AANP EXAM NOTES 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Name 1 virus that triggers oral hairy leukoplakia

A

Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), HIV

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2
Q

A painless elongated white papilla/patch that appears corrugated located on the lateral aspects of the tongue is associated with what condition?

A

Oral hairy leukoplakia

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3
Q

How do you test for oral hairy leukoplakia?

A

HIV Enzyme Immunoassay (EIA) TEST

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4
Q

The study of how your genes respond (or do not respond) to a drug is known as …

A

Pharmacogenocics/pharmacogenetics:

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5
Q

What is the branch of pharmacology concerned with how a medication is absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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6
Q

What is the branch of genetics concerned with the way in which an individual’s genes affect the response to therapeutic drugs.

A

Pharmacogenomics

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7
Q

A long-term goal of pharmacogenomics is to

A

develop medicine that is individualized for a person’s genetic makeup

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8
Q

Anothergoal of pharmacogenomics is to test individual response to certain medications. T/F

A

TRUE

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9
Q

What condx presents soft, disklike non-tender, smooth breast tissue that is mobile under each nipple/areola?

A

Physiologic gynecomastia

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10
Q

Presbyopia: age related condx where visual changes occur d/t decreased ability of the eye to accommodate & focus d/t stiffening of the lenses. T/F

A

TRUE

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11
Q

Presbyopia usually starts at what age?

A

60

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12
Q

Presbyopia affects near/far vision?

A

Near

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13
Q

What condx results in age-related hearing loss r/t the aging process

A

Prebycusis

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14
Q

What condx affects 60% of African Americans that is caused by inflammation from curly hair growing back into the skin?

A

Pseudofolliculitis barbae

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15
Q

Pseudofolliculitis barbae is aka

A

Barber’s itch

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16
Q

What is the TX for Pseudofolliculitis barbae

A

Allow beard/hair to grow for 3-4 weeks, avoid shaving close to skin

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17
Q

What condx causes drooping of the upper eyelid

A

Ptosis

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18
Q

What condx cuases lung scarring and CXR may show cavitations in upper lobes?

A

Pulmonary TB

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19
Q

What causes Pulmonary TB?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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20
Q

What is the definition of Resistant HTN

A

CONTINUED HTN DESPITE USE OF AT LEAST 3 ANTIHYPERTENSIVE AGENTS

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21
Q

What condx is caused by chronic use (> 3days) of nasal decongestants

A

Rhinitis medicametosa

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22
Q

What condition causes a classic rash on both wrists and ankles that spreads centrally to palms and soles

A

Rocky Mtn Spotted Fever

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23
Q

Name an example of Theophylline

A

Theodur

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24
Q

Theophyllines can cause elevated theophylline levels. T/F

A

TRUE

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25
Q

Long term use of this drug can decrease bone mineral density & lead to osteoporosis

A

Levothyroxine

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26
Q

What therapy avoids eating large amt. of leafy green veg & cooking with canola.

A

o Anticoagulation therapy

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27
Q

Warfarin sodium is aka

A

Coumadin

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28
Q

Warfarin sodium (coumadin): Monitor INR for pt. with A fib (goal between 2 & 3) T/F

A

TRUE

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29
Q

Warfarin sodium (coumadin): Monitor INR for pt. with prosthetic heart valves (goal between 2.5 & 3.5). T/F

A

TRUE

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30
Q

PTs on ACE & ARBs should be monitored for serum K+ & serum creatinine when?

A

Baseline, within the 1st month, & periodically

31
Q

NSAIDS is a drug affected by kidney dx. T/F

A

TRUE

32
Q

PT on warfarin have a higher/lower incidence of over coagulation

A

Higher. (INR > 4). Check q 2 to 4 wks. up to q 12 weeks.

A fib/DVT/Stroke, CVA: target INR 2.0 to 3.0 (ideal 2.5)

33
Q

PTS on Warfarin with mechanical mitral valve: Lifelong anticoagulation, target INR: 2.5 to 3.5 (ideal 3.0). T/F

A

TRUE

34
Q

A PT with heart valve on Warfarin has INR of 8 with no significant bleeding. When should medication be discontinued?

A

NOW

35
Q

Warfarin is a VIT K antagonist that increases the risk of a GI ulceration. T/F

A

TRUE

36
Q

SUCRALFATE & CHOLESTYRAMINE may potentially increase/decrease INR?

A

Decrease INR

37
Q

Haldol has some safety issues. T/F

A

True

38
Q

Name 1 atypical antipsychotic

A

Risperidone (Risperdal)

39
Q

Risperidone has a high risk of wt gain, metabolic syndrome, type 2 DM. T/F

A

TRUE

40
Q

Risperidone PTs should have their weight monitored every …

A

3 months

41
Q

Bisphosphonates can cause erosive esophagitis. T/F

A

TRUE

42
Q

pt on Lincosamides such as Clindamycin (Cleocin) may have a higher risk of what?

A

CDAD clostridium difficile associated diarrhea

43
Q

Statins should not be mixed with what type of juice?

A

Grapefruit juice

44
Q

BPH can cause urinary retention. T/F

A

TRUE

45
Q

Pioglitazone (Actos) is used to treat?

A

Diabetes. Order LFT in about 2-3 mos

46
Q

What Black Box Warning applies to Actos

A

May cause CHF in some PTs (dont use class 3 or 4)

47
Q

What is the reversal agent/antidote for warfarin

A

VIT K

48
Q

WHAT IS THE REVERSAL AGENT/ANTIDOTE FOR HEPARIN

A

PROTAMINE SULFATE

49
Q

Do not prescribe Digoxin more than 0.125mg per day in older adults for tx of a fib/ heart failure. Why?

A

Risk for dig toxicity

50
Q

Name one reversal agent for Direct Oral Anticoagulants

A

Idarucizumab & andexanet alfa, FFP & prothrombin complex concentrate.

51
Q

What is an example of perceived severity in the health belief model?

A

Pt. replies that nothing will happen if they develop cancer, a cure will be discovered in their lifetime.

52
Q

Name top 3 causes of cancer death

A

Lung, breast, colon

53
Q

Cancer with highest rate of mortality/death

A

Lung

54
Q

Most common cancer

A

skin

55
Q

most common skin cancer

A

basal cell

56
Q

most common cancer in females

A

breast

57
Q

most common cancer in males

A

prostate

58
Q

Skin cancer with highest mortality

A

melanoma

59
Q

most common cancer in children (0-14)

A

Leukemia

60
Q

Leading cause of mortality birth - 12 mos

A

congenital malformation

61
Q

Leading cause of mortality age 1-44

A

unintentional injury

62
Q

Leading cause of mortality age 45-64

A

cancer

63
Q

Leading cause of mortality 65 and older

A

Heart dz

64
Q

Leading 3 causes of death in adolescents

A
  1. unintentional injury
  2. suicide
  3. homicide
65
Q

Most common GYN cancer

A

uterine/endometrial

66
Q

2nd most common gyn cancer

A

ovarian

67
Q

NORMAL BMI range

A

18.5 - 24.9

68
Q

Overweight BMI range

A

25-29.9

69
Q

Obese BMI range

A

30 - 39.9

70
Q

Grossly obese BMI range

A

> 40

71
Q

Child normal BMI range

A

> 5 to 85

72
Q

Overweight child BMI

A

85 - 95 or 20% above expected height

73
Q

Child OBESE BMI range

A

=> 95 or 50% above expected height

74
Q

Child GROSSLY OBESE Range

A

80-100% above expected height