A+E Flashcards

1
Q

GCS?

A

654 MoVE

Eye opening
4. Spontaneous
3. To speech
2. To pain
1. None

Verbal response
5. Orientated
4. Confused
3. Words
2. Sounds
1. None

Motor response
6. Obeys commands
5. Localises to pain
4. Withdraws from pain
3. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
2. Extending to pain
1. None

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2
Q

Acute pulmonary oedema initial Mx

A

Sit up, IV loop diuretic

Can also give oxygen and or vasodilators if clinically approrpiate

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3
Q

Tension pthx Mx

A

Immediate needle decompression

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4
Q

How to decide whether to give acetylcysteine when u have g of paracetamol

A

Divide mg of paracetamol by their weight in KG

If above 150 then give

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5
Q

What is the adrenaline dose in anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest

A

Anaphylaxis= 0.5mg= 0.5ml 1:1000- give IM

CA= 1mg= 1ml 1:1000 IV- give IV

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6
Q

Which blood test to confirm anaphylaxis

A

Serum mast cell tryptase

Rises following an acute episode

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7
Q

How do you manage someone having a cardiac arrest (e.g. VT) when they’re already hooked up to a monitor

A

Up to three successive shocks

Looks like the type of CA doesn’t matter here

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8
Q

How to manage alcoholic ketoacidosis

A

IV 0.9% NaCl

IV thiamine also which prevents Wernicke’s encephalopathy

Ketones in urine as they are made as a byproduct of fat metabolism (due to starved body)

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9
Q

What GCS to intubate

A

Less than 8- intubate

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10
Q

How would a patient present in VF

A

VF causes immediate loss of consciousness and requires resuscitation

Life-threatening arrhythmia leading to cardiac arrest

In contrast in torsades des pointes they may be conscious with an irregular pulse and neurological Sx and palpitations

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11
Q

Commonest viral cause of encephalitis and meningitis

A

Encephalitis = HSV 1

Meningitis = Enterovirus e.g. Coxsackie B virus)

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12
Q

How to assess someone with major trauma

A

C-ABC

normal abcde but with C-spine/ catastrophic haemorrhage first

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13
Q

What type of cells to give in major haemorrhage

A

Red cells
fresh frozen plasma

Give these in a ratio of 1:1

And then give 1 unit of platelets for every 4 units of the other two

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14
Q

Trauma triad of death

A

Coagulopathy leads to increased lactic acid in blood leading to acidosis

Acidosis leads to decreased heart performance which leads to low body temperature

Low body temp leads to decreased coagulation which leads to coagulopathy

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15
Q

Definitive management for theophylline toxicity

A

Haemodialysis

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16
Q

How does oesophageal perforation present

A

Boerhaave syndrome

Perforation due to forceful vomiting

Triad of:
- vomiting
- severe retrosternal chest pain radiating to the back
- subcutaneous emphysema (suprasternal crepitus)

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17
Q

What are thiazolidinediones e.g. pioglitazone CI in heart failure

A

Can cause peripheral oedema

Also can cause weight gain, liver impairment and bladder cancer

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18
Q

Epididymo-orchitis management if unknown organism

A

Single dose IM ceftriaxone and 10-14 days of doxycycline

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19
Q

Which travel disease presents with two phases with remission in between

A

Yellow fever
‘It can present very quickly with non-specific symptoms and it has an incubation period of 2-14 days

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20
Q

Which antibiotic to give in MRSA

A

Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Linezolid

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21
Q

What CSF results in subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Do it hours (6?) after CT scan

Bilirubin in the CSF (xanthchromia)
And normal/ raised opening pressure

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22
Q

Anterior middle and posterior cerebral artery stroke what presentation

A

Leg weakness pretty much only on the contralateral side

Middle cerebral artery causes more arm symptoms as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia

Posterior cerebral artery causes contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing (no limb involvement?)

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23
Q

How many doses of IV Loraz can you give in status epilepticus

A

2 doses! Usually of 4mg

After that give a second-line e.g. levetiracetam or sodium valproate or phenytoin

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24
Q

How does investigation change in epididymoorchitis change depending on age

A

Younger men more likely to be chlamydia so arrange urine sample for NAAT

In older men more likely to be enteric E.coli so arrang mid-stream sample for microscopy and culture

Obvs do NAAT test if likely in history

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25
Facial pain/sensory symptoms vs facial paralysis which stroke type
Posterior inferior cerebellar artery = facial PAIN / sensory Sx AICA is facial paralysis and deafness
26
Which valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis in IVDU
Tricuspid valve
27
Most common complication after bacterial meningitis
Sensorineural hearing loss In 34% of cases
28
What electrolyte imbalance does LMWH cause
Hyperkalaemia Due to inhibition of aldosterone
29
First line management of acute pericarditis
NSAID and colchicine
30
SVCO management
Endovascular stenting provides symptoms relief Glucocorticoids evidence base is weak but often given
31
Antifreeze (ethylene glycol) toxicity management
Fomepizole Flumanezil for benzos
32
Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy mx
Depends on severity Amiodarone Beta blockers Cerdioverter defib implanted to protect those at risk of sudden death Dual chamber pacemaker Endocarditis prophylaxis? Surgical myomectomy
33
What is total amount of atropine you give in bradycardia
3mg Give in 500mcg doses
34
Global T wave inversion cause
Non cardiac cause Think brain
35
What is Cushing triad and what is it a sign of
Bradycardia, hypertensive and tachypnoeic (signs of cheyne-stokes breathing) also widened pulse pressure Sign of high intracranial pressure think brain herniation CSB is progressively deeper breathing then shallow breathing then temporary apnoea
36
Which t2dm meds cause hypos
NOT metformin SGLT-2i e.g. Flozins CAN NOT pioglitazone Gliclazide (sulphonylureas) CAN NOT DPP-4i e.f. Gliptins So only flozins and gliclazide can
37
Which t2dm meds cause hypos
NOT metformin SGLT-2i e.g. Flozins CAN NOT pioglitazone Gliclazide (sulphonylureas) CAN NOT DPP-4i e.f. Gliptins So only flozins and gliclazide can
38
How do the different T2DM meds affect weight
Metformin = weight loss SGLT-2i e.g. Flozins= weight loss Pioglitazone = weight gain Gliclazide (sulphonylureas) = weight gain GLP-1 mimetics e.g. exenatide = weight loss So metformin and SGLT-2i cause weight loss
39
Unique side effect profile of SGLT-2i
Glycosuria UTI Genital infections Lower limb amputations Fournier gangrene Weight loss DKA
40
Unique side effects profile of glitazones
Weight gain Heart failure Bone fractures Bladder cancer
41
Unique side effect profile of gliclazide
Weight gain Hypoglycaemia
42
Unique side effect profile of DPP-4i
E.g. gliptins Headaches Low risk of acute pancreatitis
43
Unique side effect profile of GLP-1 mimetics
E.g. exenatide Reduced appetite Weight loss GI symptoms s Pancreatitis
44
Unique side effect profile of GLP-1 mimetics
E.g. exenatide Reduced appetite Weight loss GI symptoms s
45
Unique side effect profile of metformin
GI symptoms Lactic acidosis (AKI) Weight loss NOT hypos
46
When to do an LP when suspecting SAH
only do if CT head has been done more than 6 hours after symptom onset LP must be done at least 12 hours after sx onset If this is negative think about other diagnoses Don’t do one in positive CT
47
Anal fistula investigation
Pelvic MRI To characterize the fistula course
48
how to manage a massive PE with hypotension
thrombolyse with e.g. alteplase
49
anti-thrombotic therapy for TIA patients at different phases of the condition
in first 24 hours when TIA sx have resolved and waiting for specialist review = aspirin after specialist review before 21 days post TIA= aspirin AND clopidogrel due to high risk of further events long-term after 21 days = just clopidogrel note if they have AF they should be anticoagulated asap once haemorrhage has been excluded.
50
which valvular abnormality is associated with polycystic kidney disease
mitral valve prolapse can present with mid-systolic click or late systolic murmur
51
two options for treatment of critical limb ischaemia
endovascular revascularization = angioplasty with stenting. used in high-risk pts or short stenosis <10cm surgical revascularisation= open bypass graft. used in low-risk pts or long stenosis >10cm
52
53
5 indications for a chest drain in pneumothorax
BUSH-50 Bilateral ptx Underlying lung disease Significant hypoxia Haemodynamic compromise (tension) >50 yrs with significant smoking history
54
How to diagnosis myasthenia gravis
Antibody screen Against acetylcholine receptors
55
How to manage thrombosed hemorrhoids
If presents <72 hours after symptom onset then analgesia and referral for excision If >72 hours then stool softeners, ice packs and analgesia
56
Which 3 anti-epileptics can u give in status epileticus when no response to benzos
Levetiracetam Phenytoin Sodium Valproate
57
Severe hyperkalaemia management
IV calcium gluconate and insulin/ dextrose infusion Severe is classed as either K+>6.5 or ECG changes
58
How to treat aspirin overdose
IV sodium bicarbonate
59
Lithium toxicity first line Tx
IV saline
60
Which drug d you give in subarachnoid hemorrhage to prevent vasospasm
Nimodipine a CCB
61
Which vessels are affected in a subdural hemorrhage
Bridging veins
62
What to give in hepatic encephalopathy to reduce ammonia levels a
Lactulose
63
What is the preferred antithyroid medication during pregnancy
In first trimester it is propylthiouracil In 2nd and 3rd it is carbimazole