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AANP EXAM > AANP EXAM NOTES 2 > Flashcards

AANP EXAM NOTES 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is movement going toward the body?

A

Adduction

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2
Q

Valguim is aka?

A

Adduction

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3
Q

Tx for Acute Coronary Syndrome should include what 4 medications
(unless contraindicated)

A

ACE, ASA, BETA Blocker, Statin

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4
Q

What DX test is gold standard for anemia?

A

Hemoglobin electrophoresis

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5
Q

What condx presents with chest pain precipitated by exertion and is relieved by rest?

A

Angina

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6
Q

What condx should be considered if chest pain is precipitated by exertion but NOT relieved by rest?

A

Unstable angina

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7
Q

Does physical activity aggravate or relieve angina?

A

Aggravate

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8
Q

What condition renders pt unable to experience pleasure from enjoyable activities (e.g., sex)?

A

Anhedonia

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9
Q

What condx describes a pt unable to name a familiar object?

A

Anomia

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10
Q

What medical term is used for painful shallow ulcers on soft tissue of the mouth?

A

Aphthous stomatitis (Canker Sores)

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11
Q

What is common TX for canker sores

A

Magic mouthwash

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12
Q

A PT with difficulty performing purposeful movements suffers from?

A

Apraxia

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13
Q

What is the measure of the bioavailability of a drug after it is administered?

A

Area under the curve

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14
Q

What is the CAGE mnemonic?

A

C: do you feel the need to cut down?
A: Are you annoyed when comments are made about your drinking
G: do you feel guilty about drinking?
E: Do you need a drink early in the AM

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15
Q

What condx describes muscle wasting or loss without fat loss?

A

Cachexia

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16
Q

Cachexia is associated with what condx?

A

Anorexia

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17
Q

What are 2 common side effect of Calcium channel Blockers?

A

Swollen ankles and HA

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18
Q

Nondihydropyridine CCB (e.g., verapamil, diltiazem) can worsen what 2 conditions?

A

Constipation, Cardiac output

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19
Q

Vaginal Candida is what consistency?

A

Curd-like

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20
Q

Candida White typically causes what 2 symptoms?

A

Redness and Itching

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21
Q

Will PTs with Candida White have a large or small number of WBC?

A

Large

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22
Q

Candida White PTs will often have “spaghetti and meatballs.” What does this mean?

A

Pseudohyphae & Spores

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23
Q

What is the test for Candida White?

A

PCR Vaginal swab

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24
Q

Mature squamous epithelial cells with numerous bacterial on the cell surface & borders associated with BV are called?

A

Clue cells

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25
Q

What is sticky, thick, yellowish fluid that comes before breast milk?

A

Colostrum

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26
Q

When is colostrum secreted?

A

First few days after birth

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27
Q

What does colostrum contain?

A

Large amount of maternal antibodies and nutrients

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28
Q

During GYN exam, a PAP test sample may also require co-testing of what virus?

A

HPV

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29
Q

CREEPING ERUPTION that consists of snake like wavy lines that are red in cololr is AKA?

A

Cutaneous larva migrans

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30
Q

What effect does bactericidal antibiotics have on bacteria?

A

Kills bacteria

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31
Q

Bacteriostatic antibiotics have what effect on bacteria?

A

Limit growth and replication

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32
Q

What condx presents with pearly, waxlike (shiny) telangiectasia, central ulceration?

A

Basal Cell Carcinoma

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33
Q

What age group does Beers criteria provide & what is the purpose?

A

Guidance for medications to avoid in elderly PT

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34
Q

What are 2 side effects of a Beta blocker?

A

Fatigue & depression

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35
Q

Pts with history of MI, HF should not be prescribed what?

A

Beta Blocker

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36
Q

The ability to read and understand but difficulty articulating words is aka? What type is this termed?

A

Broca’s aphasia (expressive aphasia)

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37
Q

The process of adjusting the dose of a medication down to minimum effective dosage or discontinueing the medication if it is no longer needed is aka?

A

Deprescribing

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38
Q

What term describes the misalignment of 1 or both eyes?

A

Esotropia

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39
Q

When a drug reaches the stomach, it goes to the small intestine, then to the portal circulation where it is metabolized by the Liver. This process is called?

A

First pass metabolism

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40
Q

Inside the liver, the cytochrome P450 (CYP450) system is responsible for what process?

A

Biotransformation

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41
Q

Biotransformation causes a drug to be?

A

metabolized

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42
Q

What are 3 common drugs that bypass the First pass metabolism?

A

Insulin, IV meds, vaginal gels/creams, transdermal patches

43
Q

Drug excretion occurs in what organ?

44
Q

Elderly PTS have an increase or decrease of drug excretion because of physiologic decline in glomerular filtration?

45
Q

What type of Damage causes dementia, memory loss/difficulties, inability to learn ?

A

Frontal Lobe damage

46
Q

What area of the brain is where intelligence, executive skills, logic, & personality reside?

A

Frontal Lobes

47
Q

What condx is characterized by multiple fissures, irregular smooth areas on surface of tongue, appears as topographic map?

A

Geographic Tongue

48
Q

What term describes the ability to identify figures “written” on skin with eyes closed?

A

Graphesthesia

49
Q

What mineral is most often associated with healthy bones and teeth

50
Q

Name 2 foods that are high in calcium

A

Low fat yogurt, cheese, milk, dairy

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51
Q

What mineral helps with osteopenia, osteoporosis, and helps decrease BP?

52
Q

Folic Acid is AKA

53
Q

What foods contain Folate?

A

Green leafy vegetables, breakfast cereals, liver

54
Q

What food helps decrease homocysteine (Vit B6 & Vit B12) levels and helps decease fetal neural tube defects?

55
Q

What mineral does the body needs for growth and development. It is also used to treat IDA.

56
Q

Name 2 foods that contain Iron

A

Red Meat (Beef), liver, black beans, black eyed peas

57
Q

What mineral helps to maintain normal nerve and muscle function, supports a healthy immune system, keeps the heartbeat steady by decreasing Bp & dialates blood vessels while also helping bones remain strong?

58
Q

Name 2 foods that contain Magnesium

A

Whole wheat, some nuts (peanuts, cashews, almonds), some beans

59
Q

Some laxatives, antacids, and milk of magnesia contain high levels of what mineral?

60
Q

Mono UNSATURATED fats/fatty acids can decrease the risk for what disease?

A

Heart disease

61
Q

Name 2 foods high in Mono UNSATURATED fats/fatty acids

A

Olive oil, some nuts, Sunflower seeds

62
Q

What type of diet is high in monounsaturated fats?

A

Mediteranean

63
Q

Potassium helps decrease …

64
Q

What 2 types of fat increases the risk for heart disease?

A

SATURATED Fats and Trans Fats

65
Q

What high amounts of mineral increases water retention in the body & increase in Bp?

66
Q

Name 3 foods high in sodium

A

Cold cuts, pickles, preserved food, canned food, hot dogs, chips

67
Q

Name 2 foods that are high in Vitamin K

A

green leafy vegetables, broccoli, cabbage

68
Q

A PT taking anticoagulants should control intake of what vitamin?

69
Q

What term describes the amount of time it takes for a drug concentration to reduce to half of its original dose?

70
Q

What contains a list of approved ultradiluted substances used in the US that is used as a refrence guide for products that are prescription vs OTC?

A

Homeopathic pharmacopoeia

71
Q

What condition does a PT have if he/she is farsighted and is the distant vision impaired or intact?

A

Hyperopia (distant vision is intact)

72
Q

What is the DX test for Hypertrophy of the atrium or ventricle?

A

Echocardiograph

73
Q

An allergy to eggs is/is not IgE mediated?

A

An allergy to eggs is NOT IgE mediated

74
Q

A PT with an IgA deficiency anemia is at high/low risk of reaction when receiving blood?

A

HIGH RISK OF REACTION

75
Q

What is Kyphosis?

A

A “C” shaped curvature of the spine

76
Q

A PT with an infection of unknown origin has what condx?

A

Leukocytosis

77
Q

A PT presents with slow growing white to grey plaque that has a firm to hard surface that is slightly raised on the tongue/inside the mouth (cheek). What is your diagnosis?

A

Leukoplakia

78
Q

Leukoplakia is considered what type of lesion?

A

Precancerous

79
Q

Leukoplakia can be caused by poor fitting dentures. T/F?

80
Q

Name 3 risk factors for oral cancer

A

Tobacco, alcohol, & HPV

81
Q

You diagnose a PT with Leukoplakia. What is your next step?

A

Refer for biopsy. The lesion may become malignant

82
Q

Statements in the pt. or family members own words is an example of what aspect of SOAP documentation?

A

Subjective

83
Q

Information obtained through physical exam, radiographic studies, lab results, or professional consults is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?

84
Q

Likely diagnosis, other testing that is needed, or determining whether a condition is emergent or not is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?

A

Assessment/diagnosis

85
Q

Initiating medication, education, & follow up is an example of which aspect of SOAP documentation?

A

Treatment Plan

86
Q

This condition presents with gait difficulty, cognitive disturbance & urinary incontinence. The CT will show enlarged ventricles.

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

87
Q

Are routine antibiotics recommended for dental procedures?

88
Q

AST/ ALT scores > 2 are strongly suggestive of what dz?

A

Alcoholic liver diz

88
Q

What are 2 effects of aspirin on platelets?

A

It is irreversible & lasts more than 10 days

89
Q

A decrease in the blood flow of the kidneys will cause the BUN to creatinine ratio to increase or decrease?

90
Q

If BUN levels are abnormal what lab should you check next ?

91
Q

What should the NP do if GFR is < 30 ml (stage 3 kidney failure)?

A

Refer to Nephrologist for possible dialysis.

92
Q

What is the best measure of renal function in primary care?

A

eGFR (normal > 90)

93
Q

eGFR defines chronic kidney dz as what?

A

< 60 ml x 3 months or longer

94
Q

This urine test evaluates proteinuria, albuminuria, & microalbuminuria. It is not affected by fluid status, diet or exercise.

A

Creatinine clearance (24 hr urine)

95
Q

This blood test is a better measure of renal function than a BUN or BUN/ Creatinine ratio & it is affected by age, gender, ethnicity (higher in African Americans).

A

Serum Creatinine

96
Q

As renal function decreases, what happens to the serum creatinine levels?

A

It increases

97
Q

If serum magnesium level falls < 1.5 what happens to the calcium levels?

98
Q

The BNP is elevated in what cardiac conditon?

A

Heart failure

99
Q

Inflammation, autoimmune dz., & heart failure will cause which lab to be elevated?

100
Q

The ESR is elevated in what 4 conditions?

A

Giant cell arteritis, RA, lupus, renal dz, & inflammation

101
Q

If PSA is > 10 what should the NP do?

A

Refer to urology for biopsy d/t increased risk of prostate cancer

102
Q

Increased in band forms (immature WBCs) cause what to occur d/t increased bacterial infection?

A

“Shift to the left”

AANP EXAM (8 decks)

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