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Small Parts > Abdomen & Small Parts Final > Flashcards

Abdomen & Small Parts Final Flashcards

1
Q

What is the most common form of thyroiditis?

A

Hashimoto’s disease

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2
Q

Which structure is located to the left of midline and is often mistaken for a thyroid lesion?

A

esophagus

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3
Q

Name the three strap muscles.

A

omohyoid, sternohyoid, sternothyroid

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4
Q

What are the categories on the TIRADS scale?

A
  • Composition
  • Echogenicity
  • Shape
  • Margins
  • Echogenic foci
  • Significant change in size
  • Change in features
  • Change in ACR risk categories
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5
Q

Which parathyroid pathology is associated with patients who have chronic renal failure?

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism

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6
Q

Which thyroid disease has a typical clinical symptom of opthalmopathy?

A

Graves disease

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7
Q

What is the most common type of thyroid cancer?

A

papillary carcinoma

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8
Q

Which type of thyroid cancer metastasizes to the brain, bones, lungs, and liver?

A

follicular carcinoma

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9
Q

The parathyroid controls the amount of ______ in the body.

A

calcium

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10
Q

What hormone is produced by the hypothalamus?

A

thyrotropin releasing hormone

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11
Q

Where is a Thyroglossal Duct Cyst going to be located?

A

midline anterior to trachea

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12
Q

What neonatal condition can lead to adult testicular cancer? Why? Be specific.

A

Cryptorchidism can lead to adult testicular cancer due to the testicles being exposed to too much heat inside of the body.

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13
Q

Which prostate zone is least likely for a malignancy to occur in?

A

transitional

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14
Q

Which scrotal condition can cause a positive pregnancy result in a male patient?

A

choriocarcinoma

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15
Q

Which order will spermatozoa travel for expulsion?

A

Seminiferous tubules, tubuli recti, rete testes, efferent ducutules, ductus epididymis, vas deferens

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16
Q

Which tumors can produce enlarged male breasts?

A

Sertoli, Leydig, Granulosa

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17
Q

Which structures join to form the ejaculatory duct?

A

vas deferens and seminal vesicle

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18
Q

During an adominal with dopplers exam, which vessel appears to travel away from the transducer at the porta hepatis?

A

RPV

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19
Q

An ultrasound guided liver aspiration is scheduled for a patient with elevated LFTs and leukocystosis. What is the likely diagnosis:

A

pyogenic abscess

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20
Q

The hepatic veins join to enter the _____

A

IVC

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21
Q

In some cases of portal hypertension, why can some velocities measure within the normal range?

A

recanalized umbilical vein

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22
Q

A patient presents with elevated alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase. What is the likely diagnosis:

A

cirrhosis

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23
Q

All of the following are sonographic appearances of the liver condition most common in sheep-herding locations except:
Cyst-within-cyst
Water lily
Bulls-eye
Daughter cyst

A

bullseye

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24
Q

A 3 year old patient presents with a large, palpable mass in the RUQ. Sonographic evaluation demonstrates a large, heterogenous liver mass containing small cysts and areas of calcification. What is the likely diagnosis:

A

hepatoblastoma

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25
Q

Which of the following statements regarding testicular vascularity is true?

  • Right testicular vein drains into the IVC
  • The right and left testicular arteries arise from the respective right and left external iliac arteries
  • The scrotum is supplied through a pampiniform plexus
  • The left testicular vein drains into the left external iliac vein
A

Right testicular vein drains into IVC

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26
Q

Which liver condition typically displays a “spoke-wheel” sign?

A

focal nodular hyperplasia

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27
Q

Intrahepatic biliary ducts are only sonographically visualized when

A

> 4 mm

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28
Q

Orchititis is associated with epididymitis in _________ of cases.

  • 15-20%
  • 15-30%
  • 20-30%
  • 30-50%
A

20-30%

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29
Q

Which abdominal vessel does not normally display a waveform above the baseline?

A

RPV

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30
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the “starry sky” sign is accurate:

  • Result of parenchyma fibrosis due to chronic hepatitis
  • Indicative of echogenic portal vein walls in acute hepatitis
  • Visualized due to coarse echotexture of late-stage cirrhosis
  • Describes the impaired visualization of hepatic vessels with fatty infiltration
A

Indicative of echogenic portal vein walls in acute hepatitis

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31
Q

Upon evaluation of the porta hepatis, only the PV and HA are visualized. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

biliary atresia

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32
Q

What is the most likely cause of hepatic jaundice?

A

cholelithiasis

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33
Q

Which of the following vessels will not normally display respiratory phasicity:

  • HA
  • MHV
  • MPV
  • LHV
A

HA

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34
Q

Metastatic spread of disease to the gallbladder most commonly comes from:

A. Liver cancer

B. Melanoma

C. Lung cancer

D. Breast cancer

A

B. melanoma

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35
Q

Which of the following testicular malignancies has the best prognosis?

Choriocarcinoma

Teratoma

Seminoma

Embryonal carcinoma

A

Seminoma

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36
Q

Which thyroid vessel is a branch of the external carotid artery?

A

superior thyroid artery

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37
Q

A 15 year-old male patient arrives to the ER with severe right sided testicular pain. He states that he has had the sudden onset of pain for 14 hours. Upon sonographic evaluation you notice that there is no documentable vascularity to the testicle but there is increased flow in the peritesticular tissues. What surigcal outcome is most likely?

A

50% probability of recovering the testicle

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38
Q

What is the most common thyroid malignancy?

A

papillary carcinoma

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39
Q

How does papillary carcinoma metastasize?

A

through cervical lymph channels

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40
Q

What is the second MC thyroid malignancy?

A

follicular carcinoma

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41
Q

How does follicular carcinoma spread?

A

through bloodstream to bone, brain, lung, liver
NOT to lymph nodes

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42
Q

Who gets follicular carcinoma more often?

A

older women

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43
Q

What cancer makes up 10% of all thyroid cancers?

A

medullary carcinoma

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44
Q

What kind of cells does medullary carcinoma arise from? What do they secrete?

A

parafollicular cells which secrete calcitonin

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45
Q

What is a unique sign of medullary carcinoma?

A

abnormal serum calcitonin levels

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46
Q

What is the most deadly type of thyroid cancer?

A

anaplastic carcinoma

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47
Q

Who gets anaplastic carcinoma typically?

A

people over 50

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48
Q

What percentage of thyroid cancers does lymphoma make up?

A

4%

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49
Q

What kind of lymphoma is most common in the thyroid?

A

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

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50
Q

What is the relationship between Hashimoto’s disease and thyroid lymphoma?

A

greater than 90% of those who develop lymphoma originating within the thyroid have Hashimoto’s disease

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51
Q

What causes primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

An adenoma, carcinoma, or primary hyperplastic PT gland causes increased amounts of PTH to be produced

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52
Q

What are the S&S of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

hypercalcemia, hypercaluria

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53
Q

Who gets primary hyperparathyroidism more commonly?

A

women, 3x more likely, esp. after menopause

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54
Q

What is the MC cause of primary hyperparathyroidism?

A

adenoma

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55
Q

How large is a PT adenoma?

A

less than 3 cm

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56
Q

What causes secondary hyperparathyroidism?

A

chronic renal failure causes inability to synthesize vitamin D which decreases serum calcium level

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57
Q

What zone does prostate cancer MC occur in?

A

peripheral zone, 25% in central zone

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58
Q

What demographic is at an increased risk of prostate cancer?

A

African American males

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59
Q

Prostate cancer is the ____ most common cancer in American men.

A

second

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60
Q

Where does fluid accumulate with a hydrocele?

A

Between the visceral and parietal tunica vaginalis

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61
Q

What supplies the testes?

A

deferential artery, cremasteric artery, testicular artery

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62
Q

What drains the testes?

A

Pampiniform plexus, R testicular vein into IVC, L testicular vein into L renal vein

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63
Q

What is microlithiasis in the testicles?

A

benign accumulations of calcium in testicular tissue, link to testicular carcinomas

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64
Q

What is the MC cause of orchitis?

A

chlamydia

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65
Q

What is most often the cause of spermatic cord torsion?

A

Bell & Clapper deformity

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66
Q

What is the chance of recovering a testicle after 4-6 hours of torsion? 12? 24?

A

4-6: 90%
12: 50%
24: 10%

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67
Q

When do spermatoceles most commonly occur?

A

post vasectomy

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68
Q

What is the MC cause of infertility?

A

varicoceles

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69
Q

Where do the majority of varicoceles occur?

A

left testicle due to drainage into L renal vein

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70
Q

What is associated with a large right sided varicocele?

A

Possible renal or retroperitoneal tumor

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71
Q

What causes abscess in the testicle?

A

untreated epididymo-orchitis

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72
Q

What is the MC extratesticular tumor?

A

adenomatoid, benign

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73
Q

What are the 3 non-Germ cell tumors?

A

Leydig, Sertoli, cystadenoma

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74
Q

What is the MC germ cell tumor? 2nd?

A

1st: seminoma
2nd: mixed germ cell

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75
Q

Who does seminoma typically occur in?

A

40-50 yo males

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76
Q

Scrotal
What percentage of germ cell tumors does embryonal carcinoma make up?

A

2-3%

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77
Q

Who does embryonal carcinoma usually develop in?

A

20-30 yo males

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78
Q

What kind of cells are teratomas made up of?

A

Cells from all 3 embryologic germ layers

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79
Q

What is the rarest testicular cancer and highly malignant and aggressive?

A

choriocarcinoma

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80
Q

Who does choriocarcinoma most commonly affect?

A

25-30 yo males

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81
Q

Why does choriocarcinoma cause a male to have a positive pregnancy test?

A

high levels of b-HCG

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82
Q

What is the infantile form (< 2 yo) of embryonal carcinoma?

A

Yolk Sac tumor

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83
Q

What kind of testicular tumors are typically benign with 10% being malignant?

A

Leydig cell tumor, Sertoli tumor

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84
Q

Who most commonly gets a Leydig cell tumor?

A

20-50 yo men

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85
Q

What kind of testicular tumor is rare, making up <1% of all testicular cancers?

A

Sertoli tumors

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86
Q

What is the difference between a juvenile and adult granulosa tumor?

A

Juvenile is typically benign, adult typically malignant with mets

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87
Q

What hormone do theca cell tumors produce? Are they MC in ovaries or testes?

A

androgen, MC in ovaries

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88
Q

Lymphoma in the testes usually affects men over what age?

A

60

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89
Q

What type of hepatitis is treated with antivirals?

A

Hep C

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90
Q

What is the difference between early and late cirrhosis?

A

early: hepatomegaly
late: small liver, coarse, caudate enlargement

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91
Q

What are the differences between acute and chronic hepatitis?

A

acute: decreased echogenicity, echogenic PV walls
chronic: increased echogenicity, hypoechoic PV walls, cirrhotic appearance

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92
Q

What causes an amebic abscess?

A

Entamoeba parasite

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93
Q

What disease is not found in the US but is the 2nd MC parasitic disease?

A

schistosomiasis

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94
Q

You have an immunocompromised patient who presents with an ongoing fever and rising WBC count. What is the likely diagnosis?
(liver condition)

A

hepatic candidiasis

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95
Q

What is another name for an echinococcal cyst?

A

Hyatid cyst

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96
Q

Who is cavernous hemangioma more common in?

A

Females

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97
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm in the liver?

A

Cavernous hemangioma

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98
Q

What is a focal nodular hyperplasia composed of?

A

Kupffer cells, hepatocytes, biliary structures

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99
Q

Where does focal nodular hyperplasia arise from?

A

Areas of congenital vascular malformation

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100
Q

Who is focal nodular hyperplasia MC in?

A

Women under 40- hormone driven

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101
Q

What is the MC liver malignancy?

A

Hepatocellular carcinoma

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102
Q

What is associated with development of HCC?

A

Chronic liver disease ex. Hep B, C, cirrhosis
Aflatoxin exposure
Hepatocarcinogens

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103
Q

HCC is known as hepatoblastoma up to what age?

A

4 yo, most cases under 1 yo

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104
Q

What is the 3rd most common malignant tumor in children?

A

Hepatoblastoma

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105
Q

Mets to the liver usually come from what primary sites?

A

Colon, breast, lungs

106
Q

HCC often metastasizes to where?

A

Pancreas, stomach, esophagus

107
Q

What are gallstones composed of?

A

Bilirubinate, cholesterol, and calcium carbonate

108
Q

What are the five F’s for cholelithiasis?

A

Fat, female, forty, fertile, fair

109
Q

What other diseases are associated with development of Cholelithiasis?

A
  • obesity
  • diabetes
  • pancreatitis
  • parasitic disease
  • biliary tree infection
110
Q

What is sludge AKA?

A

Sand or microlithiasis

111
Q

What is a sludge ball AKA?

A

Tumefactive sludge

112
Q

Who gets Cholecystitis most often?

A

Women 40-60s

113
Q

What are the causes of acute Cholecystitis?

A

90-95% stones
5-10% parasitic/bacterial

114
Q

What two signs related to acute Cholecystitis indicate an emergent situation?

A

Positive Murphy’s sign & > 3 mm wall

115
Q

What is gangrenous cholecystitis?

A

Intermural hemorrhage and ulceration of mucosal surfaces

116
Q

Chronic cholecystitis can progress to what?

A

Carcinoma

117
Q

What causes hydrops of the GB?

A

Cystic duct obstruction causes bile to be reabsorbed, GB is filled with secretions from mucosa layer

118
Q

What is hydrops of GB AKA?

A

Mucocele

119
Q

What is Courvoisier’s law?

A

Enlarged GB of a jaundiced patient is usually caused by obstruction of a biliary duct

120
Q

Who is porcelain GB MC in?

A

Females over 60

121
Q

Porcelain GB increases the risk of what?

A

GB carcinoma

122
Q

Who is primary GB carcinoma MC in?

A

Females 50-80 yo

123
Q

The MC primary that metastasizes to the GB is?

A

Melanoma

124
Q

What measurement of the CHD warrants further evaluation?

A

6 mm

125
Q

What is Caroli’s disease AKA?

A

Communicating cavernous dilation

126
Q

Who is Caroli’s disease more common in?

A

People under 30

127
Q

Who is choledochal cyst MC in?

A

20 yo Asian women

128
Q

Where is choledocholithiasis MC?

A

Distal CBD

129
Q

What is primary choledocholithiasis? What is secondary?

A

Primary: stones form within the duct due to stasis
Secondary: stones form within GB then pass through GB via cystic duct

130
Q

What causes cholangitis?

A

Stone or interventional procedure

131
Q

What diseases is cholangitis associated with?

A

IBS and UC

132
Q

What is ascariasis AKA?

A

Roundworm

133
Q

What causes hemobilia?

A

Interventional procedures, vascular malformation, cholangitis, cholecystitis, malignancies

134
Q

What causes pneumobilia?

A

Procedures, biliary-enteric fistula, cholelithiasis, chronic cholecystitis

135
Q

What is Adenocarcinoma?

A

Cancer of mucus secreting glands

136
Q

What populations most often get cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Japanese and Thai

137
Q

Where is a Klatskin tumor located?

A

Hilar region (where L & R hepatic ducts join and form CHD)

138
Q

How does CF affect the pancreas?

A
  • can lead to acute pancreatitis
  • panc undergoes fatty replacement
139
Q

What are the 5 B’s related to acute pancreatitis development?

A

Booze, blood, bile, bug, birth

140
Q

What is phlegmon?

A

Noninfected solid mass of panc tissue

141
Q

What 3 permanent complications does chronic pancreatitis lead to?

A
  1. Poor absorption of food=weight loss
  2. Pain
  3. Diabetes from damaged islets of Langerhans
142
Q

What is a Cystadenoma? What is it also called?

A

Rare benign lesion, AKA microcystic or serous adenoma

143
Q

Who typically gets Cystadenoma?

A

Women ~70s

144
Q

What condition is associated with Cystadenoma?

A

Von Hippel-Landau syndrome (can cause panc cysts with thick fluid & calcs)

145
Q

What is Cystadenocarcinoma?

A

Pre malig or malig, slow growing tumor, arises from panc ducts as a cystic neoplasm

146
Q

Who most often gets Cystadenocarcinoma?

A

Women in 50s

147
Q

What is adenocarcinoma AKA? (Pancreas)

A

Mucinous or colloid carcinoma

148
Q

What is the MC panc neoplasm?

A

Adenocarcinoma

149
Q

Who is Adenocarcinoma MC in?

A

Men

150
Q

What signs indicate eligibility for a whipple procedure?

A

Adenocarcinoma located at panc head with hydrops, compressed IVC, and biliary dilation

151
Q

What percentage of Islet Cell tumors are malignant?

A

90%

152
Q

What is the difference between nonfunctional and functional Islet Cell tumors?

A

Nonfunctional: no symptoms, typically malig
Functional: produce hormone response

153
Q

What are insulinoma, gastrinoma and glucagonoma?

A

Insulinoma: MC, causes hypoglycemia
Gastrinoma: causes diarrhea & peptic ulcers
Glucagonoma: causes rash

154
Q

The pituitary tumor that causes elevated ACTH and results in excessive cortisol is called what?

A

Cushing’s disease

155
Q

The disease that causes excessive aldosterone production is known as?

A

Conn’s disease

156
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

Abnormally low cortisol and aldosterone production

157
Q

What is neuroblastoma?

A

Pediatric sarcoma arising from adrenal medulla

158
Q

What is the MC childhood malignancy?

A

Neuroblastoma

159
Q

How is tuberculosis related to the adrenal glands?

A

Adrenals are the MC involved organ, resulting from adrenal insufficiency (Addison’s disease)

160
Q

When do the adrenal glands develop?

A

6 weeks gestation

161
Q

What are the layers of the adrenal cortex?

A

Zona glomerulosa, zona fasciculata, zona reticularis (inner)

162
Q

What shape are the adrenal glands?

A

V or Y

163
Q

What happens to the adrenal glands in the first 10 days of life?

A

They decrease rapidly in size

164
Q

What does the adrenal cortex secrete?

A
  • steroids
  • mineralcorticoids
  • glucocorticoids
  • gonadal hormones
165
Q

What does the adrenal medulla secrete?

A
  • catecholamines: epinephrine/norepinephrine
  • endocrine hormones
166
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Steroid that regulates salt and water = blood pressure

167
Q

What is cortisol?

A

Steroid that increases neurologic use of glucose, fight or flight

168
Q

What is ACTH?

A

Adrenocorticotropic hormone, regulates cortisol production

169
Q

What are metanephrines?

A

Metabolic byproduct of catecholamines, excreted in urine and blood

170
Q

What is VMA?

A

vanillylmandeic acid, metabolic byproduct of epi/norepinephrine, used to detect neuroblastomas

171
Q

How is histoplasmosis related to adrenal glands?

A

Inhalation of fungal spores resulting in adrenal insufficiency

172
Q

How does cytomegalovirus affect the adrenals?

A

Causes adrenal insufficiency and adrenitis

173
Q

How commonly does accessory spleen occur?

A

In 30% of population

174
Q

What is splenic atrophy also called?

A

Autosplenectomy

175
Q

What is Gaucher’s disease?

A

Metabolic disorder causing accumulation of lipid cells in organs, mostly spleen and liver

176
Q

Who gets Gaucher’s disease?

A

50% under 8 yo, 17% under 1 yo

177
Q

What is Neimann-Pick disease?

A

Disorder causing inability to metabolize lipid cells and leads to apoptosis (cell death)

178
Q

What is hemolytic anemia?

A

RBCs are destroyed at a higher rate than bone marrow can compensate for

179
Q

What is polycythemia vera? How does it affect the spleen?

A

Excess RBCs, causes splenomegaly and splenic infarction

180
Q

What is a FAST exam?

A

Focused Assessment with Sonography for Trauma

181
Q

What causes splenic infarction?

A

Occlusion of splenic artery or branches, results from embolus from the heart

182
Q

Who most commonly gets splenic infarction?

A

Those with
- pancreatitis
- leukemia
- lymph disorders
- sickle cell anemia

183
Q

What is the MC benign splenic tumor?

A

Hemangioma

184
Q

What is hemangiosarcoma?

A

Rare malignancy arising from vascular endothelium of the spleen

185
Q

What is the benign tumor made up of an abnormal mixture of cells and tissues (mainly lymphoid tissues) known as?

  • commonly occurs in the spleen
A

Hamartoma

186
Q

What is a lymphangioma?

A

Malformation of the lymphatics consisting of cystic spaces of varying size, benign
spleen

187
Q

What is the MC involved organ with lymphoma?

A

Spleen

188
Q

What is the 10th most common site of mets?

A

Spleen

189
Q

What is an ectactic aneurysm?

A

Diffuse enlargement of entire aorta

190
Q

Where is AAA typically located?

A

Infrarenal

191
Q

A pseudoaneurysm is a defect in what layer of the aorta wall?

A

Adventitia

192
Q

What is a tear in the intimal wall allowing blood flow between the intima and media called?

A

Aortic dissection

193
Q

What section of bowel does Crohn’s disease most commonly affect?

A

Terminal ileum

194
Q

The diameter of an appendix with appendicitis is over what?

A

6 mm

195
Q

What is the MC location of Adenocarcinoma in the abdomen?

A

Colon, rectum, rectosigmoid

196
Q

What does intussusception resemble on ultrasound?

A

Transverse kidney

197
Q

What is volvulus?

A

Torsion of bowel loop

198
Q

What is an incarcerated hernia?

A

Hernia that centrally protrudes and cannot return to normal position

199
Q

What is the most common cause of rectus sheath hematoma?

A

C-section

200
Q

What is a desmoid? (Abdomen)

A

Benign fibrous tumor arising from muscle sheath and connective structure

201
Q

What is transudative ascites?

A

Caused by high serum albumin, anechoic, free bloating bowel, fluid conforms to structure and pt position

202
Q

What is exudative ascites?

A

Response to malignancy or inflammation, thickened and matted bowel, echogenic debris and septations

203
Q

What is loculated ascites?

A

Doesn’t conform to structures or pt position

204
Q

How does pseudomyxoma peritonei spread malignant cells?

A

It fills the peritoneal cavity with mucinous/gelatinous ascites, tumor implants on peritoneal surfaces

205
Q

What are common locations for abdominal lymphadenopathy?

A
  • para-aortic
  • mesenteric & celiac
  • hypogastric
  • intraperitoneal: splenic, parapancreatic, hepatic hilum
206
Q

What is transitional cell carcinoma?

A

Primary malignant tumor originating in urinary collecting system

207
Q

What is the MC renal fusion anomaly?

A

Horseshoe kidney

208
Q

What is the MC congenital renal anomaly?

A

Extrarenal pelvis

209
Q

When does kidney ascent happen?

A

12-15 weeks gestation

210
Q

Who does unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney occur in?

A

Children, non hereditary

211
Q

What is the MC form of cystic disease in neonates?

A

Unilateral multicystic dysplastic kidney

212
Q

Who is medullary sponge kidney MC in?

A

Children

213
Q

Who does medullary cystic disease affect most often?

A

Young adults

214
Q

What are the four types of infantile Polycystic kidney disease?

A

Perinatal, neonatal, infantile, juvenile

215
Q

What happens to people with adult Polycystic kidney disease by about 60?

A

End stage kidney disease

216
Q

Is UMDK hereditary?

A

No

217
Q

Are medullary sponge kidney or medullary cystic disease hereditary?

A

Medullary sponge- no
Medullary cystic- autosomal recessive

218
Q

What is the difference between medullary sponge kidney and medullary cystic disease?

A

Medullary sponge: non hereditary, small cysts on tubules or collecting ducts

Medullary cystic: autosomal recessive, small cysts result in fibrosis/scarring of parenchyma & tubules

219
Q

What is the difference between infantile Polycystic kidney disease and adult polycystic kidney disease?

A

Infantile: dilation of collecting tubules, autosomal recessive

Adult: cysts in cortex & medulla, autosomal dominant

220
Q

What causes acute glomerulonephritis? What is it?

A

Accumulation of inflammatory elements, necrosis of glomeruli

221
Q

What is angiomyolipoma also called?

A

Renal hamartoma

222
Q

At what measurement is there a chance of hemorrhage from an angiomyolipoma?

A

> 4 cm

223
Q

What is an oncocytoma? Who does it occur more often in?

A

Benign tumor made up of oncocytes & epithelial cells, MC in older men

224
Q

What is a mesoblastic nephroma? Who does it affect?

A

Tumor composed of mesoderm tissue, children

225
Q

What is renal cell carcinoma also known as?

A

Hypernephroma

226
Q

What is Nephroblastoma AKA?

A

Wilm’s tumor

227
Q

What is the difference between mesoblastic nephroma and nephroblastoma?

A

MN: pedi benign tumor
Nephroblastoma: pedi malignant tumor

228
Q

What congenital anomaly is Nephroblastoma associated with?

A

Horseshoe kidney

229
Q

What are the 3 causes of Hydronephrosis?

A

Congenital: anatomic variants
Intrinsic: stones, tumors
Extrinsic: trauma, infections

230
Q

How is Hydronephrosis categorized?

A

Grade I-IV

231
Q

Renal calculi is more common in?

A

Males

232
Q

What is an increased calcium level in blood and/or urine that leaves deposits in the kidney parenchyma called?

A

Nephrocalcinosis

233
Q

Who is Nephrocalcinosis common in?

A

Infants

234
Q

What are possible results of trauma to the kidney(s)?

A
  • rupture of kidney & capsule
  • subcapsular hematoma
  • parenchymal laceration
  • urinoma
235
Q

What is the difference in appearance of acute renal infarction and chronic renal infarction?

A

Acute: Hypoechoic
Chronic: Hyperechoic, small size, capsular retraction or scarring

236
Q

What renal condition has hypertension as its only symptom?

A

Renal artery stenosis

237
Q

How does kidney size change during and after the acute phase of renal vein thrombosis?

A

During: increased size
After: decreased size

238
Q

What are extensions of the intimal layer within veins called?

A

Bicuspid valves

239
Q

What percentage of blood volume does the deep venous system carry?

A

85%

240
Q

What liver pathology causes elevated ALP and bilirubin?

A

Fatty infiltration

241
Q

What pathology causes elevated ALT, AST, and bilirubin?

A

Acute and chronic hepatitis

242
Q

What pathology causes elevated ALT, ALP, AST, and bilirubin?

A

Cirrhosis

243
Q

What pathology causes increased lactic acid dehydrogenase?

A

Glycogen storage disease

244
Q

What is the most likely cause of hepatic jaundice?

A

Cholelithiasis

245
Q

Which of the following is most common in post menopausal women?

A. Grave’s Disease
B. Secondary hyperparathyroidism
C. Primary hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypothyroidism

A

C

246
Q

Which biliary condition does not belong?

A. Tumefactive sludge
B. Polyp
C. Cholelithiasis
D. Adenoma

A

Cholelithiasis

247
Q

Which liver condition would result in the formation of collateral vessel pathways?

A. Fatty infiltration
B. Glycogen storage disease
C. Portal hypertension
D. Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

C

248
Q

What is the most common TIPS connection?

A. MPV to MHV
B. LPV to RHV
C. RPV to RHV
D. MPV to RHV

A

C

249
Q

Which pancreatic malignancy is more likely to occur in males than females?

A

Adenocarcinoma

250
Q

Where does the lymphatic system join with the vascular system?

A

Capillary beds

251
Q

A 57 year old woman with a history of Type I diabetes presents with a palpable abdominal mass. What is the likely diagnosis?

A

Cystadenocarcinoma

252
Q

A benign angiomyolipoma can easily be mistaken for

A

Metastatic tumor

253
Q

It is important to fully sweep through the kidney to rule out a possible _____ mass/cyst

A

Exophytic

254
Q

What is the difference between afferent and efferent lymph vessels?

A

Afferent: bring lymph into nodes
Efferent: drain processed lymph from node into lymph vessels

255
Q

What percent of blood volume becomes lymph?

A

10%

256
Q

Where are the largest lymph nodes in the body located?

A

Axilla, inguinal region, submandibular

257
Q

What is the maximum cortical thickness of a normal lymph node?

A

3 mm, must be measured on anterior side

258
Q

What midline vessel requires paracentesis access to be in the lateral abdomen?

A

Inferior epigastric artery, deep circumflex iliac artery (inferior)

259
Q

What are the veins stretched across the distended abdomen called?

A

Caput medusa

260
Q

Select the correct pathway:

Tubuli recti > rete testis > efferent ductules > ductus epididymis > vas deferens > seminal vesicle > ejaculatory duct > urinary duct > urethra

Seminiferous tubules > mediastinum testes > tubuli recti > ductus epididymis > efferent ductules > seminal vesicle > vas deferens > ejaculatory duct > urethra

Tubuli recti > efferent ductules > rete testis > ductus epididymis > vas deferens > seminal vesicle > urinary duct > ejaculatory duct > urethra

Seminiferous tubules > mediastinum testis > rete testis > ductus epididymis > efferent ductules > vas deferens > seminal vesicle > ejaculatory duct > urethra

A

Tubuli recti > rete testis > efferent ductules > ductus epididymis > vas deferens > seminal vesicle > ejaculatory duct > urinary duct > urethra

Small Parts (13 decks)

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