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Abnormal Psychology Flashcards

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1
Q

When trying to determine whether a person has a psychological disorder or not, it is important to remember that:

A. Using one model of abnormality is more efficient and provides more accurate results

B. One of the four general criteria of abnormality (Distress, Dysfunction, Deviance, Danger) is enough to determine a disorder

C. Cultural differences between assessor and assessed should be observed

D. Biomedical treatments must always be given when doing therapy

A

Cultural differences between assessor and assessed should be observed

Explanation:

B. The four general criteria of abnormality is not enough to determine a disorder

D. Not all disorders need medication except for biological causes

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2
Q

The diathesis-stress model is one of many perspectives explaining psychopathology. Which of the following is TRUE of this model?

A. Genetics alone are largely responsible for a person developing a disorder
B. The larger the vulnerability, the more stressful an event should be to trigger a disorder
C. Social factors may buffer development of a disorder even when vulnerability is triggered
D. One major genetic variation is likely responsible for most disorders

A

Social factors may buffer development of a disorder even when vulnerability is triggered

Explanation:

B. The larger the vulnerability, the less….

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3
Q

According to the biological perspective, one of the associated conditions leading to schizophrenia in children is when their mothers are exposed to _______ during pregnancy. This is:

A. Influenza
B. Rubella
C. Pollution-related stress
D. Alcohol

A

Influenza

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4
Q

Which of the following DOES NOT describe the DSM-5?

A. Is criterion-referenced when it comes to disorder descriptions
B. Adopts a prototypical approach
C. Helps in setting the stage for treatment planning
D. Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

A

Is theory based when it comes to disorder etiology

Explanation:
Prototypical Approach means a combination of classical and dimensional approach

D. This is the older version of DSM

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5
Q

The MMPI-2 examines _______ instead of ______

A. Patterns of responses: Individual responses
B. Individual responses: Patterns of responses
C. Unstructured responses: Structured responses
D. Structured responses: Patterns of responses

A

Patterns of responses: Individual responses

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6
Q

The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, Fifth Edition (DSM-5), serves what primary purpose in clinical assessment?

A. Providing treatment guidelines for mental health professionals
B. Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for diagnostic purposes
C. Providing information on appropriate developmental patterns
D. Assessing the effectiveness of psychotherapy techniques

A

Categorizing and classifying mental disorders for diagnostic purposes

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7
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

I. When treatments are found to be statistically significant in clinical trials, clinical significance is ensured

II. Case studies provide poor external validity but high internal validity

III. The heterogeneity of participants does not matter when research points out that treatment is significant

IV. Case studies provide an opportunity to investigate problems that do not occur too often

A. Only II and III is TRUE
B. Only I is TRUE
C. Only IV is TRUE
D. All of the Above is TRUE

A

Case studies provide an opportunity to investigate problems that do not occur too often

Explanation:

II. Case studies provide poor external validity (generalizability) and poor internal validity (control within a research)

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8
Q

Which of the following order makes sense in clinical work?

A. Assessment -> treatment planning -> case conceptualization -> diagnosis
B. Assessment -> diagnosis -> case conceptualization -> treatment planning
C. Assessment -> case conceptualization -> treatment planning -> diagnosis
D. Assessment -> diagnosis -> treatment planning -> case conceptualization

A

Assessment -> diagnosis -> case conceptualization -> treatment planning

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9
Q

Ling wanted to study the effect of some intervention on decreasing the anxiety levels of a single subject. She wanted to teach self-management skills and to determine how effective it is as a treatment. For this, she decided to use a withdrawal design. What could you say about the scenario?

A. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because it provides for high external validity
B. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because it is only useful for large groups
C. Using a withdrawal design is appropriate because she is working on reducing anxiety levels
D. Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because she is teaching self-management skills

A

Using a withdrawal design is inappropriate because she is teaching self-management skills

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10
Q

Dr. Wilson is conducting an assessment of a patient who exhibits a lack of insight into their mental health condition, making it challenging to establish an accurate diagnosis. What is the term for this lack of awareness?

A. Avolition
B. Malingering
C. Anosognosia
D. Factitious disorder

A

Anosognosia

note: mostly seen in schizophrenia

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11
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding cross-cultural research on psychopathology?

A. Treatment models have the same application across cultures
B. The same disorder might be reported differently across different societies
C. Abnormal behavior should be consistent with the researcher’s idea of abnormality
D. The same model of abnormality should be applied with different people

A

The same disorder might be reported differently across different societies

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12
Q

You are most likely to observe dementia pugilistica among which of the ff?

A. Boxers
B. Police officers
C. Heavy drinkers
D. Runners

A

Boxers

Explanation:
a type of chronic traumatic encephalopathy (CTE) that occurs when athletes, such as boxers, sustain repeated blows to the head

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13
Q

Among those with Alzheimer’s, difficulties such as agitation, confusion, and combativeness become ________ late in the day. This phenomenon is called _______

A. Better: Moonriser syndrome
B. Worse: Degeneration syndrome
C. Better: Cognitive buffer syndrome
D. Worse: Sundowner syndrome

A

Worse: Sundowner syndrome

Note:

Alzheimer’s happens due to abnormal brain buildup.

Dementia: gradual deterioration; can be most experienced by adulthood

Delirium: Acute deterioration; happens a very short time; maybe experience in all ages

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14
Q

This hypothesis tells us that the more synapses/neural connections a person develops throughout life, the more neuronal death must take place before the signs of dementia are obvious:

A. Cognitive reserve hypothesis
B. Cognitive buffer hypothesis
C. Cognitive practice hypothesis
D. Cognitive processing hypothesis

A

Cognitive reserve hypothesis

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15
Q

Higher educational attainment serves to ________ for Alzheimer’s disease:

A. Be preventive
B. Shorten the duration
C. Provide a buffer
D. Have little to no effect

A

Provide a buffer or delays an onset

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16
Q

Which neurotransmitter is most associated with the motor difficulties of Parkinson’s?

A. Serotonin
B. Dopamine
C. Norepinephrine
D. Glutamate

A

Dopamine

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17
Q

Unlike dementia, people who experience delirium have symptoms with _______

A. Rapid onset
B. Gradual onset
C. Either rapid or gradual onset depending on the case
D. None. It is usually hard to tell.

A

Rapid onset

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18
Q

This NCD is associated with cannibalism:

A. NCD due to Prion disease
B. NCD due to Lewy Bodies
C. NCD due to Pick’s disease
D. NCD due to health issues

A

NCD due to Prion disease

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19
Q

People with this disorder were once described by Bleuler as having a “tendency to turn inward”:

A. Borderline Personality Disorder
B. Antisocial Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Schizoid Personality Disorder

A

Schizoid Personality Disorder

Note:

How to know that a person has Personality Disorder

*Have inflexible pattern
* no distress on their own symptoms

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20
Q

Beliefs related to spirituality or religion are common for those with:

A. Narcissistic Personality Disorder
B. Schizoid Personality Disorder
C. Schizotypal Personality Disorder
D. Obsessive-Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

Schizotypal Personality Disorder

Note:

Schizotypal: Feel something
Schizophrenia: See something

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21
Q

People with antisocial personality disorder have ____ cortical arousal and ____ levels of serotonin:

A. Low: Low
B. Low: High
C. High: Low
D. High: High

A

Low: Low

Note:

To diagnose with antisocial personality disorder the person must:
*have a history of conduct disorder
*

22
Q

A combination of which childhood-related disorders increases the risk for antisocial PD?

A. ADHD-HI and conduct disorder
B. ADHD-PI and conduct disorder
C. Oppositional defiant disorder and ADHD
D. Oppositional defiant disorder and Reactive attachment disorder

A

ADHD-HI and conduct disorder

Note:

ADHD-HI: Hyperactivity Impulse
ADHD-PI: Inatintive

23
Q

The term “stably unstable” is most associated with:

A. Antisocial personality disorder
B. Histrionic personality disorder
C. Paranoid personality disorder
D. Borderline personality disorder

A

Borderline personality disorder

24
Q

A person with _________ would most likely get low scores on tests measuring ego identity:

A. Narcissistic Personality disorder
B. Histrionic Personality disorder
C. Borderline Personality disorder
D. Schizotypal Personality disorder

A

Borderline Personality disorder

25
Q

Looking into personality disposition, those with high ____ are at a higher risk for PTSD:

A. Hostility
B. Anxiety
C. Needs for control
D. Fantasy life

A

Anxiety

26
Q

Developmentally, a child must be at least ____ to be diagnosed with reactive attachment disorder or disinhibited social engagement disorder:

A. 9 months
B. 2 years old
C. 1 year and 6 months
D. 6 months

A

9 months (selective attachment form)

27
Q

EMDR is a treatment which may help for what disorder?

A. Conduct disorder
B. Adjustment disorder
C. Reactive attachment disorder
D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

A

Post-traumatic stress disorder

Explanation:
EMDR (Eye Movement Desensitization and Reprocessing) is a psychotherapy that enables people to heal from the symptoms and emotional distress that are the result of disturbing life experiences.

28
Q

Among the following, someone with reactive attachment disorder may be MOST mistaken to have which other childhood-related disorder?

A. ADHD
B. Autism
C. Childhood-onset schizophrenia
D. Oppositional defiant disorder

A

Autism

29
Q

Comparing reactive attachment disorder and disinhibited social engagement disorder after providing quality caregiving, what can be said about these disorders?

A. Children with RAD are more likely to recover
B. Children with DSED are more likely to recover
C. Children with either disorders are more likely to recover
D. Children with either disorders are not impacted by quality caregiving

A

Children with RAD are more likely to recover

Note:

Reactive Attachment Disorder
A condition where a child has difficulty forming healthy emotional bonds with their caretakers. Children with RAD may have trouble managing their emotions, and may seem anxious or fearful around their caretakers.

DSED stands for Disinhibited Social Engagement Disorder, a psychiatric condition that affects young children and causes them to exhibit inappropriate and overly familiar behaviors with strangers or unfamiliar adults

30
Q

Serious social neglect is _____ for the diagnosis of RAD and DSED:

A. Necessary but not sufficient
B. Sufficient and necessary
C. Sufficient but not necessary
D. Neither sufficient nor necessary

A

Necessary but not sufficient

31
Q

This term is most associated with the wear and tear experienced on biological systems due to chronic stress:

A. Allostatic load
B. Alloplastic load
C. Anankastic load
D. Allogenic load

A

Allostatic load

32
Q

The following are implicated in the stress response which can lead to long term mental health problems EXCEPT FOR?

A. Hippocampus
B. Pre-frontal cortex
C. Cerebellum
D. Amygdala

A

Cerebellum

33
Q

When it comes to processing and expressing the turmoil experienced as part of PTSD, girls are more likely to express ______ while boys are more likely to show _____

A. Shame: Aggression
B. Submissiveness: Anger
C. Fear: Embarrassment
D. Confusion: Distractibility

A

Shame: Aggression

34
Q

The specifier “with delayed expression” is given if the full diagnostic criteria for PTSD are not met until at least ____ after the event:

A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months

A

6 months

35
Q

People with Autism Spectrum Disorder…

A. Have deficits in social communication which is the only major defining feature of ASD
B. Are always accompanied by intellectual deficits
C. Have little to no capacity in forming attachments with caregivers
D. May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

A

May use echolalia as a first step in language acquisition

Example of Echolalia:
you may offer a child a toy and ask them, “Would you like this toy?” A child might respond with, “Toy, toy,” instead of “Yes.”

36
Q

Which of the following activities would children with ASD most likely perform best at?

A. Going on a field trip
B. Sally-Anne Task
C. Embedded Figures Test
D. Completing a Jigsaw Puzzle

A

Embedded Figures Test

37
Q

When looking at brain imaging studies, researchers have found out that this is largely responsible for why people with ASD may have rapid shifts from one stimuli to another:

A. Smaller cerebellum
B. Enlarged ventricles
C. Enlarged amygdala
D. Reduced corpus callosum area

A

Smaller cerebellum

Note:
Enlarged ventricles: Schizophrenia

Enlarged amygdala: Anxiety/mood disorder

Reduced corpus callosum area: affects learning difficulties

38
Q

Children with Attention Deficit/ Hyperactivity Disorder…

A. Are children who experience severe intellectual deficits
B. Are those who are not capable of simple tasks needed to survive
C. Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others
D. Are those who have no problems with distractibility and sustained attention

A

Are children who have the same attentional capacity as others

Note:

Children with ADHD has no problem with attentional capacity. They have no problem in attention stability

39
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. ADHD-HI is the most common presentation
B. ADHD-PI are more likely to be aggressive and defiant
C. ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment
D. When a parent has ADHD, the risk for their child having ADHD is around 30%

A

ADHD-C is the presentation most referred to treatment

Note:

ADHD C is the combined type

40
Q

When a child with ADHD exhibits positive bias, research tells us that:

A. The child thinks more positively when it comes to stress or trauma-related events making assessment difficult
B. The child constantly demonstrates aggression related behaviors but only towards those who are not his/her friends
C. The child eventually becomes naturally capable of interacting in a more appropriate manner with lower impairment
D. The child displays more negative behaviors and persistent social impairment

A

The child displays more negative behaviors and persistent social impairment

41
Q

According to research (Beauchaine, Hinshaw, & Pang, 2010), about 30-50% of children who have ADHD eventually develop what?

A. Conduct Disorder
B. Schizophrenia
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Narcissistic PD

A

Conduct Disorder

Note: Treatment should be done on both the child and the parents

42
Q

Which of the following clearly differentiates between Oppositional Defiant Disorder and Conduct Disorder?

A. ODD has much more severe features than CD
B. CD has difficulties with emotion regulation as part of its features as compared to ODD
C. When a person has features of both, only ODD can be given as diagnosis
D. Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

A

Hurting animals and theft is common for CD rather than ODD

43
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A. Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression

B. People with cyclothymic disorder never become bipolar

C. Rapid cycling happens when the person experiences at least two manic and depressive episodes within a year

D. An accumulation of negative life experiences is needed in order to experience depression—therefore, babies can’t experience depression

A

Rates of completed suicide are much higher for people with bipolar disorder than for those with recurrent depression

Note:

Complete/incomplete suicide instead of success or unsuccess

suicide mostly happens during depressive episode

44
Q

Tyrus experienced manic and depressive episodes which seemingly was “non-stop”. He would often experience pure manic episodes right after depressive episodes and vice versa. This causes severe distress on his part. On top of that, he also sees and hears things which aren’t even there. Tyrus might be said to have ____________ and when diagnosed, he should be given a specifier of _______________.

Bipolar switching: w/ schizotypal features
B. Non-stop switching: w/ schizotypal features
C. Chronic switching: w/ psychotic features
D. Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

A

Rapid switching : w/ psychotic features

45
Q

Manic episodes are often a neurotransmitter imbalance of…

A. Low serotonin, Low norepinephrine
B. High serotonin, Low Acetylcholine
C. Low serotonin, High norepinephrine
D. High serotonin, High dopamine

A

Low serotonin, High norepinephrine

46
Q

Considering the course of a disorder, which of the following is a good predictor of full recovery among those with schizophrenia?

A. Those with good premorbid functioning
B. Those who receive early treatment in the residual phase
C. Those without concurrent substance abuse in the active phase
D. Those who develop the psychotic symptoms at an early age

A

Those with good premorbid functioning

47
Q

What research has found out about schizophrenia is that:

A. The largest contributions to the disorder are environmental and socio-cultural factors
B. Having two parents with schizophrenia offers a smaller risk than having one parent with schizophrenia
C. Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins
D. None of the Above

A

Identical twins have higher concordance rates than fraternal twins

48
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE in terms of explaining schizophrenia?

A. Biological perspectives explain that schizophrenia risk is higher in children when the father has influenza virus during sex
B. Psychodynamic perspectives explain that schizophrenia happens when the ego becomes overwhelmed with neurotic anxiety and tries to re-establish super ego control
C. Behavioral perspectives explain that schizophrenia develops as a response to too much punishments and double blind communication
D. Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

A

Cognitive perspectives explain that due to biological causes, schizophrenia develops out of drawing bizarre and incorrect conclusions

49
Q

When a person with schizophrenia has auditory hallucinations, research has shown that…

A. Their delusions are rarely congruent with their hallucinations
B. Voices that they hear are misinterpretations of external sound stimuli
C. The Wernicke’s area responsible for understanding speech gets stimulated
D. They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

A

They listen to their own inner voices and cannot recognize it as theirs

Reason: Because they have poor emotional comprehension, resulting in a hard time identifying pitch or voices

50
Q

This was an attempt at reducing psychotic and related behaviors by using principles of operant conditioning:

A. Social Therapy
B. Token Economy
C. Milieu Therapy
D. Assertive Community

A

Token Economy

Psychology (5 decks)

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