AAFP Flashcards

1
Q

A child under 2 with fever, cyanosis, and any abnormal respiratory finding in the history or physical examination.
Dx?
Tx?

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae is one of the most common etiologies in this age group, and high-dose amoxicillin is the drug of choice.

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2
Q

At what age does the extrusion reflex (pushing foreign material out of the mouth with the tongue) go away in children?

A

4mo, so begin introducing solid food at 4-6mo

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3
Q

recommendation for the initial screening test for late-onset male hypogonadism.

A

Free testosterone

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4
Q

68-year-old African-American female with primary hypothyroidism is taking levothyroxine (Synthroid), 125 μg/day. Her TSH level is 0.2μU/mL (N 0.5–5.0). She has no symptoms of either hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism.

Which one of the following would be most appropriate at this point?

A

In a patient receiving levothyroxine, a low TSH level usually indicates overreplacement. If this occurs, the dosage should be reduced slightly.

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5
Q

A 40-year-old female obese nurse comes to your office with a 1-month history of right heel pain that she describes as sharp, searing, and severe. The pain is worst when she first bears weight on the foot after prolonged sitting and when she gets out of bed in the morning. It gets better with continued walking, but worsens at the end of the day.
Dx and tx?

A

Dx - plantar faciitis

Tx - OTC heel inserts

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6
Q

Tx for HSV-1

A

acyclovir

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7
Q

Most sensitive test for ACL injury

Test used to detect meniscal injury

A

Lachman

McMurray

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8
Q

Diabetic polyneuropathy is characterized by what type of sensory and motor deficits?

A

Symmetric and distal limb sensory and motor deficits

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9
Q

What may be secondary to diabetes mellitus, but is manifested by numbness and paresthesia over the anterolateral thigh with no motor dysfunction.

A

Meralgia paresthetica, or lateral femoral cutaneous neuropathy

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10
Q

causes pain in the legs, but is not associated with the neurologic signs or with knee problems.

A

Spinal stenosis

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11
Q

What is a relatively common complication of diabetes mellitus, may produce intermittent claudication involving one or both calf muscles but would not produce the motor weakness noted in this patient.

A

Iliofemoral atherosclerosis

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12
Q

Women who use low-dose estrogen oral contraceptives have a 50% lower risk of cancer of the ___

A

ovary

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13
Q

A woman over 50 with pain and stiffness in the shoulder and pelvic girdle. 4%–13% of patients with this have a normal erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR). As many as 5% of patients initially have a normal ESR that later rises.
A variety of systemic symptoms. Fever is common, with temperatures as high as 39°C (102°F) along with night sweats. Additional symptoms include depression, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, and weight loss.
What is the dx and tx?

A

Dx - polymyalgia rheumatica

Tx - CS

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14
Q

hallmark biochemical feature of refeeding syndrome is __

A

hypophosphatemia

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15
Q

Valsalva maneuver will typically cause the intensity of a systolic murmur to increase in patients with which one of the following conditions?

A

Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

The Valsalva maneuver decreases venous return to the heart, thereby decreasing cardiac output. This causes most other murmurs to decrease in length and intensity. The murmur of hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy, however, increases in loudness. The murmur of mitral valve prolapse becomes longer, and may also become louder.

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16
Q

A 12-year-old male presents with left hip pain. He is overweight and recently started playing tennis to lose weight. He says the pain started gradually after his last tennis game, but he does not recall any injury. He is walking with a limp. On examination he is afebrile and has limited internal rotation of the left hip.

MC hip disorder in this age group?

A

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

17
Q

Best test for dx of COPD

A

spirometry - the pressure of outflow obstruction that is not fully reversible is demonstrated by postbronchodilator spirometry showing an FEV1/FVC ratio of 70% or less.

18
Q

A 20-year-old female asks you whether she should have a colonoscopy, as her father was diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 58. There are no other family members with a history of colon polyps or cancer.

You recommend that she have her first screening colonoscopy

A

at age 40 and then every 5 years

OR 10 years before earlies age at which affected relative dx

19
Q

What classifies a high risk group for colorectal cancer?

A

one 1st degree relative dx w/ colorectal ca or adenomatous polypos before 60y

OR

two 2nd degree relative with colorectal ca

20
Q

Hydralazine, procainamide, and quinidine all cause what lung problem?

A

lupus pleuritis

21
Q

adenosine, digoxin, and CaCB should not be given to W-P-W syndrome bc…?

what is the DoC?

A

block conduction through the AVnode, which may increase the ventricular rate paradoxically, initiating ventricular fibrillation.

procainamide or amiodarone

22
Q
Which one of the following is contraindicated in the second and third trimesters of pregnancy? 
 A. Amoxicillin 
 B. Azithromycin (Zithromax) 
 C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) 
 D. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) 
 E. Doxycycline
A

doxycycline - teeth discoloration

23
Q

You have just diagnosed mild persistent asthma in a 13-year-old African-American female. Along with patient education, your initial medical management should be

A

Low Dose-CS daily and SABA prn

24
Q

What three things should pts (i.e. for RA) be screened for before starting on monoclonal antibody class (infliximab, adalimumab, certolizumab pegol, and golimumab)

A

TB, Hep B, Hep C

25
Q
Metformin (Glucophage) should be stopped prior to which one of the following, and withheld until 48 hours after completion of the test?  
 A. An upper GI series 
 B. Abdominal ultrasonography 
 C. CT angiography 
 D. MRI of the brain 
 E. Colonoscopy
A

C - a temporary reduction in renal function, such as occurs after pyelography or angiography, can cause lactic acidosis in patients taking metformin, the drug should be discontinued 48 hours before such procedures (SOR C) and restarted 48 hours after the procedure if renal function is normal.

26
Q

Nursing home–acquired pneumonia (fever, difficulty breathing, and a cough productive of purulent sputum. O2 sat 86%.

Tx (three)

A

Ceftazidime, levofloxacin (anti pseudomonal), and vancomycin (anti MRSA)

27
Q

is fluoxetine or paroxetine safe for preg?

A

fluoxetine

28
Q

____ is indicated for the treatment of severe osteoporosis, for patients with multiple osteoporosis risk factors, or for patients with failure of bisphosphonate therapy

A

Teriparatide

29
Q

Recommended age ranges for M v F in aspirin use

A

M: 45-79
F: 55-79

30
Q

CBC reveals a mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia with RBC poikilocytosis, but is otherwise normal. The RBC distribution width is also elevated.
Of the following, the most appropriate next step would be to:

A

oral iron supplementation

31
Q

3 day old infant who does not appear to be irritable or in distress, and she is afebrile and feeding well. On examination, abnormal findings are confined to the skin, including her face, trunk, and proximal extremities, which have macules, papules, and pustules that are all 2–3 mm in diameter.

A

Erythema toxicum neonatorum

32
Q

Colonoscopy screening:

  • Normal interval:
  • Patients with one or two small tubular adenomas:
  • Patients with three or more tubular adenomas:
A
  • Normal interval: 10 years
  • Patients with one or two small tubular adenomas (5–10 years)
  • Patients with three or more tubular adenomas (3 years)
33
Q

primary treatment for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse is ____

A

primary treatment for symptomatic mitral valve prolapse is β-blockers (olol)

34
Q

Acetazolamide v. dexamethasone in preventing altitude sickness

A
  • Acetazolamide contraindicated in sulfa drug allergy

- Dexamethasone is not contraindicated.

35
Q

penicillins, cephalosporins, and sulfonamides, are the most common drug-related cause of what kidney injury?

A

acute interstitial nephritis