Abdomen Flashcards

1
Q

How many regions is the abdomen divided into

A

9

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2
Q

Why do we have Camper’s and Scarpa’s fascia in the abdomen but not the limbs

A

The enveloping structures of the upper limb do not allow stretch but those of the abdomen do

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3
Q

What are the requirements for abdominal incisions

A

Provide direct access
Adequate exposure
Extension must be possible while minimising disruption of neurovascular supply

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4
Q

Muscle cutting vs splitting

A

Transaction causes irreversible damage/ necrosis

Splitting in direction of the fibres minimises injury

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5
Q

Compare longitudinal and transverse incisions

A

Longitudinal are preferred for exploratory laparotomy as they provide good exposure but scarring may be pronounced

Transverse give better cosmetic results and less post operative pain

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6
Q

Compare midline and para median incisions

A

Midline: through linea alba is relatively bloodless and avoid major nerves but increases risk of dehiscence and incisional hernia

Para median: made parallel to midline through rectus Sheath and gives better wound scrutiny

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7
Q

Give the initial steps of key hole surgery

A

Creation of pneumoperitoneum
Insertion of laparoscope
Placement of additional parts

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8
Q

What is herniating tissue

A

The tissue that fills the hernia eg fat, gut and/ or omentum

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9
Q

Where do hernias appear

A

Any site or weakness in the musclo-aponeurotic abdominal wall

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10
Q

What is te hernial sac

A

A protrusion or peritoneum which emerges from the hernial orifice

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11
Q

What are complications associated with hernias

A

Pain
Irreducibility
Strangulation

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12
Q

How common are epigastric hernias of the linea alba

A

Occurs in 3-5% of population

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13
Q

Discuss the congenital and acquired hernias of the umbilicus

A

Congenital: seen in newborns as anterior abdomen wall is weak at umbilical ring. Often small and close spontaneously

Acquired: develop in the obese with extra peritoneal fat, peritoneum and/or bowel protruding into hernia sac

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14
Q

What is a direct inguinal hernia

A

Always acquired

Protrudes through a weakened conjoint tendon, medial to inferior epigastric artery

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15
Q

Describe indirect inguinal hernia

A

Enters deep inguinal ring lateral to inferior epigastric artery
May be congenital due to patent processus vaginalis

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16
Q

Femoral hernia

A

Emerges through femoral canal below inguinal ligament

Irreducibility and strangulation occur more commonly due to narrow neck of canal, necessitating emergency surgery

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17
Q

What is the lumbar triangle

A

An area of weakness in posterolateral abdominal wall

Bounded by lat dorsi, external oblique and iliac crest

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18
Q

Which structures form the greater omentum

A

A fatty peritoneal fold hanging from the stomach and transverse colon

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19
Q

What is the purpose of the sphincter at the gastro-oesophageal junction

A

Prevent acid reflux

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20
Q

Which sex has a longer urethra

A

Males

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21
Q

Where do testicular and ovarian lymphatics drain

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

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22
Q

What forms the pelvic floor

A

Levator ani

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23
Q

What is the largest cavity in the body

A

Abdominal cavity

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24
Q

What are the boundaries of the abdominal cavity

A

Bounded by the abdominal wall on all sides
Separated from the thoracic cavity by the diaphragm superiorly
Continuous with the pelvic cavity inferiorly (there is a physical separation further down at the pelvic diaphragm)

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25
Q

In reality what is in the peritoneal cavity

How does it differ by sex

A

50-100ml of fluid

Males: completely closed
Females: communication with the exterior exists via the uterine tubes, uterus and vagina (providing a possible route for infection)

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26
Q

What connects the greater and lesser sac

A

The epiploic foramen

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27
Q

What are the intraperitoneal spaces

A

Subphrenic
Subhepatic
Paracolic gutters
Rectovesical/ uterine pouch

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28
Q

Where are the subphrenic and subhepatic spaces

A

Right and left between diaphragm and liver

Hepatorenal pouch on the right of the lesser sac on the left

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29
Q

What is the clinical importance of intraperitoneal spaces

A

Potential spaces for the collection of fluid and sites of abscess formation

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30
Q

What does the term intraperitoneal refer to

A

The viscera enclosed by layers of peritoneum rather than in the peritoneal cavity itself

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31
Q

What features do the intraperitoneal viscera have

A

Suspended by mesenteries with varying levels of mobility

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32
Q

Which organs are intraperitoneal

A
Stomach
Liver
Gall bladder 
Proximal and distal parts of the duodenum 
Jejunum, ileum 
Transverse and sigmoid colon 
Spleen
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33
Q

Which organs are retroperitoneal

What features do they have

A

Kidneys and adrenal glands

Developed outside the peritoneal cavity
Covered only anteriorly

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34
Q

Which viscera are secondarily retroperitoneal

A

Most of duodenum
Pancreas (not tail)
Ascending and descending colon

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35
Q

What disadvantage can there be for the intestine being mobile

A

Abnormal twisting can occur (volvulus) around the axis of the mesentery leading to ischaemia

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36
Q

Give the 6 functions of the peritoneum

A
Support
Lubrications 
Protection 
Absorption
Healing
Storage

Scared Lions Paw At Heat Sores

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37
Q

How does the peritoneum provide support

A

Physical and nutritional via vessels running in mesentery

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38
Q

How does the peritoneum provide lubrication

A

Secreting peritoneal fluid to facilitate viscera movement

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39
Q

How does the peritoneum provide protection

A

Phagocytosis and sealing infected areas to limit spread

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40
Q

How does the peritoneum provide absorption

A

Fluids and small molecules can pass through mesothelium

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41
Q

How does the peritoneum provide healing

A

Transforming mesothelial cells into fibroblasts to promote wound healing

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42
Q

How does the peritoneum provide storage

A

Greater omentum stores fat

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43
Q

What did Morison call the peritoneum

When

A

“The abdominal policeman”

1906

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44
Q

What is ascites

A

Excess fluid due to increased production of malignancy or decreased serum albumin in cirrhosis

Appears dark on CT, usually surrounding an organ/ compartment but fluid is limited only to that physical compartment

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45
Q

What haemoperitoneum

A

Blood in the peritoneal cavity due to trauma/ rupture

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46
Q

What is peritonitis

A

Inflammation (local or general)

Adhesions May develop between visceral and parietal layers

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47
Q

What is pneumoperitoneum

A

Gas in the peritoneal cavity due to perforated viscus or after surgery

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48
Q

Why is the peritoneum important for renal patients

Cancer patients?

A

Used in peritoneal dialysis to remove metabolites

Chemotherapy for ovarian carcinoma is administered here

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49
Q

What innervates the parietal peritoneum

A

Somatic spinal nerves that supply the overlying abdominal wall and therefore is sensitive to pain

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50
Q

What innervates the visceral peritoneum

A

Same autonomic nerve supply as viscera

Only stretch sensitive, NOT to pain

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51
Q

Describe the arterial supply to the abdomen

A

Supplied by abdominal aorta
2 paired lateral branches supply retroperitoneal organs
3 unpaired Anterior branches run in mesenteries
The marginal artery forms a continuous arcade along the entire Colon
Anastomoses provide collateral flow if there is an obstruction but also allow spread of infection

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52
Q

What drains the gut

A

Portal circulation which convey blood to the liver sinusoids for metabolism and detoxification

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53
Q

Where do hepatic veins move blood to

A

Inferior vena cava

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54
Q

What is the communication between the Portal and systemic circulations

A

Portosystemic anastomoses

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55
Q

What is a common cause of portal hypertension?

A

Obstruction to portal venous flow usually due to cirrhosis caused by alcoholism or viral hepatitis

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56
Q

What kind of valves does the portal vein have and what does this mean

A

NO VALVES

Increased pressure readily leads to back flow into systemic circulation

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57
Q

Why is portal/ hepatic circulation important when considering drug consumption

A

Medication that is affected by the liver must not be taken orally in order to bypass portal circulation

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58
Q

Name a drug that must NOT be taken orally

A

GTN sublingual tablets for angina

They will be affected by the liver so must Avoid portal circulation

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59
Q

What is referred pain

A

Pain that originates in one part of the body but is perceived in another part

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60
Q

Why does referred pain occur

A

General visceral afferent which respond to stimuli accompany sympathetic fibres to the same spinal cord segment. As the dermatomes are supplied by the same sensory ganglia and spinal segments, the pain is perceived as originating from the skin

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61
Q

Why may a gall bladder infection be felt in your shoulder?

A

Inflamed gall bladder will irritate the diaphragm which is detected by the phrenic nerve and pain is referred to the C4 dermatome

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62
Q

What are the spinal roots of the phrenic nerve

A

C3-5

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63
Q

Describe the immediate pain felt in appendicitis

A

It is visceral and so diffuse and poorly localised

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64
Q

What happens to the pain as appendicitis progresses

A

The inflamed viscus will come into contact with the parietal peritoneum which is supplied by somatic spinal nerves, and the pain will then become localised

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65
Q

Describe the direction of pain progression in appendicitis

A

Starts around the umbilical region (T10) and moves to right Iliac fossa

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66
Q

What is the mesentery like in the embryo

A

A dorsal mesentery runs the entire length of the GI tract connecting it to the dorsal body wall

Ventral mesentery is only present at the level of septum transversum where the stomach and liver develop

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67
Q

What is the mesogastrium

A

Mesentery that attaches to the stomach

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68
Q

What does “the mesentery” refer to

A

Refers to small bowel mesentery

Extends from duodenojejunal flexure to right iliac fossa

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69
Q

What is the mesoappendix

A

Connects appendix to small bowel mesentery

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70
Q

Transverse mesocolon

A

Connects transverse colon to posterior abdominal wall and forms floor of lesser sac

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71
Q

Sigmoid/ pelvic mesocolon

A

Connects sigmoid colon to posterior abdominal wall and contains pre-ganglionic parasympathetic fibres ascending from the pelvis to supply descending colon

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72
Q

What is derived from the dorsal mesogastrium

A

Greater omentum

Lienorenal ligament

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73
Q

How many layers does the greater omentum have

A

4 (it is 2 layers of 2 layers)

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74
Q

What is the greater omentum divided into

A

Gastrocolic and gastrosplenic ligaments

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75
Q

What is the lienorenal ligament

A

Peritoneum between spleen and posterior abdominal wall in region of left kidney

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76
Q

What are the derivatives of the central mesogastrium

A

Falciform ligament - connects ventral liver to anterior abdominal wall

Lesser omentum - connects lesser curve of stomach to liver

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77
Q

What is the lesser omentum divided into

A

Hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments

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78
Q

What are the 3 functions associated with the GI tract

A

Peristalsis
Absorption
Excretion

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79
Q

Where does the oesophagus go from and to

A

From the pharynx to the stomach

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80
Q

What is the oesophagus guarded by

A

The upper oesophageal sphincter whose relaxation is triggered by the swallowing reflex

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81
Q

What is dysphagia

A

Difficulty swallowing due to obstruction of the passage of food

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82
Q

What is odynophagia

A

Painful swallowing

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83
Q

What is heart burn

A

A burning sensation in the chest posterior to the sternum or in the epigastrium usually as a result of GORD

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84
Q

What is GORD

A

Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease

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85
Q

What is the LOS

A

Lower oesophageal sphincter

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86
Q

What is the diaphragmatic crura

A

Where the right crus forms a sling around the lower oesophagus

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87
Q

What is a hiatus hernia

A

When part of the stomach passes through the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm into the posterior mediastinum

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88
Q

What does the pylorus do

What happens if the sphincter is too lax or tight

A

Regulates flow of chime into the first part of the duodenum

Lax- Bile reflux may occur leading to antral gastritis and pain

Tight- gastric outlet obstruction (GOO) occurs

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89
Q

What can cause the pylorus to be too tight

A

Tumours
Peptic ulcer disease
Congenital hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
Ingestion Of foreign bodies

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90
Q

What comprises the small intestine

A

Duodenum, jejunum and ileum

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91
Q

Which parts of the small intestine are retroperitoneal or mesenteric

A

Jejunum and ileum are suspended on a mesentery

Most of the duodenum is secondarily retroperitoneal

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92
Q

Give the presentation of a patient with functional disease of the small intestine

A
Pain due to spasm 
Bloating
Excessive flatus
Diarrhoea 
Constipation
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93
Q

What are the causes of organic disease due to obstruction

A
Extra mural (adhesions, malignant invasion etc)
Or
Mural ( plain abdominal radiographs will show dilated loops of small bowls with multiple fluid levels seen on erect films)
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94
Q

Where does the large intestine span from and what is it comprised of

A

From ileocaecal valve to anus

Comprising the caecum, appendix, ascending, transverse, descending and sigmoid colon, rectum, and anal canal

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95
Q

What are the outer longitudinal muscles of the large intestine? Where is this different?

A

It exists as 3 bands: the Taeniae coli. These produce the characteristic sacculations or haustrations

Not in the appendix, rectum and anal canal

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96
Q

What are the appendices epiplociae

A

Peritoneal tags filled with fat

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97
Q

Name 3 benign diseases of the large intestine

A

Inflammatory bowel disease (eg Crohn’s disease which affects other parts of the GI tract and ulcerative colitis which only affects the colon)

Diverticular disease (in descending and sigmoid colon)

Polyps (fleshy protrusions arising from colonic mucosa)

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98
Q

What does colonic diverticula consist of

A

Mucosal herniation through thickened muscle

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99
Q

Discuss colorectal adenocarcinoma

A

3rd most commonly diagnosed carcinoma after lung and breast

Largely preventable by early detection by colonoscopy

Surgical resection remains the definitive treatment modality and may require stoma formation for discharge of colonic contents

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100
Q

Differences between ileum and jejunum

A
Jejunum: 
Upper 2/5
Umbilical region
Fewer vascular arcades
Less fat in mesentery 
Thick vascular mucosa
Few lymphoid follicles 
Tall villi
Ileum:
Lower 3/5
Suprapubic region and pelvis
Thin pink walls and narrower lumen
Complex vascular arcades
More fat in mesentery 
Short villi 
Peyer’s patches
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101
Q

What supplies the muscles of the abdominal wall

Where do they drain

A

T7-12 and L1 (ilioinguinal)

The neurovascular bundle runs between the internal oblique and trans versus abdominis

Above the umbilicus they drain to the pectoral axillary nerves
Below the lymph drains to the superficial inguinal nodes

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102
Q

What are the boundaries of the inguinal canal

A

Posterior: transversalis fascia laterally and conjoint tendon medially
Anterior: external oblique aponeurosis
Roof: fibres of internal oblique and trans versus abdominis forming conjoint tendon
Floor: inverted edge of inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament

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103
Q

Where is the entrance and exit of the inguinal canal

What is important about this oblique passage

What does the canal transmit in women

A

Entrance: deep ring
Exit: superficial ring

Prevents abdominal contents from pro lapsing through canal when intra abdominal pressure is raised

The round ligament

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104
Q

What passes through the inguinal canal in men

A

Vas deferens with its artery and testicular vessels

Spermatic cord

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105
Q

Where is the abdomen

A

The area between the diaphragm and pelvis, bound by the anterior and posterior abdominal walls

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106
Q

What forms the semi rigid frame of the posterior abdomen

A

The vertebral column

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107
Q

What is the main flexor of the spine

Name 3 other muscles that also move the trunk

A

Rectus abdominis

External oblique
Internal oblique
Tans versus abdominis

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108
Q

What lines the abdominal cavity

A

Parietal peritoneum

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109
Q

What are the parts of the abdominal viscera are suspended on the mesentery

A
Stomach
Jejunum 
Ileum
Transverse colon
Sigmoid colon
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110
Q

How does the mesentery form

A

As intestinal loops invaginate into the wall of the embryonic peritoneal sac with their attached nerves and vessels, a peritoneal fold is formed

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111
Q

Where does the right side of the stomach lie due to embryonic rotation of the gut

Where does the caecum lie

A

Posteriorly

In the right iliac fossa

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112
Q

How does the blood supply of the abdominal viscera arise

How are the mid, hind, and fore guts supplied

A

From the abdominal aorta via unpaired branches

The coeliac trunk supplies the foregut

The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut

The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the hindgut

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113
Q

What does the foregut include

A
Stomach
Part of duodenum 
Liver
Gall bladder
Pancreas 
Spleen
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114
Q

What is the midgut

A

From part of duodenum to 2/3 along transverse colon

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115
Q

Veins draining the blood from the gut form the what

A

Portal venous system which conveys nutrient rich blood to the liver for processing

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116
Q

What does the hepatic vein do

A

Returns detoxified blood to the systematic system via the IVC

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117
Q

Where is the IVC in relation to the liver

A

Posterior to liver

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118
Q

Name 2 notable sites of portosystemic anastomoses

A

Gastro-oesophageal junction

Distal rectum

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119
Q

What can cause portal venous hypertension

What can it lead to

A

Cirrhosis of the liver

Formation of oesophageal varices which may result in life threatening haemorrhage

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120
Q

What is the foramen of Winslow

A

AKA epiploric foramen

The entry from the greater sac to the lesser sac

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121
Q

How is the lesser peritoneal sac created

Where does it lie

What is it closely related to

A

Embryological rotation

Lies posteriorly

Pancreas and splenic vessels

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122
Q

What lies within the loop of the duodenum

A

Pancreas

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123
Q

How do bile and pancreatic secretions enter the duodenum

A

At the ampulla of Vater

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124
Q

Where does the duodenum become the jejunum

A

The duodenojejunal flexure

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125
Q

Where is the ileocaecal junction

A

Right iliac fossa

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126
Q

What is the arterial supply of the kidneys

What about venous drainage

A

Via paired renal arteries directly from aorta

Via renal veins into IVC

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127
Q

Describe the path of the urethra in males

A

From bladder it passes through the prostate then through the perineal next brand surrounded by the sphincter urethrae
Urethra then enters the bulb of the corpus spongiosum, becoming first the spongy Urethra and then the penile urethra to end at the external urethral meatus

It is joined by ducts from seminal vesicles and prostate gland

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128
Q

What is the urethra a conduit for

A

Urine and semen

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129
Q

How does the female urethra compare to Male

Where is it in relation to the vagina

A

Female is much shorter

Anterior to the vagina

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130
Q

Where does the uterus lie in relation to the bladder and rectum

A

Posterior to bladder and and anterior to rectum

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131
Q

What is the pouch of Douglas

A

The rectouterine pouch

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132
Q

What supplies the pelvis mostly

A

Internal iliac artery

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133
Q

Briefly describe the descent of the testes

A

From the posterior abdominal wall through the inguinal canal in the anterior abdominal wall

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134
Q

Where do the lymphatics from the testes and ovaries drain to

A

Para-aortic lymph nodes

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135
Q

Where does the peritoneum lie

A

Inferior and superior to the pelvic floor

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136
Q

What forms the pelvic floor

A

Levator ani muscle which arises from the lateral abdominal wall to join its opposite number in a midline raphé

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137
Q

What lies between levator ani and ischial tuberosity

What is it filled with

Give a fact about it

A

Ischioanal fossa

Fat

It is liable to infections and access formation from the anal canal

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138
Q

What is the penis comprised of

A

2 copora cavernosa

The urethra is covered by the corpus spongiosum which continues as the glans penis distally

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139
Q

What happens to the corpora cavernosa posteriorly

A

They divide to attach to the ischiopubic rami where they are covered by the ischiocavernosus muscle

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140
Q

Describe the scrotum

A

A thin pouch of skin containing the testes, each suspended by a spermatic cord containing structures that accompanied the testes during its descent in development

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141
Q

What are the labia

Where does the urethra open

A

Outer folds to the entrance to the vagina

Anteriorly

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142
Q

What is anterior the the urethral opening

What is it comprised of

A

The clitoris

A glans and two corpora cavernosa which are smaller but homologous to those in the penis

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143
Q

Describe the path of the pudendal nerve

What does it supply
Which artery supplies the same structures

A

From the sacral plexus and leaves the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen

It crosses the sacrospinous ligament and enters the peritoneum through the lesser sciatic foramen

Muscles of the area and is sensory to the skin of the anus, perineum, and external genitalia

Internal pudendal artery

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144
Q

Where does the internal pudendal artery come from

A

Internal iliac artery

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145
Q

What lies half way between the suprasternal notch and the pubic symphysis

A

The transpyloric plane

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146
Q

Which neurovascular bundles run between the internal oblique and transversus abdominis

A

T7-L1

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147
Q

Can the obliques help expiration

A

They push the diaphragm up in deep expiration and coughing

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148
Q

How are the obliques and transversus abdominis related anteriorly (briefly)

A

They aponeuorse anteriorly forming the linea alba

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149
Q

What does rectus abdominis lie within

A

Anterior and posterior layers of the rectus sheath formed by other muscles

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150
Q

What does the arcuate line mark

A

The free lower edge of the posterior layer of the rectum sheath

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151
Q

What forms the inguinal ligament

What does this ligament attach to

A

The lower aponeurotic edge of the external oblique

The anterior superior iliac spine and pubic tubercle

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152
Q

What is the superficial inguinal ring

A

A triangular opening on the external oblique aponeurosis above the public crest

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153
Q

Describe the conjoint tendon

A

Formed from internal oblique and transversus abdominis

It is attached to the pubic crest and pectineal line

It supports the superficial ring

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154
Q

What is the inguinal canal

A

An oblique canal lying above the medial half of the inguinal ligament

It transmits the spermatic cord in the Male and the round ligament in females

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155
Q

Where does the deep inguinal ring lie

A

Lateral to the inferior epigastric artery

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156
Q

Why does much of the abdominal cavity lie under the ribs

A

The domes of the diaphragm arch high above the costal margin

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157
Q

What is the posterior abdominal wall formed of

A

Ribs 9,10,11 and 12 posterior to the diaphragm and all five lumbar vertebrae

Iliac bones

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158
Q

How are the lumbar vertebrae curved

A

Combed forward so push into the abdomen

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159
Q

Which abdominal organs are housed in the pelvic cavity

A

Sigmoid colon and ileum

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160
Q

On a slim person where does the umbilicus lie

A

Opposite L3

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161
Q

Other than the pylorus, what lies in the transpyloric plane

A

From posterior to anterior:

L1 vertebra
End of spinal cord 
Origins of portal vein and superior mesenteric artery
Renal hila
Neck of pancreas
Second part of duodenum 
Duodenojejunal flexure 
Tips of 9th costal cartilages
Fundus of gall bladder
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162
Q

How to remember transpyloric plane

A

3 Neuroskeletal: L1 vertebra, end of spinal cord, 9th costal cartilages

3 ‘tubes’: portal vein and superior mesenteric artery origins, duodenojejunal flexure, 2nd part of duodenum

3 ‘organ bits’: fundus of gall bladder, neck of pancreas, renal hila

And obviously pylorus

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163
Q

From where does external oblique arise

Direction of fibres?

A

Lower eight ribs, interdigitating with serratus anterior and latissimus dorsi

Down and forwards

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164
Q

Where does the external oblique insert

A

Posterior fibres descend to anterior half of the iliac crest

Anterior fibres become aponeurotic at the anterior superior iliac spine eventually joining the linea alba or becoming the inguinal ligament. This attaches to the pubic tubercle.

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165
Q

From where does the internal oblique arise

A

Lumbar fascia

Anterior 2/3 of iliac crest and lateral 2/3 of inguinal ligament

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166
Q

What happens to the fibres of the internal oblique as the my leave the inguinal ligament

A

Arch over inguinal canal to join lower fibres of transversus abdominis to form the conjoint tendon

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167
Q

Origin of of transversus abdominis

A

Inner surfaces of lower 6 costal cartilages (interdigitating with diaphragm),

lumbar fascia,

anterior 2/3 of iliac crest

and

lateral Half of inguinal ligament

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168
Q

How do the 2 bellies of rectus abdominis arise

Where do they insert

A

As two heads from the pubic symphysis and pubic crest

Anterior aspects of 5-7th costal cartilages

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169
Q

What forms the rectus sheath

A

The aponeuroses of the other abdominal muscles

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170
Q

Where does the linea alba end

A

Pubic symphysis

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171
Q

What happens to the internal oblique aponeurosis

A

Divides into 2 layers to enclose the rectus muscle before rejoining and fusing with the other aponeuroses in the midline

The transversus abdominis fuses with the posterior layer and the external oblique with the anterior layer

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172
Q

How is the anterior rectus sheath attached to the rectus muscle

A

By transverse tendinous intersections

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173
Q

Where are the tendinous intersections on the rectus abdominis

What forms the six pack

A

One at xiphisternum
One at umbilicus
One in between

Intervening muscle fibres

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174
Q

What happens to the rectus sheath below the umbilicus

A

3-4cm below all three aponeuroses pass anterior to the rectus abdominis muscle leaving the sheath deficient posteriorly

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175
Q

What is the free lower edge of the posterior rectus sheath

A

Arcuate line

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176
Q

What happens to the rectum abdominis below the arcuate line

A

It lies on the transversalis fascia

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177
Q

What supplies the rectus abdominis muscle

Where does it com from

A

Superior epigastric artery

Internal thoracic artery

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178
Q

What does the superior epigastric artery anastomose with

What is that a branch of

A

Inferior epigastric artery

External iliac artery

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179
Q

How does the superior epigastric artery run to supply rectus abdominis?

What about the inferior epigastric?

A

Between the posterior shealth and muscle

Runs up behind the rectum where the posterior sheath is deficient and then between sheath and muscle

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180
Q

Which additional nerve supplies the lower fibres of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis

A

L1 (ilioinguinal nerve)

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181
Q

Give 4 functions of the muscles of the abdominal wall

A

Move trunk

Depress ribs (not transversus abdominis)

Compress abdomen when coughing, sneezing and during expulsive efforts

Support abdominal viscera

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182
Q

What is the lymphatic drainage of the abdominal wall

A

Above umbilicus: pectoral group of axillary nodes

Below umbilicus: lymph drains to superficial inguinal nodes

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183
Q

How long is the inguinal canal

What are the boundaries

A

4-5cm

Posterior: transversalis fascia laterally and conjoint tendon medially

Anterior: external oblique aponeurosis, reinforces laterally by the origin of internal oblique from the inguinal ligament

Roof: fibres of internal oblique and transversus abdominis arching over the cord to form the conjoint tendon

Floor: inverted edge of inguinal ligament and lacunar ligament medially

184
Q

What is the entrance to the inguinal canal

Exit?

A

Deep ring

Superficial ring

185
Q

Describe the deep ring of the inguinal canal

Which artery is associated

A

An opening in the transversalis fascia above the midpoint of the inguinal ligament

The inferior epigastric artery ascends medially to it

186
Q

Describe the superficial ring of the inguinal canal

A

An opening in the external oblique aponeurosis

It is triangular with the base medial to the pubic tubercle and the sides sloping up and laterally from the pubic tubercle and symphysis

187
Q

What stops abdominal contents prolapsing through the inguinal canal

What does it transmit in females

A

Its oblique passage

The round ligament to the labia majora

188
Q

What does the inguinal canal transmit in males

A

The vas deferens accompanied by its artery and the testicular vessels

As they pass along they receive a covering from every layer though which they pas

189
Q

How does the ilioinguinal nerve enter the canal

What does it supply

A

Laterally by passing between the obliques

Skin on upper medial thigh, base of penis and the anterior scrotum or labia

190
Q

What is an indirect inguinal hernia

A

Enters through deep ring lateral to the epigastric artery

191
Q

What is the McBurney incision an example of and when is it done

A

A muscle splitting incision

For appendicetomy

192
Q

What are Pfannenstiel incisions

A

Suprapubic incisions for gynaecological and obstetric operations

193
Q

Describe the pain of appendicitis

A

Pain is initially referred to the peri umbilical region

As inflammation progresses the parietal peritoneum is involved with pain localised to the right iliac fossa

194
Q

Describe a femoral hernia

A

Passes through the femoral canal below and lateral to the pubic tubercle

Common in women and is prone to strangulation thus requiring emergency surgery

195
Q

What does exomphalos refer to

A

A defect in the abdominal wall with herniation of intra abdominal contents into the base of the umbilical cord

Omphalocele May form and can range from a large umbilical hernia to a very large mass containing most visceral organs

196
Q

What is ectopia vesicae

A

Exstrophy

Defect in anterior wall of bladder and abdomen resulting in an exposed, everted posterior bladder wall

197
Q

Is the umbilical hernia common

What does it involve

How is it treated

A

Relatively so in neonates and especially in premature babies

Herniation of small bowel but the neck of the hernia is wide and strangulation is rare

Usually closes spontaneously in first few years

198
Q

What lines the walls of the abdominal cavity

What does it clothe

A

Parietal peritoneum

The anterior and posterior walls and inferior diaphragm

199
Q

Which parts of the intestines are mesenteric

A

Abdominal oesophagus, stomach and first part of duodenum

Duodenojejunal junction, jejunum, ileum

Transverse colon

Sigmoid colon

200
Q

What is the main region of the abdominal cavity

A

The greater sac

201
Q

Where does the greater and lesser omentum hang down from

A

Greater: from greater curvature of stomach

The lesser suspends the lesser curvature of the stomach and the the first part of the duodenum
It hangs down from the liver

202
Q

How is visceral pain in the abdominal cavity returned

A

Via general visceral afferents running with the sympathetic chain

203
Q

Give 7 examples where the parietal peritoneum is reflected into visceral inside the abdominal cavity

A

Falciform and coronary ligaments of liver
Greater and lesser omentum
The gastrosplenic and lienorenal ligaments
Bases of mesenteries of small intestine, transverse and sigmoid colon

204
Q

How is the peritoneal cavity divided for descriptive purposes

How is is separated

A

Into the supracolic and infracolic compartments

By the transverse colon and it’s mesentry

205
Q

What are the 3 basic functions of the most dilated part of the gut tube

A

Ie the stomach

Storing food
Mixing food with gastric secretions to form chyme
Controlling discharge to the small intestine via the pylorus

206
Q

What level Does the oesophagus enter the stomach

A

T10

207
Q

6 reasons to prevent gastro- oesophageal reflux

A
  1. Lower oesophageal sphincter
  2. Diaphragmatic crura
  3. The angle of His
  4. The phreno oesophageal ligament
  5. Lateral pressure of the walls on the intra abdominal oesophagus
  6. The apposition of rosette like mucosal folds at the gastro oesophageal junction
208
Q

How does the diaphragmatic crura help prevent reflux

A

The encircling fibres of the right crus exert a radial pressure on the lower oesophagus

This is the pinchcock effect

209
Q

Describe the angle of His

A

It is the acute angle of entry of the oesophagus into the stomach and helps to form a flap valve

210
Q

Describe the phreno- oesophageal ligament

A

Formed of thickened bands of elastin rich connective tissue, which effectively tethers the oesophagus to the diaphragm

211
Q

Which vessels supply the stomach

A

All 3 arteries from the coeliac trunk

Venous drainage is to portal system

212
Q

What does the left gastric artery supply

A

Lower oesophagus and lesser curvature

213
Q

What does the splenic artery supply

A

It gives the short gastrics which supply the fundus of the stomach and the left gastroepiploric which runs down the greater curvature

214
Q

What does the common hepatic give

Which arises first

A

The right gastric and gastroduodenal, which gives right gastroepiploric

Either

215
Q

What is the sympathetic flow to the stomach

Where does symphony drain

A

Via greater splanchnic nerve via coeliac plexus

Along arteries to pre aortic coeliac nodes

216
Q

Describe the lesser omentum

A

A double fold of visceral peritoneum which extends from the liver to the lesser curvature and first part of duodenum

It’s free edge forms the anterior boundary of the epiploric foramen and contains the HPV, Common bile duct, and hepatic artery

217
Q

What order are the vessels in the free edge of the lesser omentum arranged in

A

HPV ( posterior)
Common bile duct (right)
Hepatic artery (left)

218
Q

Where does the root of the mesentery lie

What happens to it

Where does it end up

A

Opposite the left side of L2 at the duodenojejunal flexure

It then crosses in front of the third and fourth parts of the duodenum, aorta, IVC and right ureter

In front of the right sacroiliac joint

219
Q

How long is the mesenteric root

A

15cm

220
Q

How long is the small intestine

A

6m

221
Q

What does the superior mesenteric artery supply

A

2nd half of duodenum, all of the small intestine, and large intestine up to 2/3 along the transverse colon

222
Q

Give 5 of the branches of the superior mesenteric artery

What does each supply

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery - supplies duodenum beyond the middle of its second part
Middle colic artery - supplies transverse colon
Jejunal and ileal branches
Right colic artery - supplies ascending colon
Ileocolic artery - divides into anterior and posterior caecal arteries

223
Q

What does the posterior caecal artery give

A

The appendicular artery

224
Q

How are mesenteric artery branches connected in the mesentery

How do these change across the mesentery

A

By vascular arcades

There are fewer arcades in the jejunum and they are long and straight

There are multiple complex arcades in the ileum with short straight vessels

225
Q

How is the submucosa of the jejunum and ileum arranged?

Why?

A

they are arranged into semi circular folds

To avoid absorption

226
Q

How is lymphoid tissue arranged in the GI tract

A

Increases down tract

227
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found

What are they

A

In the submucosa of the ileum

Clusters of lymphocytes

228
Q

Lymph from intestine walls drains where

A

Via pre aortic nodes to the cisterna chyli

229
Q

Where does the large intestine extend from

How long is it

A

From caecum to anus

1.5m

230
Q

What are the main features that distinguish the large intestine from the small intestine

A

Taeniae coli - condensation of longitudinal muscle into 3 bands

Haustra/ sacculations - as longitudinal muscle is shorter then rest of the wall

Appendices epiploricae - small tags of fat projecting from the wall

231
Q

What does the large in testing consist of

A

Caecum
appendix
ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon and rectum and anal canal

232
Q

True or false

The ileocaecal valve is formed by longitudinal muscle

A

False

It is formed by the circular muscle from the terminal 2-3cm of the ileum passing through the caecal wall

233
Q

What is the main function of the large intestine

A

Absorption of water and electrolytes

234
Q

How much liquid enters the large intestine every day from the small intestine

How much is excreted

A

1 L

Less than 100 mL

235
Q

Describe the peristalsis of the large intestine

A

Not a frequent continual action instead it is more periodic

236
Q

What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery

A

Left colic - supplies transverse and descending colon
Sigmoid branches - supply sigmoid colon
Superior rectal - supplies rectum and anastomoses with the middle and inferior rectal arteries ( from internal iliac artery)

237
Q

What does the marginal artery consist of

A

Anastomoses between ileocolic, right, middle and left colic arteries Resulting in a continuous arterial line at the margin of the large intestine from the caecum to the rectum

238
Q

How does lymphatic drainage compare from the large to the small intestine

A

The same principles apply

Drainages from large is first to the nodes in the mesentery then to the pre aortic nodes on the posterior abdominal wall before reaching the cisterna chyli

239
Q

What arteries supply the upper rectum and anal canal

What is the venous drainage

A

Superior rectal arteries

Drain to portal vein via superior rectal veins

240
Q

middle and inferior rectal arteries are branches of internal iliac artery. What does this mean for the corresponding venous drainage

What is this

A

Venous drainage is to the internal iliac veins which are systemic

A site of portosystemic anastomosia

241
Q

When can Peritonitis occur

What are the signs

A

When there is bacterial contamination during surgery or when the gut ruptures as a result of infection and inflammation allowing gas, gastric contents, bile or faecal matter to enter the peritoneal cavity

Pain in overlying dermatome and rigidity in the anterior abdominal wall

242
Q

What is ascites

When May this occur

A

XS fluid in the peritoneal cavity

Secondary carcinoma or cirrhosis

243
Q

What is GORD

What are symptoms

What can be a contributing factor

What may it be associated with

A

Gastro oesophageal reflux disease

Reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus causing heartburn and acid regurgitation

An incompetent cardiac sphincter

Hiatus hernia

244
Q

Is peptic ulceration common?

What can happen

A

Yes

Posterior peptic ulcers may erode into the splenic artery and cause torrential bleeding
Gastric contents may also enter the lesser sac

245
Q

True or false

Pyloric stenosis is only ever congenital

A

False

Can be acquired

246
Q

When is congenital pyloric stenosis most common

What is a common symptom

How can this be acquired

A

In boys in early weeks of life

Projectile vomiting

Acquired cases are caused by scarring from peptic ulceration

247
Q

True or false

carcinoma of the stomach has a good prognosis

A

False as it is often technically impossible to ensure complete removal of involved lymphatics due to extensive drainage

248
Q

What can happen if an inflamed appendix is not treated

What are the initial symptoms of appendicitis

Then what happens

A

It may lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery with subsequent necrosis and perforation

Pain is referred to the T 10 dermatome around the umbilicus

As the inflammatory process extends it will directly irritate the overlying parietal peritoneum which is supplied by somatic nerves.
pain will then be felt in the right Iliac fossa

249
Q

True or false the appendix is on mesentery

What does this mean

A

True

It is mobile and it’s different positions may lead to difficulty in diagnosis

250
Q

Classically what is the surface marking of the appendix

A

McBurney’s point

Which is a third of the way along the line from the anterior Superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

251
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum

How common is it

Describe it

A

The embryological remnants of the vitellointestinal duct connecting the gut tube to the yolk sac

In 2% of people

Typically 3 to 5 cm long it is found within 100 cm of the ileocecal valve.
It lies on the anti-mesenteric border of the bowel and can become inflamed

252
Q

What else must be considered before diagnosing appendicitis

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

Conditions affecting other organs situated in or near the right iliac fossa including ectopic pregnancy

253
Q

What side is the appendix on when a person has situs in versus

A

The left wall

254
Q

Other than situs in versus when may the appendix be in an abnormal position

A

Congenital space Malrotation of the gut

255
Q

Where does the root of the mesentery lie

What happens to it

Where does it end up

A

Opposite the left side of L2 at the duodenojejunal flexure

It then crosses in front of the third and fourth parts of the duodenum, aorta, IVC and right ureter

In front of the right sacroiliac joint

256
Q

How long is the mesenteric root

A

15cm

257
Q

How long is the small intestine

A

6m

258
Q

What does the superior mesenteric artery supply

A

2nd half of duodenum, all of the small intestine, and large intestine up to 2/3 along the transverse colon

259
Q

Give 5 of the branches of the superior mesenteric artery

What does each supply

A

Inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery - supplies duodenum beyond the middle of its second part
Middle colic artery - supplies transverse colon
Jejunal and ileal branches
Right colic artery - supplies ascending colon
Ileocolic artery - divides into anterior and posterior caecal arteries

260
Q

What does the posterior caecal artery give

A

The appendicular artery

261
Q

How are mesenteric artery branches connected in the mesentery

How do these change across the mesentery

A

By vascular arcades

There are fewer arcades in the jejunum and they are long and straight

There are multiple complex arcades in the ileum with short straight vessels

262
Q

How is the submucosa of the jejunum and ileum arranged?

Why?

A

they are arranged into semi circular folds

To avoid absorption

263
Q

How is lymphoid tissue arranged in the GI tract

A

Increases down tract

264
Q

Where are Peyer’s patches found

What are they

A

In the submucosa of the ileum

Clusters of lymphocytes

265
Q

Lymph from intestine walls drains where

A

Via pre aortic nodes to the cisterna chyli

266
Q

Where does the large intestine extend from

How long is it

A

From caecum to anus

1.5m

267
Q

What are the main features that distinguish the large intestine from the small intestine

A

Taeniae coli - condensation of longitudinal muscle into 3 bands

Haustra/ sacculations - as longitudinal muscle is shorter then rest of the wall

Appendices epiploricae - small tags of fat projecting from the wall

268
Q

What does the large in testing consist of

A

Caecum
appendix
ascending, transverse, descending, and sigmoid colon and rectum and anal canal

269
Q

True or false

The ileocaecal valve is formed by longitudinal muscle

A

False

It is formed by the circular muscle from the terminal 2-3cm of the ileum passing through the caecal wall

270
Q

What is the main function of the large intestine

A

Absorption of water and electrolytes

271
Q

How much liquid enters the large intestine every day from the small intestine

How much is excreted

A

1 L

Less than 100 mL

272
Q

Describe the peristalsis of the large intestine

A

Not a frequent continual action instead it is more periodic

273
Q

What are the three branches of the inferior mesenteric artery

A

Left colic - supplies transverse and descending colon
Sigmoid branches - supply sigmoid colon
Superior rectal - supplies rectum and anastomoses with the middle and inferior rectal arteries ( from internal iliac artery)

274
Q

What does the marginal artery consist of

A

Anastomoses between ileocolic, right, middle and left colic arteries Resulting in a continuous arterial line at the margin of the large intestine from the caecum to the rectum

275
Q

How does lymphatic drainage compare from the large to the small intestine

A

The same principles apply

Drainages from large is first to the nodes in the mesentery then to the pre aortic nodes on the posterior abdominal wall before reaching the cisterna chyli

276
Q

What arteries supply the upper rectum and anal canal

What is the venous drainage

A

Superior rectal arteries

Drain to portal vein via superior rectal veins

277
Q

middle and inferior rectal arteries are branches of internal iliac artery. What does this mean for the corresponding venous drainage

What is this

A

Venous drainage is to the internal iliac veins which are systemic

A site of portosystemic anastomosia

278
Q

When can Peritonitis occur

What are the signs

A

When there is bacterial contamination during surgery or when the gut ruptures as a result of infection and inflammation allowing gas, gastric contents, bile or faecal matter to enter the peritoneal cavity

Pain in overlying dermatome and rigidity in the anterior abdominal wall

279
Q

What is ascites

When May this occur

A

XS fluid in the peritoneal cavity

Secondary carcinoma or cirrhosis

280
Q

What is GORD

What are symptoms

What can be a contributing factor

What may it be associated with

A

Gastro oesophageal reflux disease

Reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus causing heartburn and acid regurgitation

An incompetent cardiac sphincter

Hiatus hernia

281
Q

Is peptic ulceration common?

What can happen

A

Yes

Posterior peptic ulcers may erode into the splenic artery and cause torrential bleeding
Gastric contents may also enter the lesser sac

282
Q

True or false

Pyloric stenosis is only ever congenital

A

False

Can be acquired

283
Q

When is congenital pyloric stenosis most common

What is a common symptom

How can this be acquired

A

In boys in early weeks of life

Projectile vomiting

Acquired cases are caused by scarring from peptic ulceration

284
Q

True or false

carcinoma of the stomach has a good prognosis

A

False as it is often technically impossible to ensure complete removal of involved lymphatics due to extensive drainage

285
Q

What can happen if an inflamed appendix is not treated

What are the initial symptoms of appendicitis

Then what happens

A

It may lead to thrombosis of the appendicular artery with subsequent necrosis and perforation

Pain is referred to the T 10 dermatome around the umbilicus

As the inflammatory process extends it will directly irritate the overlying parietal peritoneum which is supplied by somatic nerves.
pain will then be felt in the right Iliac fossa

286
Q

True or false the appendix is on mesentery

What does this mean

A

True

It is mobile and it’s different positions may lead to difficulty in diagnosis

287
Q

Classically what is the surface marking of the appendix

A

McBurney’s point

Which is a third of the way along the line from the anterior Superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

288
Q

What is Meckel’s diverticulum

How common is it

Describe it

A

The embryological remnants of the vitellointestinal duct connecting the gut tube to the yolk sac

In 2% of people

Typically 3 to 5 cm long it is found within 100 cm of the ileocecal valve.
It lies on the anti-mesenteric border of the bowel and can become inflamed

289
Q

What else must be considered before diagnosing appendicitis

A

Meckel’s diverticulum

Conditions affecting other organs situated in or near the right iliac fossa including ectopic pregnancy

290
Q

What side is the appendix on when a person has situs in versus

A

The left wall

291
Q

Other than situs in versus when may the appendix be in an abnormal position

A

Congenital space Malrotation of the gut

292
Q

Is the duodenum retroperitoneal

A

Mostly

293
Q

Where does the Common bile duct join the duodenum

What else joins here

A

Second part of the duodenum at the ampulla of Vater

The pancreatic duct

294
Q

What are the 4 lobes of the liver

A

Left
Quadrate
Caudate
Right

295
Q

True or false
the hepatic veins are entirely intra-hepatic

Where do they drain into

A

True

IVC

296
Q

What makes bile

Where is it collected

A

Hepatocytes

It is collected by the right and left hepatic ducts, which forms the common hepatic duct which joins the cystic duct from the gall bladder to form the common bile duct

297
Q

How is the common bile duct formed

A

The right and left hepatic duct form the common hepatic duct which joins the cystic duct from the gallbladder to form the common bile duct

298
Q

How is the gallbladder related to the liver

A

The fundus and body of the gallbladder are firmly bound to the inferior surface of the liver

299
Q

What supplies the gallbladder arterially

A

Cystic artery

300
Q

From where does the cystic artery arise

A

Right branch of the hepatic artery

301
Q

What connects the liver to the lesser curvature of the stomach

A

The lesser omentum

302
Q

Describe the position of the spleen

A

Inferior to the diaphragm and is related to the left ninth 10th 11th ribs

It is connected to the stomach via the gastrosplenic ligament and to the left kidney via the lienorenal ligament

303
Q

Give two words to sum up the functions of the spleen

A

Immunological

Haemopoeitic

304
Q

Is the pancreas retroperitoneal

A

Yes, with the exception of it tail

305
Q

Where does the tail of the pancreas lie

A

In the lienorenal ligament

306
Q

Give two words to sum up the function of the pancreas

A

Endocrine and exocrine

307
Q

What are the potential peritoneal spaces in the retroperitoneum

A

Subphrenic (Between the diaphragm and upper surface of the liver on either side of the falciform ligament) and the sub hepatic spaces (inferior to the liver)

308
Q

How long is the duodenum

A

25cm

309
Q

How is the duodenum divided

A

Superior (1st)
Descending (2nd)
Horizontal/ inferior (3rd)
Ascending (4th)

310
Q

Describe the superior duodenum

A

5 cm long and the most mobile part
The first half is on the mesentery
Second half becomes retroperitoneal

311
Q

Describe the descending duodenum

A

8 cm long descends to the right of the vertebral column and the inferior vena Cava

Overlies the hilum of the right kidney

The common opening of the bile and pancreatic duct into enters at the major duodenal papilla on the posteromedial wall

312
Q

Describe the inferior duodenum

A

10 cm long passes from right to left across L3 over the inferior Vena cava and aorta
Crosses by the door of the small bowel mesentery within which lies the superior mesenteric vessels

313
Q

Describe the ascending part of the duodenum

A

2.5 cm long S ends up on the left of
Psoas major to the side of L2
Turns forward at the duodenojejunal flexure
Partially retroperitoneal and partially on mesentery

314
Q

Describe the arterial supply of the duodenum

A

Proximal to the entry of the bile duct the duodenum supplied by a branch of the coeliac trunk, the superior pancreaticoduodenal artery

Beyond this point into supplied by a branch of the superior mesenteric artery, the inferior pancreaticoduodenal artery

Here there is an anastomosis between fore and midgut

315
Q

What is the largest gland in the body

How much does it weigh and how much blood does it receive Per minute

A

Liver

  1. 5kg
  2. 5L/min
316
Q

How hard is a liver

A

In a cadaver it is firm and hard and but in life it is a red highly vascular and soft organ

317
Q

What are the five ligaments of the liver

A
Falciform
Right and left triangular
Coronary ligament 
Ligamentum teres
Ligamentum venosum
318
Q

Describe the falciform ligament

A

A double peritoneal fold which is attached to the diaphragm and the anterior abdominal wall from the umbilicus

319
Q

Where are the triangular ligaments

A

They run from the sides of the diaphragm to the posterior liver

320
Q

Describe the coronary ligament

A

Continuous with the right triangular ligament and attaches the right lobe of the liver to the diaphragm

321
Q

Describe ligamentum teres

A

The obliterated left umbilical vein which is contained within the free edge of the falciform ligament

322
Q

Describe ligamentum venosum

A

Lies between the left and caudate lobe of the liver and contains the obliterated ductus venosus

323
Q

What is the bare area of the liver

A

An area of the liver which is devoid of peritoneum

it lies against the diaphragm and posterior abdominal wall and is in contact with the inferior vena cava and right adrenal gland

324
Q

How is the liver divided into right and left lobes

A

By the fissure fro ligamentum teres on the inferior surface and posteriorly by fissure for ligamentum venosum

325
Q

What does the right lobe of the liver contain

How is it divided

A

Porta hepatis and fissure for IVC

Into the quadrate lobe and caudate lobe

Quadrate: between ligamentum teres and gallbladder
Caudate: between fissures for the IVC and ligamentum venosum

326
Q

How is the caudate lobe connected to the right lobe

A

By the caudate process

327
Q

Where does the fossa for the gallbladder lie in the liver

A

On the inferior surface of the right lobe

328
Q

What are the relations of the lobes of the liver

A

Left lobe: oesophagus and stomach
Quadrate: pylorus
Right lobe: to the hepatic flexure and posteriorly to the right kidney
Caudate: to lesser sac

329
Q

Where does porta hepatis lie

What is it

A

Between the quadrate and caudate lobes

The point of entry of the portal vein and hepatic artery as well as the exit of the left and right Hepatic ducts

330
Q

Is the division of the liver into left and right lobe is important in practice

A

No it is mostly descriptive

Vascular input and bile output are in almost 2 equal halves with the quadrate lobe and most of the caudate lobe belonging functionally to the left half of the liver

331
Q

What is on either side of the falciform ligament

A

Sub phrenic spaces

332
Q

Should the liver be palpable in the adult

Is this the same for an infant

A

No the liver should not extend below the costal margin
if it is palpable the liver is enlarged

No, infants have relatively large livers compared the body size

333
Q

How many can the right lobe ascend on expiration

A

4th costal margin (nipple level)

334
Q

Why is the 4th costal margin only an anterior surface marking for the liver on expiration

A

The costodiaphragmatic recess extends inferiorly begins the liver

335
Q

What are the 3 parts of the gallbladder

A

Neck
body
fundus

336
Q

What is the surface marking of the fundus of the gallbladder

A

9th right costal cartilage

337
Q

How many parts are there to the sphincter of Oddi

A

3:
Controlling common bile duct
Pancreatic duct
And the short segment after they have joined

338
Q

Why may there be surgical complications when performing surgery around the gallbladder

A

There is considerable variation in the biliary tree

339
Q

What does the hepatic portal system drain

A

Pancreas
Gallbladder
Spleen
GI tract from lower oesophageal sphincter to upper anal canal

340
Q

The portal vein is formed by the union of which other veins?

Where Does this happen

A

Splenic and superior mesenteric veins
The inferior mesenteric vein joins at a variable distance along it

Anterior to right crus of diaphragm and IVC
Posterior to neck of pancreas at level of L1

341
Q

What are sites of portosystemic anastomoses

When are these problematic

A

Areas where venous drainage can enter either the portal system or the systemic system

These areas do not usually cause problems but in presence of raised portal pressure, commonly due to liver disease from alcoholism, unmetabolised toxic substances can enter the systemic circulation and lead to clinical problems

342
Q

What are the different parts of the pancreas

Where do the mesenteric arteries and veins lie
These don’t supply the pancreas

A
Head
Uncinate process
Neck
Body
Tail

Between the uncinate process and neck lie the superior mesenteric vessels with the vein on the right

343
Q

The pancreas passes to the left. What does this mean

A

It crosses the left renal hilum and enters the lienorenal ligament

The tail lies within the lienorenal ligament and reaches the spleen’s hilum

344
Q

How does the pancreas secrete digestive pro enzymes into the duodenum

A

Into the pancreatic duct duct which joins the common bile duct

345
Q

What is the blood supply to the pancreas

A

Splenic and pancreaticoduodenal arteries

346
Q

Give three things the spleen is related to

What does it lie against

A

Left kidney, tail of pancreas, gastric fundus.

It’s convex surface lies against the diaphragm, where it is related to the left ninth 10th and 11th ribs

347
Q

How is the spleen connected to the abdominal wall and stomach

A

By peritoneal folds
Lienorenal ligament
Gastrosplenic ligament

348
Q

What is the immunological function of the spleen

A

Producing and storing white blood cells particularly lymphocytes

It also destroys effete red blood cells

349
Q

What is a common complication postsplenectomy

A

Liable to infection, especially of pneumococcal origin

350
Q

What is the arterial supply to spleen

What is the venous drainage of the spleen

A

By a large splenic artery from the coeliac trunk

Its vein joins the superior mesenteric vein to form the portal vein

351
Q

What pathology can occur at the duodenal flexion

A

Recesses may form into which internal herniation occur

352
Q

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is most likely to be damage in a car crash

A

The first part of the duodenum as it is most mobile

353
Q

What can happen to the duodenal wall because of posterior peptic ulcers

What about anterior peptic ulcers

A

The wall can erode and the ulcers can penetrate the head of the pancreas where they may involve the gastroduodenal artery

Anterior ulcers may perforate into the greater sac of the peritoneal cavity

354
Q

Define portal hypertension

Name a common cause

What does it result in

A

An increase in portal venous pressure

Alcoholic cirrhosis with fibrous tissue surrounding the intrahepatic vessels and biliary ducts

Impedes circulation of blood through the liver, forming portosystemic anastomoses

355
Q

What is cholecystitis

What are the signs and symptoms

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder

Tenderness may be elicited when the patient inhales as descent of the diaphragm causes the liver and gallbladder to descend onto the examining head

356
Q

How is a gallbladder usually removed

A

Laparoscopically

357
Q

What does obstruction of the biliary tree result in

What does this lead to

Obstruction of which part of the biliary tree will not cause this?

A

Increased pressure within the system so that bile leaks from the liver into the general circulation

This leads to jaundice with a yellow staining of the skin and Sclera by biliary pigments

Cystic duct and gallbladder

358
Q

What may cause obstruction of the biliary tree

A

Gall stones may cause intermittent jaundice

Tumours of the head of the pancreas may cause a painless obstructive jaundice that is continuous

359
Q

Which is more painful gallstones or a pancreatic tumour? Both cause jaundice due to blockage of the biliary tree.

A

Gall stones

360
Q

Fractures of which ribs may lead to a splenic rupture

Why is this bad

What is necessary if this occurs

A

9-11

The spleen is highly vascular and it will bleed into the peritoneal cavity

To remove the spleen -
however a splenectomy reduces immunological potential and increases the risk of overwhelming infection

preventative measures include prophylactic antibiotics

361
Q

Discuss congenital abnormalities associated with the biliary tree

A

Lack of proper recanalisation of the small bowel or biliary ducts can lead to congenital narrowing or complete obstruction
This could lead to duodenal, ileal, and biliary atresia

362
Q

What is a congenital condition associated with the pancreas

A

An Annular pancreas

363
Q

Briefly how does the pancreas form in normal development

What about if an annular pancreas is formed

A

The head and neck of the pancreas are formed from left and right ventral buds which are fused together and rotate round as a single entity

If they do not confuse initially they may pass round opposite sides of the pancreas and then fused together does forming a ring of pancreatic tissue around the duodenum

364
Q

What are the muscles of the posterior abdominal wall

A

Psoas major
Quadratus lumborum
Iliacus

365
Q

What is each muscle of the posterior abdominal wall covered with

A

A dense and unyielding fascia to provide fixation for the peritoneum and retro peritoneal viscera

366
Q

Where does the lumbar plexus form

A

Behind or with psoas major

367
Q

Where does the abdominal aorta extend from

Then what happens to it

A

T12 to L4

It divides into the common iliac arteries

368
Q

What are the branches of the abdominal aorta

A

Unpaired branches to the gut, paired branches to abdominal and pelvic viscera, and parietal branches to the abdominal wall

369
Q

How does the inferior Vena Cava form and where does it extend from

A

The union of the common iliac veins

Extends from T5 to T8

370
Q

What do the right adrenal, renal, and gonadal veins drain into?

What about on the left

A

On the right: directly into IVC

On the left: left adrenal and gonadal veins drain into the left renal vein

371
Q

What are the kidneys embedded in

A

Perinephric fat which is contained within the renal fascia

372
Q

Describe how the different adrenal glands relate to their kindey

A

The right adrenal embraces The upper pole of the right kidney.

The left adrenal embraces the medial border of the left kidney above the hilum

Both relate posteriorly to the diaphragm

373
Q

What are the ureters in line with

A

The tips of the lumbar transverse processes and sacroiliac joint

374
Q

What are the three sites of relative narrowing of the ureters

A

The pelvi-ureteric junction
Pelvic brim
Point of entry into the bladder

375
Q

What does the diaphragm arise from

A

The upper three lumbar vertebral bodies, the arcuate ligaments on the posterior abdominal wall, the lower six ribs, and xiphisternum

376
Q

What is the origin of psoas major

Innervation?

A

5 lumbar vertebrae, their intervening discs and transverse processes

Segmental (L1-3)

377
Q

What is the course of psoas major

A

Arises from 5 lumbar vertebrae
Passes inferiorly, medial to the iliac bone, where it joins iliacus to form iliopsoas tendon
It is now supplied by the femoral nerve

This tendon inserts the lesser trochanter of the femur

378
Q

What is the action of iliopsoas/ psoas major

A

Flexor of hip joint and trunk

379
Q

Describe the course of quadratus lumborum

A

Runs between posterior part of the iliac crest, the 12th rib and the lumbar transverse processes

380
Q

What is the function of quadratus lumborum

Innervation?

A

Stabilises the vertebral column and fixes the twelfth rib for diaphragmatic movements

Supplies by anterior rami of T12-L4

381
Q

What are the medial and lateral arcuate ligaments

A

The thick and upper borders of the psoas major and quadratus lumborum fascia respectively

382
Q

What do the anterior rami of the upper 4 lumbar spinal nerves form

Which nerve passes nearby but is not part of the plexus

A

The lumbar plexus

T12 (subcostal nerve)

383
Q

What are the main branches of the lumbar plexus

A

Iliohypogastric (L1, main nerve) and ilioinguinal (L1, collateral branch)

Genitofemoral (L1,2)

Lateral femoral cutaneous branch (L2,3)

Femoral (L2-4 posterior divisions)

384
Q

Describe the course of the iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerves

A

From anterior rami of L1 in lumbar plexus
Pass between transversus abdominis and internal oblique
Ilioinguinal runs in inguinal canal and is mostly sensory

385
Q

The genitofemoral nerve divides into which nerves

What is the spinal nerve root associated

What does each supply

A

Femoral branch (L1) - supplies skin over upper anterior thigh

Genital branch (L2) - runs in inguinal canal to supply contents of spermatic cord and the cremasteric muscles

386
Q

Describe the course of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

Passes across iliacus and enters thigh beneath the lateral part of the inguinal ligament medial to the anterior superior iliac spine

387
Q

Describe the course of the femoral nerve

A

From the posterior divisions of L2,3,4 it passes into the anterior thigh and supplies the quadriceps muscle, Sartorius and pectineus and the skin on the thigh

388
Q

What supplies the skin on the medial aspect of the thigh

Give associated nerve root

A

Obturator nerve (L2-4)

389
Q

Most of L4 contributes to the lumbar plexus. What happens to the rest of it

A

Joined L5 to form that lumbosacral trunk

390
Q

What are the four groups of branches of the abdominal aorta

A

Inferior phrenic arteries

the three anterior unpaired visceral branches to the gastrointestinal tract

three lateral paired visceral branches

four pairs of lumbar arteries and the median sacral artery

391
Q

Which arteries to the inferior phrenic arteries give

A

The superior adrenal arteries

392
Q

What are the three anterior unpaired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta to the gastrointestinal tract

A

The coeliac trunk, the superior and inferior mesenteric arteries

393
Q

What are the three lateral paired visceral branches of the abdominal aorta

A

The renal arteries, the middle adrenal arteries, and the gonadal arteries

394
Q

Which arteries give the inferior adrenal arteries

A

The renal arteries

395
Q

Which lymph nodes receive lymph from the gastrointestinal tract

A

Pre aortic nodes

396
Q

The para aortic nodes receive lymph from where

A

Non alimentary viscera and the lower limbs

397
Q

In the abdomen is the sympathetic chain in front of or behind the IVC

A

It is behind the IVC on the right

398
Q

The femoral artery is an extension of which artery

A

The external iliac artery

399
Q

Describe the course of the IVC in the abdomen up to the heart

A

It is formed by the union of the common iliac vein is to the right of L5. It passes on the right of the abdominal aorta to the liver where it lies in a groove and receives the hepatic veins. It passes through the central tendon of the diaphragm at the level of T8 and opens into the right atrium

400
Q

Where does the IVC pass through the diaphragm

A

Through the central tendon at T8

401
Q

True or false: the right renal vein is much shorter than the left

A

True

The IVC lies to the right of the midline

402
Q

Where does the left renal vein cross the aorta

A

Just below the origin of the superior mesenteric artery

403
Q

What do the upper two lumbar veins drain into

A

They come together to form the azygous vein on the right and the hemiazygous Vein on the left

404
Q

True or false venous drainage from the gastrointestinal tract is to the IVC

A

False it is to the portal vein

405
Q

What level are the kidney’s hila

A

L1

406
Q

Which kidney is lower and why

A

The right kidney is lower due to the liver

407
Q

Which direction do the hila of the kidneys face

A

Anteromedially

408
Q

What are the tributaries in each Renal hila from anterior to posterior

A

Renal vein, renal artery, renal pelvis

409
Q

Name one hormone the kidney producers

What is it function

A

Renin

Control of blood pressure

410
Q

Are the adrenal glands within the renal capsules

A

No

411
Q

Which adrenal is related to the bare area of the liver and the inferior vena cava

A

Right

412
Q

How many arteries supply the adrenals

How many veins

A

3

1

413
Q

How long are the ureters

What do they lie anterior to

A

25 cm

Genitofemoral nerves and the bifurcation of the common iliac artery

414
Q

On the left where does the ureter enter the pelvis

A

At the apex of the sigmoid mesocolon

415
Q

How do ureters travel in the pelvis

A

From the ischial spines, they continue anteromedially along the pelvic floor to enter the base of the bladder

416
Q

How is ureteric pain felt

A

Sequentially: first in the line, then in the iliac fossa, and finally in the penis

417
Q

What are the origins of the posterior fibres of the diaphragm

A

Right and left crura from the upper lumbar vertebra, L3- L1 on the right and L1 and L2 on the left;

medial and lateral arcuate ligaments

418
Q

What are the origins of the lateral fibres of the diaphragm

A

Inner surfaces of the lower six costal cartilages, interdigitating with the transversus abdominis muscle

419
Q

What is the origin of the anterior fibres of the diaphragm

A

Small slips from the back of the xiphisternum

420
Q

Where do all muscle fibres in the diaphragm insert

A

Into a central tendon which is a trilobed structure fused with the fibrous pericardium

421
Q

What does the diaphragm look like a) in sagittal section and B) in coronal section

A

a) inverted J with the long limb running up from T12

b) fibres slope up and medially into 2 dimes which descend towards the central tendon

422
Q

What are the surface markings of the right dome, left dome, central tendon, of the diaphragm in full expiration

A

Right: 4th intercostal space

Left: 5th rib

Central: 6th costal cartilage (end of sternum)

423
Q

What are the three main levels that structures are passed through the diaphragm between the thorax and abdomen

A

T8.
T10
T12

424
Q

Which structure is passed through the diaphragm at T8

A

IVC, right phrenic nerve

425
Q

Which structures pass through the diaphragm at T 10

A

Oesophagus with vagal trunks, branches of left gastric vessels

426
Q

Which structures passed through the diaphragm at T 12

A

Aorta
Azygous vein
Thoracic duct

427
Q

Other than the vagi, discuss nerves passing through the diaphragm

A

Sympathetic trunks pass posterior to the medial arcuate ligament.

Splanchnic nerves pierce the crura;

left phrenic nerve pierces the left dome

T7 to T 11 intercostal nerves pass between the digitations of the diaphragm

subcostal neurovascular bundle is passed posterior to the lateral arcuate ligament

428
Q

What are the terminal branches of the internal thoracic artery

Do they pass through the diaphragm

A

Musculophrenic

Superior epigastric

Yes

429
Q

WhatCarries sympathetic innovation to the abdomen

What happens when they enter the abdomen

A

The greater, Lesser, and least splanchnic nerves

Converge to form the coeliac plexus

430
Q

What forms each of the splanchnic nerves

A

Greater: T5-9 ganglia

Lesser: T10-11 ganglia

Least: 12th thoracic ganglia

431
Q

What is the only structure in the abdomen that receives preganglionic sympathetic fibres

Which fibres are these and what is their course

A

Adrenal medulla

Arise largely from T10, pass with the splanchnic nerves and then via the coeliac plexus to the adrenal medulla

432
Q

How is adrenaline released near the effector organ

A

As a hormone not a neurotransmitter

433
Q

Which spinal segments are parasympathetic

A

S2-4

434
Q

How do parasympathetic fibres supply the hindgut

A

They extend from the pelvis to reach the inferior mesenteric plexus for distribution to the descending colon and distal third of the transverse colon

435
Q

What is the largest prevertebral plexus

Give a brief description

A

The coeliac plexus, surrounding the origin of the coeliac trunk

It contains several ganglia and gives branches which accompany the blood vessels to the viscera and form a secondary plexuses at these arteries

436
Q

How can the remaining practices i.e. not including the coeliac plexus be considered

A

As extensions of the coeliac plexus

437
Q

Other than the coeliac plexus, name three autonomic plexuses in the abdomen

A

Hepatic, splenic, Renal

438
Q

Which practices supply the foregut, midgut, and hindgut structures respectively

A

Fore: coeliac
Mid: superior mesenteric
Hind: inferior mesenteric

439
Q

Describe the course of the pre-aortic plexus

A

It continues pass the aortic bifurcation and coalesces as a single superior hypogastric plexus, which descends into the pelvis to become the left and right inferior hypogastric plexuses

440
Q

What is an abdominal aortic aneurysm

What is it a result of

A

A localised dilation of the abdominal aorta

resulting from a weakness of the aortic wall

441
Q

Where do abdominal aortic aneurysms usually arise

A

Usually Below the kidneys but may also be above or at the level of the kidneys

442
Q

Can an abdominal aortic aneurysm affect the common iliac arteries

A

Yes and aneurysm may also extend to include one or both of the common iliac arteries

443
Q

Which kind of patients are most likely to get an abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

Male smokers

444
Q

When would surgical repair be performed for an abdominal aortic aneurysm

A

If symptomatic or if >5.5cm in diameter

445
Q

Severe pain in the abdomen and back is a characteristic of what

What does this lead to if unrecognised

A

Acute rupture of an abdominal aortic aneurysm

Severe blood loss meaning the mortality rate will be high

446
Q

What is at risk of being torn during surgery on the right kidney

A

The short renal vein

447
Q

What is a varicocele

What can a left sided varicocele indicate

A

A scrotal swelling caused by dilated veins

This may be a result of a left renal cell carcinoma as these may extend along the left renal vein and obstruct the left testicular vein which drains into it

448
Q

Radiotherapy of which lymph-node’s may be necessary in testicular cancer

A

Para aortic nodes

449
Q

Which nerve may be injured during open repair of an inguinal hernia

A

Ilioinguinal

450
Q

What may laparoscopic inguinal hernia repair result in

A

Tack Entrapment of the ilioinguinal nerve

451
Q

What is meralgia paraesthetica

What are common causes

A

Entrapment of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve as it passes through or below the inguinal ligament, leading to numbness or pain in the outer aspect of the thigh

Restrictive clothing and weight gain

452
Q

What is a calculus

A

A stone

453
Q

What may lead to referred pain in the lime, iliac fossa, and the penis

A

Ureteric colic due to passage of a stone down the ureter

454
Q

How can you tell at operation if something is a ureter

A

If lightly pinched, the year it is Will contract

455
Q

Name one kidney developmental abnormality and one ureteric

A

Renal cystic disease

Ureteric duplications

456
Q

What may cause a horseshoe kidney to form

What else can be caused by this

A

Defective Ascension or fusion of the metanephros

A pelvic kidney which people

457
Q

What causes a congenital diaphragmatic hernia

A

A Phalia of fusion of the various elements that form the diaphragm, with herniation of abdominal contents into the thorax