not supernatural forces
-Depression and Anxiety recognized mental illness
-treatments: rest, sleep, healthy environment, baths, potions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Saint Vitus’s Dance/Tarantism

A

-example of mass hysteria in the past
-Middle ages in Europe
-Groups of people simulataneously compelled to run out to streets, dance, shout, rave, and jump in patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Mob Psychology

A

the type of shared response
-Moder mass hysteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Emotion contagion

A

the experience of an emotion seems to spread to those around us
-Modern mass hysteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What did Paracelsus suggest?

A

suggested that mental health problems are affected by pull of moon and stars
-led to the term of “lunatic”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Who was Hippocrates (460-377 BC)?

A

father of modern Western medicine
-Mental disorders understood as physical disease
-Hysteria “the wandering uterus”
Linked abnormality with brain chemical imbalances
Foreshadowed modern views

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Hysteria “the wandering uterus”

A

psychological symptoms were a result of the uterus moving around in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Who extended Hippocrates’ work?

A

Galen (129-198 AD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Humoral theory of disorders

A

functioning is related to having too much or too little of four key bodily fluids (humors)
-Blood (heart), Phlegm (brain), Black bile (spleen), Yellow bile (liver)
-ex: Depression caused by too much black bile
-treatment: changing environmental conditions (e.g. reducing heat) or bloodletting/vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

General paresis (late stage syphilis) and the biological link with madness

A

-psychological and behavioral symptoms
-caused by a bacterium
-bolstered the view that mental illness = physical illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Who was John P. Grey and the reformers?

A

psychiatrist who believed mental illness had physical roots
-emphasis on rest, diet, and proper room temperature and ventilation
-championed biological tradition in the U.S
-led to reforms of hospitals to give psychiatric patients better care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The development of biological treatments included

A

Insulin shock therapy, Electric shock, Crude surgery, and Medications (ex: tranquilizers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Insulin shock therapy

A

occassionally given to stimulate appetite in psychotic patients who were not eating, but also calmed them down
-abandoned due to often resulting in prolonged coma or even death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Electric shock

A

mild & modest electric shock to the head produced a brief convulsion and memory loss (amnesia) but otherwise did little harm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Crude surgery

A

surgery of the brain (removing a piece)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Medication increased in availability in the mid-20th century

A

Neuropletics and minor tranquilizers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Neuropletics

A

-major tranquilizers
-now called antipsychotics
-used to treat anxiety
-used less due to many side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Minor tranquilizers were prescribed for

A

anxiety and related disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Consequences of the Biological Tradition

A

-overall, mental illness understood to have physical roots
-increased hospitalization
-mental illness often seen as “untreatable” condition
-improved diagnosis and classification
-increased role of science in psychopathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Who was the father of classification?

A

Emil Kraepelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Moral therapy

A

-treated institutionalized patients as normally as possible in a setting that encouraged and reinforced normal social interaction
-many opportunities for appropriate interactions and behavior
-restraint and seclusion were eliminated
-declined in use due to the size and composition of the institutionalized population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Issue between Moral therapy and immigrants

A

-large numbers of people were immigrating to the U.S.
-if institutionalized, thought not to “deserve” moral therapy
-not given moral treatments even when they were sufficient hospital personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Mental hygiene movement

A

focused on providing care to everyone who needed it, causing a large influx in patients
-Dorothea Dix (1802-1887) campaigned endlessly to reform treatment of insanity
(she informed American public of these abuses)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Psychoanalytic theory

A

constructed on the development and structure of our personalities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Information on Franz Anton Mesmer & Hypnosis

A

Animal magnetism/Mesmerism
= identify and tap various areas of body where it was “blocked”, suggesting strongly they were cured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Who tested and concluded that Mesmerism/Animal magnetism was just strong suggestion

A

Benjamin Franklin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The emergence of psychoanalysis was brough by

A

Freud and Breur
-believed to have discovered the unconscious mind and its apparent influence on the production of psychological disorders
-later found many of Freud’s beliefs were incorrect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Catharsis

A

release of emotional material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Insight

A

a fuller understanding of current emotions and earlier events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Psychoanalytic Theory: Superego

A

-type of thinking: Conscience
-driven by: Moral principles
-purpose is to counteract the potentially dangerous aggressive & sexual drives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Psychoanalytic Theory: Ego (mediator)

A

-type of thinking: Logical; rational
-driven by: reality principle (act realistically)
-logic and reason
-secondary process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Psychoanalytic Theory: Id

A

-type of thinking: illogical; emotional; irrational
-driven by: pleasure principle (max pleasure, eliminating conflict/tension)
-sexual and aggressive feelings or energies
-primary process
(own way of processing information)
(emotional, irrational, illogical)
(preoccupied with sex, aggression, and envy)
-Libido= energy or drive
-Thanatos= death instinct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Defense mechanisms

A

Ego’s(logic) attempt to manage anxiety resulting from id(emotional) and superego(morals) conflict
-include Denial, Displacement, Projection, Rationalization, Reaction formation, Repression, and Sublimation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Denial

A

refusing to acknowledge aspects of reality apparent to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Displacement

A

transferring discomfort-inducing feelings or responses from one object or person to another less threatening one

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Projection

A

false attributions of one’s unaccetable feelings, impulses, or thoughts to another individual or obejct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Rationalization

A

concealing true motivations through elaborate, reassuring or self-serving yet incorrect explanations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Reaction formation

A

substituting behavior, thoughts, or feelings totally opposite to unacceptable ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Repression

A

blocking disturbing wishes, thoughts, or experiences from conscious awareness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Sublimation

A

redirecting potentially maladaptive feelings or impulses into socially acceptable behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Psychosexual stages of development

A

-satisfying drive for physical pleasure
-theory: conflicts arise at each stage and must be resolved
-include Oral, Anal, Phallic, Latency, and Genital stages
-ex: Oral 0-2 ages need for food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Controversial genital stage from Psychosexual stages of development

A

-boys conflict -> Oedipus Rex & Castration anxiety
-girls conflict -> Electra complex
-not based on fact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Ego psychology (Anna Freud)

A

defensive reactions of the ego determine behavior
-Abnormal behavior develops when the ego is deficient in regulating such functions as delaying & controlling impulses or marshalling appropriate normal defenses to strong internal conflicts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Self-psychology (Heinz Kohut)

A

focused on the formation of self-concept and the crucial attributes of the self that allow an individual to progress toward health or neurosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Neurosis

A

a psychological disorder thought to result from unconscious conflicts & the anxiety they cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What did Carl Jung do?

A

-rejected focus on sexual drives (Freud)
-emphasized spiritual and religious drives
-introduced collective unconscious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Collective unconscious

A

wisdom accumulated by society and culture that is stored deep in individual memories & passed down from generation to generation
-emphasized enduring personality traits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What did Alfred Adler focus on?

A

feelings of inferiority and the striving for superiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Both Carl Jung and Alfred Adler

A

-strong drive towards actualization
-basic quality of human nature is positiveA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Actualization

A

realizing one’s full potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Object relations

A

the study of how children incorporate the images, the memories, and sometimes the values of a person who was important to them and to whom they were emotionally attached
-important people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Introjection

A

process of incorporation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Psychoanalytic psychotherapy

A

-Free association, Dream analysis, and Analysis of transference
-very time consuming
-little evidence of effectiveness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Free association

A

patients say whatever comes to mind without the usual socially required censoring
-reveal emotionally charged material that may be repressed (painful or threatening to consciousness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Dream Analysis

A

therapist interprets the content of dreams, reflecting primary-process thinking of the id and symbolic aspects of unconscious conflicts
-help patient gain insight into the nature of conflicts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Transference

A

patients come to relate to the therapist like they did to important figures in their childhood, particularly their parents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Countertranference

A

therapist project own personal issues & feelings, usually positive, onto patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Psychodynamic Psychotherapy

A

derived from psychoanalytic approach
-focus on affect and the expression of emotions
-exploration of attempts to avoid topics or engage in activities that hinger the progress of therapy
-identification of patterns in actions, thoughts, feelings, experiences, and relationships
-emphasis on past experiences
-focus on interpersonal experiences
-emphasis on therapeutic relationship
-exploration of wishes, dreams, or fantasies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Humanistic theory: Abraham Maslow

A

hierarchy of needs, beginning with our most basic physical needs and ranging upward to needs for self-actualization, love, and self-esteem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Humanistic theory: Carl Rogers

A

humanistic therapy emphasizing unconditional postiive regard, empathy, and innate tendency towards growth
-Person-centered therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Person-centered therapy

A

therapist takes a passive role, few interpretations as possible
-give individual a chance to develop during course of therapy, unfettered by threats of self

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Self-actualizing

A

process emphasized in humanistic psychology in which people strive to achieve their highest potential against difficult life experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Unconditional positive regard

A

acceptance by the counselor of the client’s feelings and actions without judgment or condemnation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Empathy

A

sympathetic understanding of an individual’s point of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Pavlov and Classical Conditioning

A

learning in which a neutral stimulus is paired with a response until it elicits that response
-Any person or object associated with the unconditioned response (UCS) acquires the power to elicit the same response, when elicited by conditional stimulus (CS) it becomes a conditioned response (CR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Stimulus generalization

A

the response generalizes to similar stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Watson and the rise of Behaviorism

A

psychology is a purely objective experimental branch of natural science with goals of prediction and control of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Behavior therapy

A

therapy methods based on the principles of learning as applied to clinical problems
-it consists specific behaviors rather than interferred conflicts as legitimate targets for change
-Joseph Wolpe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Systematic desensitization

A

individuals were gradually introduced to the objects or sitituations they feared, so their fear could decline
-nothing bad would happen in the prescence of the fear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Operant conditioning

A

behavior operates on the environment
-Learning in which behavior changes as a function of what follows the behavior (reinforcement with reward or punishment)
-influenced by Watson and Thordike (LAw of effect)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Law of effect

A

behavior is either strengthened (likely to be repeated more frquently) or weakened (likely to occur less frequently) depending on the consequences of behavior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Shaping

A

a process of reinforcing successive approximations to a final behavior or a set of behaviors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Behavioral model’s impact

A

+greatly contributed to the understanding and treatment of psychopathology

-incomplete and inadequate to account for what we now know about psychopathology
(fails to account for development of psychopathology across the lifespan)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

One-dimension models

A

-explain behavior in terms of a single type of cause
-could mean a paradigm, schoool, or conceptual approach
-tend to ignore information from other areas
-Ex: explaining a disorder as the result of family history alone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Multidimensional integrative approach

A

approach to the study of psychopathology that holds psychological disorders as always being the products of multiple interacting causal factors
-interdisciplinary, eclectic, and integrative system
-influences: biological, behavioral, emotional, social & cultural, developmental, and environmental

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Each person has how many chromosomes and pairs

A

46 chromosomes in 23 pairs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Abnormalities in chromosomes contribute to what sydrome?

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Autosomes

A

first 22 chromosomes that provide programs/directions for body/brain development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Sex chromosomes

A

the 23rd pair of chromosome
-female: XX
-male: XY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Genes

A

long deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) molecules, the basic physical units of heredity that appear as locations on chromosomes. A single gene is a subunit of DNA that determines inherited traits in living things.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Genome

A

the complete set of genetic instructions/genes; DNA contains this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Coding DNA

A

the DNA sequence that defines a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Genetic locus

A

the specific location on a chromosome that codes for a gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Alleles

A

alternative or variant forms of genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Polymorphism

A

different forms of alleles
-SNP: when one nucleotide replaces another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Dominant allele

A

one pair of genes that strongly influences a particular trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Recessive allele

A

must be paired with another to determine a trait
-ex: color blindness- recessive allele on x-chromosome
sickle cell disease- recessive autosomal allele

130
Q

Genotype

A

set of genes that are passed down
-each pair of alleles

131
Q

Phenotype

A

observable characteristics
-how the environment interacts with genes

132
Q

Quantitative genetics

A

examines the contribution of genes that coded for dimensional traits (phenotypes)

133
Q

Molecular genetics

A

examines the actual structure of genes with increasingly advanced technology

134
Q

Polygenic traits

A

a trait influenced by many genes
-no single set of genes linked to a disorder, never a one-to-one correlation with mental health disorders
-behavior and development is almost always this with rare exceptions (ex: single-gene determinants like Huntington’s disease)

135
Q

Behavioral genetics

A

the study of how genes and environment interact to influence psychological traits

136
Q

Monozygotic twin

A

identical (1 egg), 100% of genes

137
Q

Dizygotic twin

A

paternal (2 eggs), 50% of genes

138
Q

Gene-environment interactions

A

the genetic structure of cells actually changes as a result of learning experiences
-the environment may occassionally turn on certain genes
-Eric Kandel (1983)

139
Q

Diathesis-stress model

A

disorders are the result of underlying risk factors combining with life stressors that cause a disorder to emerge
-the greater the underlying vulnerability, the less stress is needed to trigger a disorder

140
Q

Diathesis

A

inherited tendency (vulnerability/predisposition)

141
Q

Reciprocal gene-environment model (Gene-Environment Correlation Model)

A

a hypothesis that people with a genetic pre-disposition for a disorder may also have a genetic tendency to create environmental risk factors that promote the disorder.
(personality traits)

142
Q

Epigenetics

A

the study of factors other than inherited DNA sequence, such as new learning or stress, that alter the phenotypic expression of genes

143
Q

Telomeres

A

certain structures that cap the ends of chromosomes to protect the chromosome from deteriorating or getting entangled with neighboring chromosomes
-length positively correlated with lifespan and might be a marker for aging
-stress exposure associated with shortening

144
Q

What do the environmental effects of early parenting do?

A

they seem to override any genetic contribution to be anxious, emotional, or reactive to stress
-Suomi, 1999 Rheuses monkey experiment
-Francis et al. 1999 Foster rat mother experiment

145
Q

Neuroscience

A

the study of the nervous system and its role in behavior, thoughts, and emotions

146
Q

Central Nervous System

A

-Brain- sorts for whats relevant (checks memory) and implants right reaction
-Spinal cord- sending messages to and from the brain to the body

147
Q

Peripheral Nervous System

A

Somatic Nervous System (SNS)
Autonomic Nervous System (ANS)Ne

148
Q

What do neurons do?

A

control thoughts and actions

149
Q

What do dendrites do?

A

receive messages

150
Q

What do axons do?

A

transmits electrical impulses to other neurons

151
Q

Synapses

A

multiple connections to other nerve cells made by one

152
Q

Action potentials

A

short periods of electrical activity at membrane of neuron, responsible for transmission of signals

153
Q

Terminal button

A

the end of an axon

154
Q

Synaptic cleft

A

the space between the terminal button of one neuron & the dendrite of another

155
Q

Functions of neurotransmitters

A

chemical messangers that transmit messages between enurons
-cross synaptic cleft beween nerve cells

156
Q

Some neuron transmitters are primarily..

A

excitatory or inhibitory

157
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters

A

causing excitation/activating; increase likelihood of connecting neuron to fire

158
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

causing inhibition/suppressing; decreasing likelihood of connecting neuron to fire

159
Q

Main neurotransmitters

A

Glutamate
Gamma aminobutryric acid (GABA)
Serotonin (5-HT)
Norepinephrine
Dopamine

160
Q

Agonists

A

chemical substance that effectively increases the activity of a neurotransmitter by imitating its effects

161
Q

Antagonists

A

decrease or block a neurotransmitter

162
Q

Inverse agonists

A

produce effects opposite of neurotransmitter production

163
Q

Glutamate

A

exhibitory transmitter that “turns on” many different neurons, leading to action

164
Q

GABA

A

inhibitory transmitter
-its molecules attach themselves to receptors of specialized neurons
-reduce overall arousal and to temper our emotions

165
Q

What two neurotransmitters are known as the “Chemical brothers” and why?

A

Glutamate and GABA
-they work in concert to balance functioning in the brain
-fast acting

166
Q

Serotonin (5-Hydroxytryptamine)

A

-influence behavior heavily
-regulates behavior, moods, and thought processses
-low activity levels => less inhibition, instability, impulsivity, overreact
-make us vulnerable without direct causation (other influences compensate for low)

167
Q

Selective-Serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIS)

A

-effects seratonin more directly
-used to treat a number of psychological disorders

168
Q

Norepinephrine neurotransmitters

A

-monoamine class
-stimulates alpha-adrenergic and beta-adrenergic receptors
-block the receptors so response to surge of norepinephrine is reduced

169
Q

Norepinephrine neurotransmitters’ circuits

A

-major one in hindbrain, controls bodily functions (ex: respiration)
-emergency reactions & alarm responses when danger
-acts generally to regulate & moderate action behavioral tendencies & not directly involved in specific behavior patterns or disorders

170
Q

Dopamine neurotransmitter

A

-implicated in Schizophrenia and addiction
-also some indicate role in depression & ADHD
-block specific dopamine receptors, lowering dopamine activity

171
Q

Dopamine neurotransmitters’ circuits

A

-merge and cross with seratonin circuits at many points, influence many same behaviors
(balance each other out)
-dopamine => exploratory, outgoing, pleasure-seeking
-seratonin=> inhibition & constraint

172
Q

L-Dopa

A

dopamine agonist

173
Q

Locomotor system

A

one of the systems dopamine switches
-regulates the ability to move in a coordinated way
-turned on, influenced by seratonin activity

174
Q

What functions does the three divisions of the brain handle?

A

Autonomic Nervous System functions
-ex: breathing, sleeping, and moving around in a coordinated way

175
Q

Focus of Cerebellum

A

motor coordination

176
Q

What does Reticular activating system contribute to ?

A

to the processes of arousal and tension

177
Q

What does the Midbrain do?

A

it coordinates movement with sensory input and contains parts of reticular activating system

178
Q

What do the Thalmus and Hypothalmus do?

A

regulate behavior and emotion

179
Q

What does the Pituitary gland produce?

A

a variety of regulatory hormones

180
Q

The Limbic System

A

the border (edge of center of brain)
-helps regulate emotional experiences and expressions, and to some extent, our ability to learn & control our impulses
-also involves with the basic drives (ex: sex, aggression, hunger, and thirst)

181
Q

What does the Basal Ganglia control?

A

motor activity

182
Q

Left hemisphere functions

A

verbal and other cognitive processes (respond)

183
Q

R hemisphere functions

A

perceiving the world and creating images
(analyze)

184
Q

What is the split up of the Autonomic Nervous system?

A

Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Nervous system

185
Q

Primary of ANS

A

-regulate cariovascular system (heart & blood vessels)
-regulate endocrine system (pituitary, adrenal, thyroid, gonad glands)
- various functions (aiding digestion, regulating body temperature)

186
Q

Sympathetic Nervous System

A

mobilizing the body during times of stress or danger by rapidly activating the organs and glands under its control
-heart beats faster
-respiration increases
-adrenal glands are stimulated

187
Q

Parasympathetic system

A

balances sympathetic system

188
Q

Somatic nervous system

A

-controls muscles
-voluntary movement

189
Q

What does the Thyroid gland produce

A

thyroxine
-energy metabolism & growth

190
Q

What does the Gonadal gland produce?

A

sex hormones

191
Q

Hypothalmic-pituitary-adrenocortical axis (HPA axis)

A

cortical part of adrenal glands produces epinephrine and stress hormone cortisol

192
Q

Learned helplessness

A

Martin Seligman’s theory that people become anxious and depressed when they make an attribution that they have no control over the stress in their lives (whether or not they do in reality)

193
Q

Observational learning (modeling)

A

learning through observation and imitation of the behavior of other individuals and consequences of that behavior

194
Q

Prepared learning

A

an ability that has been adaptive for evolution, allowing certain associations to be learned more readily than others

195
Q

Implicit memory

A

a condition of memory in which a person cannot recall past events despite acting in response to them (contrast with explicit memory)
-can be selective for only certain events

196
Q

Explicit memory

A

a conscious memory for events

197
Q

Blind sight

A

some people who are blind can still sense objects that would be in their visual field even if they do not experience sight

198
Q

Emotion

A

the pattern of action elicited by an external event and a feeling state, accompanied by a characteristic physiological response
-to elicit or evoke action
-action tendency different from affect and mood

199
Q

Components of emotion

A

behavior, physiology, and cognition

200
Q

Components of emotion: Emotion & Behavior

A

-basic patterns of emotional behavior (freeze, escape, approach, attack) that differ in fundamental ways
-emotional behavior is a means of communication

201
Q

Components of emotion: Cognitive aspects of emotion

A

-appraisals, attributions, and other ways of processing the world around you that are fundamental to emotional experience

202
Q

Components of emotion: Physiology of emotion

A

-emotion is a brain function involving (generally) the more primitive brain areas
-direct connection between these areas and the eyes may allow emotional processing to bypass the influence of higher cognitive processes

203
Q
A
204
Q

How do cultural factors influence behavior?

A

the form and expression

205
Q

Gender effects

A

men and women may differ in emotional experience and expression
-may be related to gender roles: certain ways of coping with emotion are more acceptable for men or women

206
Q

Effect of social support

A

-low social support related to mortality, disease, and psychopathology
-freqeuncy and quality important
-social support especially important in the elderly

207
Q

Problems with social stigma

A

-may limit the degree to which people express mental health problems
-may discourage treaetment seeking

208
Q

Clinical assessment

A

systematic evaluation and measurement of psychological, biological, and social factors in an individual presenting with a possible psychological disorder

209
Q

Diagnosis

A

degree of fit between symptoms and diagnostic criteria

210
Q

Purpose of assessment

A

-making diagnosis
-making predictions
-planning treatments
-evaluating treatments
-evaluating the effectiveness or treatment programs

211
Q

Three concepts that are key to the usefuleness of an assessment

A

reliability, validity, and standardization

212
Q

Reliability

A

the degree of consisency of a measurement

213
Q

Inter-rater reliability

A

consistency betwee scores generated by different evaluators
-design devices and conduct research on them to ensure more than two others report the same

214
Q

Test-retest reliability

A

consistency in scores when test is administered repeatedly
-stable across time

215
Q

Validity

A

does the test measure what it is supposed to

216
Q

Concurrent (descriptive) in validity

A

comparison of results of one assessment with another measure known to be valid

217
Q

Predictive in validity

A

how well the assessment predicts outcomes

218
Q

Standardization

A

process by which a certain set of standards or norms is determined for a technique to make its use consistent across different measurements
-for testing, scoring, evaluating data
-ex: comparing scores between others like you (hispanic vs hispanic, girl vs girl)

219
Q

Clinical interview

A

-the core of clinical work
-when specific problem started and identify other events
-address multiple domains such as presenting problem, current and past behavior, detailed history, attitudes and emotions

220
Q

Mental status exam

A

involves systematic observation of an individual’s behavior
-appearnace and behavior, thought processes, mood and affect, intellectual functioning, sensorium

221
Q

Mental status exam: Appearance and behavior

A

-overt physical behavior, dress, general appearance, posture, facial expression

222
Q

Mental status exam: Thought processes

A

rate or flow of speech, continuity (ideas having connection)

223
Q

Mental status exam: Mood and affect

A

mood= predominantly feeling state
-ex: pervasive? temporary?
affect= one’s behavior holding appropriate reactions according to the situation

224
Q

Mental status exam: Intellectual functioning

A

vocabulary, abstracts, metaphors, etc.

225
Q

Mental status exam: Sensorium

A

awareness of our surroundings
-if do, “clear” and “oriented times three” (=person, place, and time)

226
Q

Types of clinical interviews

A

unstructured, structured, and semistructured

227
Q

Unstructured clinical interviews lack

A

a systematic format

228
Q

Structured clinical interviews include

A

standardized questions

229
Q

Semistructured clinical interviews include

A

-standardized questions
-deviate from set questions to address specific issues

230
Q

Physical examination

A

-helpful in diagnosing mental health problems
-many problems presenting as disorders may have a clear relationship to a temporary toxic state

231
Q

Understanding and ruling out physical etiologies includes

A

-lack of nutrients
-medication issues (ex: withdrawal symptoms)
-physical disorders (ex: hyperthyrodism produces symptoms consistent with anxiety)

232
Q

Behavioral assessment

A

uses direct observation to assess formally an individual’s thoughts, feelings, and behavior in specific situations or contexts
-target behaviors are identified and observed with the goal of determining the factors that seem to influence them (antecedents and consequences)
-may use analogue settings that are similar to real-life settings (ex: simulated situations or hypnosis)
-Helpful for young children, non-verbal people, sometimes people withold information, or different interpretations

233
Q

ABCs of Observation

A

Antecedent (what happened before)
Behaviors
Consequence (what happened afterward)
-purpose is to identify any discernible behavior patterns and then design a treatment based on these patterns

234
Q

Formal observation

A

-involves identifying specific behaviors that are observable and measurable (operational)
-may involve checklists or behavior rating scales

235
Q

Self-monitoring

A

-involves an individual monitoring their own behavior
-essential when it comes to private behavior
-Ex: smoker who is trying to quit records the number of cigarates and the situations when doing so

236
Q

Reactivity

A

knowing you are being observed can change behavior
-distorting any observational data

237
Q

Psychological testing

A

specific tools to detmine cognitive, emotional, or behavioral responses may associate with a specific disorder and more tools that assess longstanding personality features

238
Q

Psychological testing types

A

Projective tests
Personality tests
Intelligence tests
Neuropsychological tests
Neuroimaging

239
Q

Psychological testing: Projective tests

A

-rooted in psychoanalytic tradition
-require high degree of inderence in scoring and interpretation
theory:
-used to assess unconscious processess
-project aspects of personality onto ambiguous test stimuli
EX:
-Rorschach Inkblot test
-Thematic Apperception Test
-Sentence completion test

240
Q

Strenghts and weaknesses of Projective tests

A

+may be useful icebreakers
+one way to gather qualitative data

-hard to standardize
-reliability and validity data tend to be mixed

241
Q

Psychological testing: Personality inventories

A

self-report questionnaires that assess personal traits

242
Q

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)

A

-true or false
-Empirical approach (collection & evaluation)
-easy to administer and score
-includes validity scales to detect lies, defensiveness, and infrequent responses
-excellent reliability (-> programed with interpretation of results)

243
Q

Psychological testing: Intelligence testing

A

-originally developed to identify children who would benefit from additional help in school

244
Q

Intelligence quotient

A

mental age divided by chronological age and then multiplied by 100 (original calculation)

245
Q

Deviation IQ

A

estimates how much a child’s performance in school will deviate from the average performance of others of the same age

246
Q

Is IQ the same as Intelligence?

A

NO
Intelligence involves more than is typically measured in an IQ test, including the ability to adapt to the environment, the ability to generate new ideas, and the ability to process information efficiently

247
Q

Psychological testing: Neuropsychological tests

A

measure abilities in areas such as receptive and expressive language, attention and concentration, memory, motor skills, perceptual abilities, and learning & abstraction
-allow the clinician to make inferences about brain functioning and organic damage

248
Q

Examples of projective tests

A

-Rorschach Inkblot test
-Thematic Apperception Test
-Sentence completion test

249
Q

Examples of Neuropsychological tests

A

Bender Visual-Motor Gestalt test
-simple screening instrument, easy to administer and detect possible problems
Luria-Nebraska Neuropsychological battery
Halstead-Reitan Neuropsychological battery
-rhythm test, strength of Grip test, and Tactile performance

250
Q

Psychological testing: Neuroimaging

A

pictures of the structure and function of the brain
-structural and functional imaging methods

251
Q

Neuroimaging structural imaging methods

A

-Computerized Axial Tompgraphy (CAT) scan or CT scan
-Nuclear Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)

252
Q

Neuroimaging functional imaging methods

A

-Poistron emission tomography (PET) scan
-Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
-Functional MRI (fMRI) and blood-oxygen-level-dependent (BOLD) fMRI

253
Q

Psychophyiological assessment

A

measure changes in indicators of nervous system functioning that reflect emotional or psychological events (ex: EEG)
-used in assessment of PTSD and sexual dysfunctions & disorders
-physiological measure form the basis of biofeedback
-requires expertise to administer

254
Q

Electroencephalogram (EEG) measures

A

electrical activity in the brain

255
Q

Electrodermal responding measures

A

sweat gland activity

256
Q

Classification

A

any effort to construct groups or categories and to assign objects or people to these categories on the basis of their shared attributions or relations

257
Q

Taxonomy

A

classification of entities for scientific purposes

258
Q

Nosology

A

application of a taconomic system to psychological or medical phenomena or other clinical areas

259
Q

Nomenclature

A

the names or labels of the disorders that make up the nosology

260
Q

Classical (or pure) categorical approach

A

assumes that every diagnosis has a clear underlying pathophysiological cause and that each disorder is unique
-because each disorder is fundamentally different from every other, we need only one set of defining criteria
-quite useful in medicine but inappropriate for psychological disorders, which have multiple interacting causes

261
Q

Classification issues include which 3 approaches?

A

Classical categorical approach
Dimensional approach
Prototypical approach

262
Q

Dimensional approach

A

notes the variety of cognitions, moods, and behaviors with which the patient presents and quantifies them on a scale
-quantifies multiple variables onto a scale

263
Q

Prototypical approach

A

identifies certain essential characteristics of an entity so it can be classified, but also allows certain nonessential variations that don’t necessarily change the classiciation
-allows in nonessential variables

264
Q

Classification issues must be

A

reliable and valid
-unreliable classification systems are subject to clinician bias
-construct validity, predictive validity, and content validity

265
Q

Construct validity

A

criteria are consistently associated and distinct from those for other diagnostic categories

266
Q

Predictive validity

A

tells the clinician what is likely to happen with the prototypical patient

267
Q

Content validity

A

criteria reflect the way most experts in the field think about the disorder

268
Q

Comorbidity

A

the presence of two or more disorders in an individual at the same time

269
Q

Evaluation of DSM-5

A

-“fuzzy” categories associated with comorbidity
-emphasis on reliability can undercut validity
-methods constructing a nosologu of mental disorders have a way of perpetuating definitions that may be fundamentally flawed
-subject to misuse
(diagnostic labels may have negative connotations that contribute to stigma)
-It is a product of data-informed consus meeting
-As society changes, diagnoses may be eliminated or added

270
Q

Three main topics for research on psychopathology

A

-The nature of the problems people report
-The causes/etiology of psychopathology
-Treatment evaluation

271
Q

Hypothesis

A

an educationed guess
-hypotheses in science are formulated so that they are testable

272
Q

Null hypothesis

A

the prediction that there is no relationship between the studied phenomena

273
Q

Variable

A

a factor or characteristic that can vary within an individual or between individuals

274
Q

Independent variable

A

factors affecting the dependent variables
-manipulated by the researcher

275
Q

Dependent variable

A

what is being measured

276
Q

Internal validity

A

extent to which results of a study are due to the independent variable

277
Q

External validity

A

extent to which results of a study are generalizable to the population its studying

278
Q

Ways to increase internal validity by minimizing confounds

A

-use of control groups
-use of randomization procedures
-Use of analogue models

279
Q

Control group

A

a group of individuals in a study who are similar to the experimental subjects in every way but are not exposed to the treatment received by the experimental group
-allows for a comparison of the differential effects of the treatment

280
Q

Randomization

A

method for placing individuals into research groups that assures each an equal chance of being assigned to any group
-eliminating any systematic differences across groups

281
Q

Case study method

A

extensive observation and detailed description of a single client
-foundation of early historic developments in psychopathology

282
Q

Limitations of a Case study method

A

-lacks scientific rigor and suitable controls
-internal validity is typically weak
-often entails numerous confounds

283
Q

Correlational research

A

assess the degree to which levels of certain variables are linked to levels of other variables
-statistical relation between two or more variables
-no independent variable is manipulated
-range from -1.0 to 1.0
-Negative vs positive correlation
-necessary in situations where you can’t manipulate variables

284
Q

Limitations of Correlational research

A

Causation & Directionality

285
Q

Positive correlation

A

association between two variables in which one increases as the other increases (and vice versa)
-both going in the same direction

286
Q

Negative correlation

A

association between two variables in which one increases as the other decreases
(opposite directions)

287
Q

Directionality

A

possibility that when two variables, A and B, are correlated variable A causes variable B or variable B causes variable A.
-order of correlation

288
Q

Epidemiological research

A

-type of correlational research
-often incolves surverys of large groups to get picture of population
-study of the incidence, distribution, and consequences of problem(s) in one or more populations

289
Q

Nature of experimental research

A

-manipulate IV
-observe effects on DV
-attempt to determine causal relationships
-premium on internal validity

290
Q

Clinical trial

A

experiment designed to evaluate the effectiveness of a treatment

291
Q

Randomized clinical trials

A

experiments exploying participant randomization in wach experimental group

292
Q

Controlled clinical trials

A

experiments using control conditions for comparison

293
Q

Randomized controlled trial

A

highlighting both control groups and randomization in treatment outcome research

294
Q

Control group

A

provides comaprison point
-often matched to demographics of experimental group

295
Q

Placebo control group

A

some participants are given an inactive treatment (ex: sugar pill), but participants don’t know know which treatment they are getting

296
Q

Double-blind

A

participants and assessors are unaware of what kind of treatment participants are getting

297
Q

Placebo effect

A

something changes because the participant expects the change to occur
-ex: expecting to feel netter when taking an inactive pill

298
Q

Comparative Treatment Research includes what two types of research

A

Process and Outcome research

299
Q

Process research

A

focus on the mechanisms underlying behavior change

300
Q

Outcome research

A

focus on determining the positive, negative, or both results of the treatment

301
Q

Single case design

A

research tactic in which an independent variable is manipulated for a single individual, allowing cause-and-effect conclusions but with limited generalizability (contrast with case study method)
-rigorous study of single cases
-manipulate timing and nature of experimental conditions
-frequent repeated measurement of outcomes is critical

302
Q

Single-case experiemental designs include

A

Withdrawal and Multiple baseline design

303
Q

Withdrawal design

A

removing a treatment to note whether it has been effective.
-In single-case experimental designs, a behavior is measured (baseline), an independent variable is introduced (intervention), and then the intervention is withdrawn.
-Because the behavior continues to be measured throughout (repeated measurement), any effects of the intervention can be noted. Also called reversal design.

304
Q

Multiple baseline design

A

A single-case experimental design in which measures are taken on two or more behaviors or on a single behavior in two or more situations
-A particular intervention is introduced for each at different times
-If behavior change is coincident with each introduction, this is strong evidence the intervention caused the change

305
Q

Family studies

A

-if there is a genetic influence, expect to see the trait more in first-degree relatives compared to second-degree

306
Q

Familial aggregation

A

tendency of a disorder to run in families

307
Q

Issue of shared environment in family studies

A

families usually live together, so similarities may be due to environmental factors as well as genetics

308
Q

Adoption studies

A

-one way to separate the effects of the environment
-siblings separated after birth: show similarities even if in different environments?
-are adopted children more similar to their birth parents (genetics) or adoptive parents (environment)?

309
Q

Genetic linkage studies

A

study that seeks to match the inheritance pattern of a disorder to that of a genetic marker
-this helps researchers establish the location of the gene responsible for the disorder
-occur in groups of people who all have the trait of interest

310
Q

Association studies

A

research strategies for comparing genetic markers in groups of people with and without a particular disorder
-occur in people with and without the trait of interest

311
Q

Genetic markers

A

certain genes whose location is known
-compare against the trait being studied

312
Q

Health promotion

A

increasing healthy behavior in entire population
-even people not at risk for developing disorders

313
Q

Universal prevention

A

target specific risk factors but not specific people

314
Q

Selective prevention

A

targets groups of people at risk

315
Q

Indicated prevention

A

targets specific individuals who are showing early signs of a disorder

316
Q

Time-based research strategies include

A

Cross-sectional designs and Logitudinal designs

317
Q

Cross-sectional designs

A

take a cross section of the population at different age groups
-compare cohorts

318
Q

Cohorts

A

participants in each age group of a study with a cross-sectional design (age groups)

319
Q

Longitudinal designs

A

study one group of people overtime
-have to take into account specific experiences of the generation being studied (cross-generational effect)

320
Q

Value of cross-cultural research

A

-overcoming ethnocentric views
-increases understanding of etiologies, symptom presentation, and treatments

321
Q

Difficulties in cross-cultural research

A

-definitions of abnormal behavior
-variance in presentation
-availability of valid assessment instruments may be limited

322
Q

Research ethics

A

determine the degree to which science and research participants should be prioritized
-determined by institutional review boards (IRBs) & the APA ethics code
->oversee the rights of human subjects participatin in research
->make sure research and data are handled responsibly

323
Q

Ethical principles

A
324
Q

Informed consent

A

ethical requirement whereby research subjects agree to participate in a study only after they receive full disclosure about the nature of the study and their own role in it

Flashcards (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions