Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Masterery > A-Procedures > Flashcards

A-Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between the Flight Duty Period (FDP) and the Duty Period (DP)?

A

FDP: Check in - Block on
DP: Check in - Check out or free of all duties

FDP is only relevant when acting as operating crew. DP is always relevant (operating crew, dead head crew, etc.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Concerning FTL limitations, what is the difference between an “accommodation” and a “suitable accommodation”

A

A suitable accommodation provides a separate room for each crew member with a bed, in example an hotel room

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which duties are considered night duties?

A

Duties encroaching any period between 02:00 -04:59 in the time the crew is acclimatized to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is considered a local day / local night?

A

A local day means a 24 hours period commencing at 00:00 LT.

A local night means a period of 8 hours falling between 22:00 and 08:00 local time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

May the standard reporting time of 60 minutes be reduced?

A

Yes, it can.

It can be reduced to 45 minutes:

  • For exceptional circumstances (e.g ferry flight)
  • For positioning flights prior to an operating flight
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the requirements for the use of extension of the maximum daily FDP

A
  • Not more than twice in any 7 consecutive days
    a) the minimum pre-flight and post-flight rest periods shall be increased by 2 hours; or
    b) the post-flight rest period shall be increased by 4 hours.

Extensions shall be planned in advance and shall be limited to 5 sectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is a delayed reporting (Official delay of CI time) possible:

A
  • Always, if the notification is acknowledged by the crew member 90 minutes before reporting time.
  • Between 90 minutes and 60 minutes, only if the crew member acknowledges from his place of rest

-Notification has to be performed earliest, when the minimum rest time preceding the duty, latest one hour prior to the last planned and acknowledged reporting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When a delayed reporting is applied, how is the maximum FDP calculated?

A

When the delay is less than 4 hours, the maximum FDP is calculated based on the original reporting time and the FDP starts counting at the delayed reporting time.

When the delay is 4 hours or more, the maximum FDP is calculated based on the more limiting of the original or the delayed reporting time and the FDP starts counting at the delayed reporting time.

When the crew member is informed of a delay of 10 hours or more in reporting time and the crew member is not further disturbed, such delay of 10 hours or more counts as a rest period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In case a delayed reporting is further amended, how is the FDP calculated?

A

If the reporting time is further amended, the FDP starts counting 1 hour after the second notification or at the original delayed reporting time if this is earlier;

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the key elements of a “Split Duty”?

A
  • The break has a minimum duration of 3 hours.
  • The minimum time for post- and preflight duties is 1 hour (minimum ground time 4 hours)
  • Maximum FDP may be extended by 50% of x the break
  • Accommodation or in some cases suitable accommodation is provided
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The concept of “Awake Time” is to avoid that a a combination from standby and FDP supersedes 18 hours. From which time is the “Awake time” calculated

A

During 23:00 and 07:00 of the crew members reference time a crew member is considered awake at the time of the call from standby. During all other times the crew member is considered awake with the planned start of standby, however earliest from 07:00.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Standby ceases when the crew member reports at the designated reporting point. How does the standby time count according max FDP?

A

If standby ceases within the first 6 hours, the maximum FDP counts from reporting.If standby ceases after the first 6 hours, the maximum FDP is reduced by the amount of standby time exceeding 6 hours. if standby starts between 23:00 and 07:00, the time between 23:00 and 07:00 does not count towards the reduction of the FDP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When accepting a Duty out of Standby, there are two additional facts that have to be taken into account for correct calculation of max FDP. Which facts are those?

A

1) Awake Time

2) Hours of standby preceding the reporting time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How long is the minimum rest period at home base?

A

The minimum rest period provided before undertaking an FDP starting at home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 12 hours, whichever is greater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How long is the minimum rest period away from home base?

A

The minimum rest period provided before undertaking an FDP starting away from home base shall be at least as long as the preceding duty period, or 10 hours, whichever is greater. This period shall include an 8-hour sleep opportunity in addition to the time for travelling and physiological needs.

Note: The time allowed for physiological needs is 1 hour. Consequently, if the travelling time to the suitable accommodation is more than 30 minutes, the rest period is increased by twice the amount of difference of travelling time above 30 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For how long may the commander extend the maximum daily FDP under unforeseen circumstances?

A

If not applying extended FDP 2 hours. If applying extended FDP 1 hour.

If on the final sector within an FDP the allowed increase is exceeded because of unforeseen circumstances after take-off, the flight may continue to the planned destination or alternate aerodrome; and the rest period following the FDP may be reduced but can never be less than 10 hours.

The commander shall consult all crew members on their alertness levels before deciding the modifications.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When has an aircraft to be sealed?

A

Aircraft parked at airports outside of the EU member states (except Switzerland, Norway and Iceland): For longer periods of time (e.g. night stops) and without staff at or in the aeroplane must be sealed and access aids removed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If an aircraft has to be sealed, to rule out any manipulation, the commander will hand over the sealing list to responsible handling agent. Which doors have to be sealed?

A
  • Passenger Door 1L
  • Passenger Door 3L and service door 1R / 3R only if equipment is left at the aeroplane which make doors accessible
  • fwd. avionic compartment
  • lateral RH avionic compartment
  • lateral LH avionic compartment (Z812)
  • aft. Avionic compartment (Z824)
  • Cargo Holds / Bulk Cargo Hold

Per door two seals: One on frame, one on door handle
Per avionics door: Two in flight direction (door handle has not to be sealed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

If the operating crew founds a broken seal what is the correct tasksharing?

A
  • Inform OCC

- Perform a Security Check

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

When has a security check to be performed?

A
  • Before a flight departs from a non EU country (exception Norway, Switzerland, Iceland) including UK
  • Flights arriving from non EU country
  • If there is a reason to believe that unauthorized persons may have had access to the aeroplane
  • When an aircraft has been in deep storage

The search can begin once all service providers (e.g. caterers, maintenance staff, cleaners) have left the respective area(s).
Only within the EU, the search can begin even if service providers are still present in respective area(s).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

May a bag be transported without the respective passenger onboard?

A

Passenger baggage (except rush baggage) may only be transported if the respective passenger is on board as well. Exceptions are allowed according to the European legislation. The OCC in consultation with EW Group Security is entitled to decide whether these exceptions can be applied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

May a sporting weapon be transported with EWE?

A

Sporting weapons shall be stowed in the aeroplane, in case of firearms unloaded, in a place, which inaccessible to passengers during flight. Weapons and ammunition may be loaded in the same compartment, provided the PIC is informed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are armed bodyguards allowed under EWE operation?

A

National regulations, EASA OPS and ICAO guidelines all state that in principle, it is prohibited to take weapons or other dangerous objects onto aircraft.

Exceptions to this can be permitted by the Austrian Ministry of Transport or Ministry of the Interior if a need for this is specifically set out and valid licenses to carry firearms in Austria exist under weapons law.

24
Q

What is the correct tasksharing when offloading a passenger?

A

Within EU member states:
• shall check that the passenger has not left anything behind

Outside of the EU member states:

• A Transit Security Search has to be performed.

25
Q

When has latest the flight deck door to be closed?

A

The flight deck door must be closed at latest after closure of last external passenger door.

26
Q

During cruise the flight crew member would like to return to the cockpit? What is the correct procedure?

A

Notify the cabin crew to occupy the galley or to open the curtain after cockpit entry.

27
Q

If the cabin would like to enter the cockpit during flight, which tasksharing should they follow?

A
  • Check cockpit door entrance area/fwd galley and lavatory in cockpit door entrance area - no unauthorized persons
  • Close curtains if appl.
  • Enter normal entry request/ door code
28
Q

If one pilot wants to go to the toilet, what is the correct tasksharing?

A
  • Check cockpit door entrance area/ fwd galley with CVSS

- Minimize time when cockpit door is open

29
Q

What are the procedures in case of threat of hijacking on ground before takeoff?

A
  • Do not take off.
  • Return to apron without informing passengers of the real reason - this may aggravate a potential hijacker to take action.
30
Q

What are the procedures in case of threat of hijacking inflight?

A
  • Maintain control of the flight deck under all circumstances
  • Select transponder code 7500 = Hijack
  • Keep seat belt signs on
  • Avoid overflying of densely populated areas, factories, stadiums or power plants
  • Do not fly aggressive manoeuvres or depressurize the aeroplane
  • Instructions from official centres/ATC (Air Traffic Control) must be complied with
  • Inform ATC about situations inside the cabin
31
Q

Level 2

What are the procedures in case of threat of hijacking on ground after landing?

A
  • “Return to Ramp”
  • Set the landing flaps and spoilers to the usual position in the event of an evacuation. By doing this, two aims are achieved:
    • You are prepared for an evacuation of the cabin via the wings.
    • Entrance points to the cabin are clear should an attempt be made to gain armed access from outside.
32
Q

What is considered a Level 1 threat level?

A

Level 1 describes:

  • Disruptive behavior due to alcohol. drugs, etc.
  • offensive language
  • body language
33
Q

How shall the flight crew react in case of a Level 1 Threat Level on ground or in flight?

A

On ground:

  • Decide on deboarding the passenger
  • If deboarding is decided organize deboarding (ATC, police, ramp agent, etc.)

In flight:

  • Decide on requirement of handcuffs
  • Make a PA announcement
34
Q

What is considered a Level 2 threat level?

A

Level 2 involves:
-Physical abuse (grabbing, pushing, slapping, kicking)
Deliberate damage to property

35
Q

How shall the flight crew react in case of a Level 2 Threat Level on ground or in flight?

A

On ground:

  • Decide on deboarding the passenger
  • If deboarding is decided organize deboarding (ATC, police, ramp agent, etc.)

In flight:

  • Decide on requirement of handcuffs
  • Make a PA announcement
  • If required divert to suitable aerodrome
36
Q

What is considered a Level 3 threat level?

A

Level 3 are considered actions that created fear of imminent death such as:

  • Use of weapons
  • Physical or sexual assault
37
Q

How shall the flight crew react in case of a Level 3/4 Threat Level on ground or in flight?

A

On ground:

  • Inform all parties (ATC, ground personal, authority, etc)
  • Make appropriate PA announcement when necessary
  • Either park the aeroplane as directed, or block the aeroplane in a manner, that the use is impossible
  • In case an explosive device is found or suspected, consider an evacuation of the aeroplane
  • Whenever possible disable the aeroplane prior leaving the flight deck

In Flight:
-Inform all parties (ATC, ground personal, authority, etc)
-Make appropriate PA announcement when necessary
-If explosives found, follow bomb on board procedure
-Expect interception by military aeroplane
-Monitor frequency 121.5 MHz
-Follow intercept procedures
-If required:
• declare emergency
• squawk A750
• land at nearest suitable aerodrome

38
Q

What is considered a Level 4 threat level?

A

A level 4 threat is an attempt to actual break into the flight deck

39
Q

Under which circumstances can handcuffs be taken off again?

A

The handcuffs should not in principle be taken back off again. The only exceptions to this are if the passenger suffers a heart attack, or in the event of ditching in water.

40
Q

What can a commander during an escalation scenario decide upon to prevent direct access to the cockpit?

A

The CZ will be determined by the commander in an escalation scenario to prevent direct access to the cockpit door. This CZ may not be entered by other persons than active crew members. Access to clear zone must be controlled by the active crew. For this reason, the blocking of the CZ entrance with trolleys or other suitable means is recommended.

41
Q

How should the flight crew react in case they are informed about a possible bomb on board on ground?

A
  • “Purser to the interphone” (NITS)
  • Return to ramp
  • Disembark passengers immediately. They must be requested to take their entire cabin baggage with them.
  • An evacuation of the aeroplane will be initiated by the commander only if deemed necessary according to the prevailing circumstances.
  • If it is not possible to get back to the terminal or to a bus, the crew should use megaphones to gather passengers together at least 200 meters upwind of the aircraft.

If slides are used, passengers should leave their hand luggage on board.

42
Q

How should the flight crew react in case they are informed about a possible bomb on board in flight?

A

Two cases shall be observed. If the bomb warning is received:
• with information on the bomb location, the commander has to decide on the handling of the device when found and whether passengers should be informed.
• without information on the bomb location, the commander, with regard to the circumstances (e.g. remaining flight time, remaining fuel, particulars of the warning), must decide on carrying out an inflight bomb search and on information of the passengers (since passengers will be asked to identify their own hand baggage). The in-flight bomb search, depending on type of aeroplane, may take between 60 and 90 minutes. If it is not possible to perform a bomb search, the commander may decide not to inform the passengers in order to avoid a panic.

After landing, which shall be performed without cabin preparation for an emergency, and after reaching the parking position, passengers shall be requested to leave the aeroplane via stairs and to take all their hand baggage with them. The impression of an emergency should be avoided.
If a bomb or a suspicious article is found, or the commander considers a disembarkation via stairs is inappropriate (e.g. stairs are not brought within an acceptable period of time), then a “controlled disembarkation” should take place, preferably using stairs.
If it is not possible to disembark via stairs, then the controlled disembarkation must take place using slides. The commander will decide which doors/slides are to be used in consultation with the purser and ground staff.

43
Q

When transporting a passenger that requires medical oxygen, what has to be clarified inches first level:

A

As a first level, the type of medical oxygen apparatus has to be clarified:

  • Liquid oxygen (Forbidden for transport)
  • Compresses gas (Containing gas cylinders under pressure) (Max 5 kg ok)
  • CPAP (Continues Positive Airway Pressure) POC (Portable Oxygen Concentrator) (If equipped with batteries clarify if batteries can be transported)
44
Q

When transporting batteries, what has to be clarified inches first level:

A

As a first level the type of batteries have to be clarified:

  • Dry cell batteries, e.g. Alkaline (No restriction)
  • Non spillage wet batteries (For wheelchair no restrictions if properly secured)
  • Spillable wet batteries (Forbidden for transport)
  • Lithium battery (Handling depends on power (Lithium ion) or weight (Lithium metal)
45
Q

How can batteries be protected against short circuits?

A
  • Putting the battery individually in a plastic bag
  • Separate or pack the batteries in a manner to prevent contact with other batteries.
  • Attach covers to protect terminals
46
Q

When using the table Provisions for Dangerous Goods carried by passenger to examine if a certain battery type can be transported, which categories are used?

A
  • Spare low power lithium ion (max 100Wh) lithium metal batteries (2g)
  • Installed low power lithium ion (max 100Wh) lithium metal batteries (2g)
  • Installed lithium ion batteries (medium power) (100Wh-160Wh)
  • Installed lithium Metal Batteries to Power Medical Electronic Devices (PMED) (medium power) (2g-8g)
  • Spare lithium ion batteries, spare / loose (medium power)(100Wh-160Wh)
  • Spare lithium Metal Batteries to Power Medical Electronic Devices (PMED), spare / loose (medium power) (2g-8g)
  • Lithium Batteries powering Mobility Aids (wheelchairs, etc.) (High Power)
  • Removed lithium ion batteries from Mobility Aids (High Power)
  • Non Spillable Batteries to power Mobility Aids)
47
Q

In case of a ferry flight which tasks have to be accomplished by the flight crew?

A
  • Crewmember for door handling, assign
  • Preflight- / emergency check perform (Use CPC)
  • Galley equipment & baggage secure
  • Water, waste and catering
  • Aircraft Security Search perform, our required (Use Security Check in Cockpit)
48
Q

If passengers are being transported during a ferry flight where should they be seated?

A

Passengers during a ferry flight should be seated in the foremost part of the cabin.

49
Q

If during a ferry flight the door has to be set in park by the flight crew, it is important to consider the 5 signals to open the door. Which are they?

A

1) The aircraft has reached its final parking position;
2) The engines have been shut down;
3) The doors are in “Park” mode;
4) The FSS are switched OFF;
5) Ground staff has knocked from outside.

50
Q

During a ferry flight which door have to be armed?

A

Arming of at least the two forward passenger doors (1L and 1R set to “flight”) is required.

51
Q

Now many infant can be seated per seat row / segment?

A

1 per seat segment and seat row. In exceptional cases 2 infants per seat row.

There are 4 oxygen mask available per seat segment.

52
Q

What are the minimum visual references that are required to continue an approach below the applicable minimum for CAT 1 approach?

A

One lightning element (even VASI/PAPI applies)

53
Q

What are the minimum visual references that are required to continue an approach below the applicable minimum for CAT 2 approach?

A

At least 3 consecutive lights, including a lateral element (approach light crossbar, landing threshold or a barrette of the touchdown zone light)

54
Q

What are the minimum visual references that are required to continue an approach below the applicable minimum for CAT III A approach?

A

A segment of at least 3 consecutive lights.

55
Q

What are the minimum visual references that are required to continue an approach below the applicable minimum for CAT IIIB with DH approach?

A

One centerline light.

56
Q

You have been assigned a flight with an A320 flight to an airport which is forecasted to be contaminated at the time of arrival.Therefore a dispatch landing distance has to be performed. Which conditions have to be assumed for the calculation?

A

For the dispatch landing calculation it shall be assumed that:

(1) the aeroplane will land on the most favourable runway, in still air; or
(2) the aeroplane will land on the runway most likely to be assigned considering the probable wind speed and direction, the ground handling characteristics of the aeroplane and other conditions such as landing aids and terrain.

Note: If unable to comply with point (1) for a destination aerodrome where the appropriate weather reports or forecasts indicate that the runway at the estimated time of arrival may be contaminated and where a landing depends upon a specific wind component, the aeroplane shall only be dispatched if two alternate aerodromes are designated.

Masterery (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions