A/12-15 CELLULAR ADAPTATION TO STRESS, REGENERATION, WOUND HEALING (Leiel) Flashcards

1
Q

Define hypertrophy

A

Is an increase in the size of cells (which leads to an increase in the size of the organ) there are no new cells in hypertrophy, just the cells become bigger due to increased amount of structural proteins and organelles.

This is to be distinguished from hyperplasia, in which there is an increase in the cell number.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What may trigger hypertrophy?

A

The 2 processes occur as a response to either

  • Mechanical trigger (increase in the functional demand)
  • Trophic trigger (hormonal stimulation).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What determines if a cell responds with an hypertrophy or hyperplasia?

A
  • If a cell is incapable of dividing (striated muscle of skeletal and cardiac muscle) then it responds with an hypertrophy
  • If a cell is capable of replication it will go through hyperplasia.

Hypertrophy and hyperplasia can also occur together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When is hypertrophy a physiologic and when is it a pathologic process?

A

Physiologic:

  • Due to exercise (increase in the functional demand)
  • Due to hormonal effect: Hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the uterus during pregnancy (estrogen), breast during lactation (estrogen, prolactin).

Pathologic:

  • hypertrophy of the heart due to hypertension or aortic valve stenosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Cardiac hypertrophy pathogenesis

A

Cardiac myocytes are incapable of dividing.

Trophic stimulisignal transduction pathway → induction of number of genes → synthesis of proteins and myofillaments → increase muscle mass and performance.

  • There might be a change in the type of the contracticle protein: alpha myosin heavy chain is replaced by beta myosin heavy chain which is slower and more energetically economical contraction.
  • The extent of the hypertrophy varies with the underlying cause, and may reach up to 1 kg.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the 2 groups of HDAC that are associated with hypertrophic pathway?

A

There are 2 groups of HDAC:

  • Group I is pro-hypertrophic (up-regulation or loss of inhibition)
  • Group II is anti-hypertrophic (loss of inhibition)
  • The balance between the 2 will determine if the cell goes through hypertrophy or not.

The hormones that initiate the pathways are angiotensin 2, IGF-1, ANP, catecholamines etc.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What cause of cardic hypertrophy will result in what pattern of hypertrophy?

A
  • Pressure overloaded ventricle developes concentric hypertrophy with increased wall thickness (parallel growing of the sarcomeres) which can even reduce the cavity diameter.
  • volume overload: the sarcomeres grow in series so there is no increase in wall thickness but only the volume of the chamber increases.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the possible reasons that lead to myocyte contractile failure?

A
  • The fetal isoform of proteins is less functional
  • Intracellular handling of calcium ion leads to an impaired function
  • The hypertrophy is not accompanied by an increase in the vascular supply, thus, there is a chronic ischemia that leads to deposition of fibrous tissue and limited relaxation of the heart.

For all these reasons, prolonged hypertrophy leads to cardiac decompensation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define atrophy.

A

Decrease of body or organ mass as a result of shrinkage of the size of the cells.

Atrophy can be a physiologic or a pathologic process.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe pysiological atrophy

A

Physiologic atrophy: is common during early development when certain embryonic structures undergo atrophy.

The signaling pathway that determines if the cell undergows atrophy or hypertrophy:

  • “Survival siganl” = IGF-1 → PI3K → Akt →
    • phosphorylation of FOXO → no activation of protein ligases → no degradation of proteins in proteasomes.
    • Akt activates m-TOR → protein synthesis and hypertrophy).

In the absence of the survival signal, FOXO is not phosphorylated, thus, it activates ubiquitin ligases (Atrogin-1, Murf-1) that result in degradation of cells and atrophy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the causes of pathologic atrophy?

A
  1. Atrophy of diseus: a decrease in the workload.
  2. Denervation atrophy: Loss of innervation leads to muscle atrophy.
    • diseases of motor neuron (e.g. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)
    • trauma to peripheral nerve
  3. Decreased blood supply: can be the result of atherosclerosis.
  4. Hormonal effect: an abnormaly high or low levels of hormones.
  5. Atrophy due to pressure: (corset liver, aneurysm of aorta, Pressure of benign tumors, Cryptorchidism, Hydronephrosis)
  6. Inadequate nutrition: Cachexia, marasmus, profound protein-calorie malnutrition causes the use of skeletel muscles as soure of calorie. (AIDS, tumors, anorexia nervosa)
  7. aging (senile atrophy)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Osteoporosis?

How does the peak bone mass maintained?

A
  • Increased porosity (empty spaces) of skeleton resulting from a reduction in bone mass (bone atrophies).
  • The peak bone mass is maintained by appropriate nutrition, physical exercise, vitamine D and genetic factors.
  • A decrease of the peak bone mass is called osteoporosis.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the causes of primary osteoperosis

A

Primary:

  • Postmenopausal: in the presence of estrogen: OPG increases → OPG binds to RANKL → decreased differentiation of osteoclasts precursores into mature ones.
    • If estrogen decreases, and moreover, IL-1 and IL-6 increases → increased osteoclasts activity
  • Senile (after the age of 75)
    • Decreased replicative activity of osteoprogenitor cells
    • Decreased synthetic activity of osteoblasts
    • Decreased biologic activity of matrix-bound growth factors
    • Reduced physical activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the secondary osteoporosis

A

Can occur at every age and in male and female equally and is due to the following:

  • Endocrine disorders:
    • Hyperparathyroidism
    • Hypo/hyerthyroidism
    • Hypogonadism
    • Diabetes
    • Addison disease
  • Neoplasia:
    • Multiple myeloma
    • carcinomatosis
  • Gastrointestinal:
    • Malnutrition
    • Malabsorption
    • Hepatic insufficiency
    • Vitamin C, D deficiences
  • Rheumatologic diseases
  • Drugs:
    • Anticoagulants
    • Corticosteroids
    • Anticonvulsants
    • Chemotherapy
  • Miscellaneous
    • Immobilisation
    • Osteogenesis imperfecta
    • Anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe Alzheimer disease and its pathogenesis

A
  • The most common cause of dimensia in the elderly.
  • Risk increases with increased age.
  • The disease in caused by the accumulation of aβ-peptide in the brain. This peptide is derived from a group of membrane proteins called amyloid-precursore protein (APP) which can be processed in 2 ways, one of them which is done by the enzyme γ-secretase and leads to the formation of this peptide and to its accumulation since it cannot be cleared by the blood. The plaques generated inhibit the function of neurocytes and cause inflammation, injury and death of neurons.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the cellular changes that occur durind atrophy?

A
  • Decrease in cellular function, along with a decrease in cellular function
  • Change in cellular component: nuclei becomes pyknotic, fewer mitochondria and ER.
  • Protein degradation by the ubiquitin ligase system
  • Activation of the apoptotic machinary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The biochemical pathway of atrophy

A

If a survival signal (IGF-1) is present:

  • IGF-1 → PI3K → Akt
    • → mTOR → protein synthesis
    • → phosphorylates Foxo (Inactivation).
    • The result is a downregulation of ubiquitin ligases, thus, there is no protein degradation and no atrophy.

In the absence of a survival signal, Akt is no present, so that Foxo is dephosphorylated and active.

Active Foxo leads to upregulation of ubiquitin ligases that target proteins to degradation by proteasomes, leading to an atrophy of the tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is hyperplasia?

A

An increase in the cellular number that takes place if the cell population is capable of replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the cuses hyperplesia?

A
  1. Increased functional demand
    • At high altitude, low atmospheric O2 pressure induces compensatory hyperplasia of the bone marrow
    • compensatory hyperplasia that occurs when an organ is removed
    • follicular hyperplasia
    • parathyroid hyperplasia
  2. Hormonal stimulation
    • The hormonal stimulation can lead to physiologic or pathologic hyperplasia which is the result of excessive hormonal or growth factor stimulation.
  3. Chronic inflammation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Give an example of physiological hyperplesia

A
  • Proliferation of the glandular epithelium of the female breast ast and during pregnancy.
21
Q

Give 4 examples of pathological hyperplesia

A
  • Endometrial hyperplasia and resultant abnormal menstrual bleeding that is caused by an imbalance between estrogen and progesterone
  • Gynecomastia: breast enlargement in males that is due to development of large mammary glands. The cause is an imbalance between estrogenic and androgenic effect on the breast.
  • Follicular hyperplasia during hyperthyroidism
  • Adrenogenital syndrome → clitoris hyperplasia. A deficiency of 21 hydroxylase leads to an impaired cortisol synthesis and increase in testosteron level.
22
Q

Define metaplasia

A

a reversible change, in which one adult (differentiated) cell type is replaced by another adult cell type.

It’s a type of cellular adaptation, in which cells that are sensitive to a particular stress are replaced by other cell types that will be able to withstand the adverse environment much better.

23
Q

Mechanism of metaplasia

A

“reprogramming” of stem cells by growth factors, cytokines and matrix components which are stimulated by the chronic injury.

Metaplasia is reversible if the noxious agent is removed. However, if persistent, it may lead to malignant transformation of the epithelium.

24
Q

Examples of metaplasia

A
  1. columnar → squamous
    • Respiratory epithelium of habitual cigarette smokers, in which the ciliated columnar epithelial cells are transformed into stratified squamous epithelial cells.
    • This type of metaplasia is also induced by vitamin A deficiency.
  2. stratified squamous epitheliumcolumnar epithelium containing goblet cells
    • Example: Barret esophagus
25
Q

What is tissue repair and by which 2 reaction is it achieved?

A

restoration of tissue architecture and function after an injury by 2 types of reactions: regeneration, healing by scar formation

26
Q

Mechanism regulating the size of cell population:

A

From the baseline cell population:

  1. Proliferation
  2. Differentiation
  3. Cell death by apoptosis
27
Q

Describe the steps of cell cycle

A

controls DNA replication and mitosis

  • steps:
    • G1: presynthetic growth phase
      • checkpoint for DNA damage
    • S: DNA synthesis phase
    • G2: premitotic growth phase
      • checkpoint for damaged or unduplicated DNA
    • M: mitotic phase
    • G0

*progression is mediated by cyclins which accomplish the regulatory functions by forming a complex with CDKs (cyclin-dependent kinases)

28
Q

Cell types according to proliferative capacity

A

Labile cells: continuously dividing cells. continuous maturation from stem cells and proliferation of mature cells. hematopoietic cells, surface epithelia (skin, oral cavity, cervix)

Stable cells: found in G0 stage. Have minimal replicative activity but are capable of proliferating in response to injury or loss of tissue mass.

  • Include:
    • parenchyma of most solid tissues: liver, kidney and pancreas.
    • Endothelial cells, fibroblasts and smooth muscle cells.

Permanent cells: cells that cannot regenerate! Include the neurons, cardiac muscle cells. if injured → replaced by connective tissue

  • skeletal muscles are classified as permanent cells, but the satellite cells provide them with some regenerative capacity.
29
Q

What is are stem cells and what are thier types?

A

Cells that are able to regenerate throughout the life

Types:

  • Pluripotent stem cells: in the inner surface of the blastocyst = embryonic stem cells. have the capacity to generate multiple cell lineages
  • Multipotent stem cells: present in the bone marrow and some other tissues of adult individual = adult/tissue stem cells. are able to generate multiple cell lineages but not all of them.
  • Unipotent: have the capacity to develop into one type of tissue/cell. capacity of self renewal.
30
Q

Which molecules are involved in the tissue repair, how do they act?

Give some examples of such molecules

A

Growth factors and cytokines

  • Bind to specific receptors
  • Stimulate cell proliferation, migration, differentiation and contractility, synthesis of proteins.
  • Examples:
    • EGF (epidermal growth factor), TGF-α, KGF, TGH → epithelial proliferation
    • Fibroblast migration: PDGF, FGF, TGF-β
31
Q

The role and components of the ECM

A

Tissue repair depends also on the interaction between cells and ECM.

  • The ECM is a stable complex of macromolecules synthesized locally and assembles into a network that surrounds the cells.
  • Provides mechanical support, controls cell growth (by signaling through cellular receptors of the integrin family), maintains cell differentiation (depending in the type of protein in the ECM), storage and presentation of regulatory molecules as growth factors
32
Q

ECM forms

A
  • Interstitial matrix:
    • fibrillar collagen + elastin + proteoglycan and hyaluronan
  • Basement membrane:
    • type 4 collagen + proteoglycans + laminin
33
Q

Components of the ECM

A

Adhesive glycoproteins (fibronectin and laminin) and adhesive receptors (Ig, cadherins, selectins, integrins)

Involved in signal transduction, in addition to mediating cell-cell, cell-ECM and ECG components binding.

34
Q

Cellular components of regeneration

A
  • Parenchymal cells: the major cell population of an organ
  • Stromal cells: fibroblasts, endothelial cells, stromal cells
35
Q

What is needed in order for regeneration to occur?

In which tissues does regeneration occur?

A
  • Perfect regeneration needs all cell types!
  • Occurs only if the extracellular matrix framework (and stem cells!!) are intact
  • In labile tissues by the proliferation and differentiation of stem cells
  • In stabile tissues (parenchymal organs) with limited capacity → liver is an exception
  • The progression through the cell cycle is dependent of the activity of growth factors such as HGF and EGF that binds to tyrosine kinase receptors
36
Q

When will healing by scar formation occur?

A
  • When the extracellular matrix framework or non dividing cells are injured.
  • The repair occurs by replacement of the components with connective tissue (might be combined with regeneration).
37
Q

What are the 4 steps of scar formation

A
  1. Angiogenesis
  2. Migration and proliferation of fibroblasts
  3. ECM deposition (scar formation)
  4. Remodeling
38
Q

Describe angiogensis*

A

Resulting from:

  • mobilization of endothelial precursor cells from the bone marrow and angiogenesis from preexisting vessels

Steps:

  • vasodilation and increased permeability of the preexisting vessel

proliferation of endothelial cells

inhibition of the proliferation and remodeling into a tube

recruitment of pericytes (for the small capillaries) and smooth muscle cells (for the larger capillaries) to form the mature vessels

*VEGF and basic FGF-2 are the most important growth factors that induce the process

39
Q

Describe migration and proliferation of fibroblasts and ECM deposition*

A
  • 3-5 days after the beginning of the process a granulation tissue developes, which is composed of fibroblasts, ongoing angiogenesis and loose ECM.
  • The fibroblasts migrate and proliferate into the area and secret the ECM (collagen, proteoglycans). The matrix deposition depends on oxygen and nutrient availability as well as growth factors such as TGF-β, PDGF and FGF.
  • The granulation tissue progressively accumulates connective tissue matrix, eventually leading to the formation of a scar.
40
Q

Remodeling

A
  • The outcome of the repair process is in part a balance between ECM synthesis and degradation.
  • The degradation is accomplished by MMP’s (metalloproteinases) who’s secretion (by a variety of cell types) is regulated by GF and other agents.
41
Q

Wound healing*

A

A process that involves both epithelial regeneration and the formation of connective tissue scar!

42
Q

Steps of wond healing

A

Injury → bleeding → Coagulation → Inflammation → Migration/prolifiration, Angiogenesis, Epithelization, Contraction, Fibroplasia → Remodeling

43
Q

Types of healing

A
  • Healing by first intention
  • Healing by second intention
  • Healing of specific tissues
44
Q

Describe the steps of healing by first intention*

A

The healing of a clean, uninfected surgical incision approximated by surgical sutures. Minimal wound contraction

Steps:

  1. The narrow incisional space is 1st filled with fibrin clotted blood
  2. Within 24 hours: migration of neutrophils into the clot. Start of Re-epithelialization process: cell migration from the edges of the wound along with their proliferation across the surface to form a thin continuous epithelial layer.
  3. Day 3: continue of re-epithelialization: thickened epidermal covering. Neutrophils are replaced by macrophages. Formation of granulation tissue.
  4. Granulation tissue fills the space. Neovascularization reaches the peak.
  5. During the 2nd week: continuous collagen accumulation and fibroblast proliferation.
  6. By the end of the 1st month: the scar comprises of cellular connective tissue without inflammatory cells and covered by normal epidermis. The dermal appendeges in the line of incision are lost.
45
Q

What is healing by second intention and how does it differ from primary healing by

A

Occurs when the tissue loss is more extensive (abscesses, ulceration).

  • Larger fibrin clot
  • Inflammation is more intense
  • Larger granulation tissue
  • Wound contraction: reduction of the skin defect size due to contraction of myofibroblasts
46
Q

Factors influencing wound healing

A
  1. Local:
    • type
    • size
    • location
    • vascular supply
    • infection
    • movement
    • radiation
  2. Systemic:
    • circulatory states
    • infections
    • malnutrition
    • diabetes
    • scurvy
    • steroids
47
Q

Complications of wound healing

A

Defective scar formation

  • wound dehiscence (bursting open of a wound). occures after laparatomy - mechanical stress (vomiting, coughing,sneezing) poor metabolical status
  • incisional hernia late conequence of weak abdominal scar
  • Ulceration poor vascularisation, trophic disturbance

Excessive scar formation: keloid, the rate of collagen synthesis does not decreases

Excessive contraction: contractures, cicatrisation, increased activity of myofibroblasts after skin burns, oesophageal necrosis , Dupuytern contracture: fibrosis of superficial fascias

48
Q

Healing of specific tissues

A

Determinants: type of tissue, capacity of cell to regenerate, extent of ECM damage

Kidney

  • Tubular epithelium regenerates if basement membrane is intact
  • Glomeruli don’t regenerate

Lung

  • BM intact complete regeneration
    • Alveolar exudate → lysis of exudate → division of type 2 pneumocytes → differentiation of type 1 pneumocytes
  • BM injured - scar formation, lung fibrosis

Heart

  • Myocardial cells don’t regeneratescar formation
  • Endocardium: repair, vascularization of valves, vitium

Nervous system

  • Neurons cannot divide
  • central: no axonal regeneration, repair by microglial and astrocytic proliferation
  • peripheral: axonal regeneration if the cut edges are in perfect alignment
  • otherwise- axonal proliferation

Liver - Complete, scarring or combination of both