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1 REVISION Bismillah > 9. Microbiology - Will Irving & Emma English > Flashcards

9. Microbiology - Will Irving & Emma English Flashcards

1
Q

State 3 things about virus size

A

Small
Filterable agents
20-250nm

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2
Q

Virus structure

  1. State 2 things about virus structure
  2. What does a virus contain?
A
  1. Simple / no organelles

2. Nucleic acid + proteins + sometimes lipid envelope

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3
Q

Virus metabolism

State 3 things about virus metabolism

A

Metabolically inert
Relies on host cell
Obligate Intracellular parasites

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4
Q

Virus replication

  1. How are component parts synthesised?
  2. Where will this happen?
  3. Control?
  4. What happens next?
A
  1. Independently
  2. May be in separate parts of cell
  3. Under separate control
  4. Subsequent assembly into new particles
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5
Q

Mature virus particle

  1. Also known as?
  2. What 2 things is it always made up of? Give the other names for these 2 things.
  3. What thing may or may not be present?
A
  1. Virion
  2. Nucleic acid = genome
    Protein coat = capsid
  3. Lipid envelope
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6
Q

Viral components: nucleic acid

  1. DNA: how stranded? Shape? Size?
  2. RNA: how stranded? Ss polarity? Shape? Size?
A
  1. DNA
    Ds or ss / circular or linear / 3-200kb
  2. RNA
    ds or ss/ ss can be positive or negative polarity / linear or segmented / 5-10kb
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7
Q

Viral component: Proteins

  1. Capsid formation: discuss the shape
  2. Attachment: what determines viral tropism?
  3. Enzymes: what do they mainly do?
  4. Interference with cell function: give an example.
A
  1. Symmetrical
  2. There is a specific interaction between the viral ligand and the cellular receptor
  3. Macromolecular synthesis
  4. Stop apoptosis
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8
Q

Viral component: lipid envelope

  1. What is it derived from?
  2. What must it contain?
  3. What will stripping of envelope lead to?
  4. Enveloped viruses are generally more what?
A
  1. Host cell membranes
  2. External attachment proteins
  3. Loss of infectivity
  4. Fragile
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9
Q

Name the 6 steps of viral replication

A
  1. Attachment
  2. Entry
  3. Uncoating
  4. Macromolecular synthesis
  5. Assembly
  6. Release
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10
Q

Viral replication
1. Step 1 is attachment. What two things attach to each other?
2. Step 2 is entry. What 2 ways can a virus enter a cell?
Step 3 is coating
3. Step 4 is macromolecular synthesis. Multiple copies of which 2 things are made?
4. Macromolecular synthesis requires production of what type of RNA?
Step 5 is assembly
5. Step 6 is release. What process allows for release?

A
  1. Viral ligand to cellular receptor
  2. Endocytosis and fusion
  3. Viral genomes and viral proteins
  4. Positive ssRNA
  5. Budding
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11
Q

State the 4 effect of viruses on cells?

A

Acute cell death
Chronic infection
Latency
Transformation

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12
Q

Effect of viruses on cells - acute cell death
Give 2 ways the cell can die
Give an example

A

Cytolytic / cytocidal

Influenza virus on respiratory epithelial cells

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13
Q

Effect of viruses on cells - chronic infection
What happens in this case?
Give an example

A

Cell continually produces virus but survives

Hep B virus infection

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14
Q

Effect of viruses on cells - latency

  1. Replication?
  2. Is the viral genome present? Is viral protein made?
  3. Once infected…?
  4. Virus replication?
  5. Types of infection?
  6. Give an example
A
  1. No virus replication
  2. Viral genome present
    No production of viral proteins
  3. Once infected, always infected
  4. Virus replication can be reactivated
  5. Primary and secondary infections
  6. All herpes viruses eg. Herpes simplex
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15
Q

Effect of viruses on cells - transformation
What is meant by transformation?
Give an example

A

Immortalisation of the cell

Epstein Barr virus

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16
Q

Give 2 examples of viruses that cause cancer

A

Hep B - hepato cellular carcinoma

Epstein Barr virus - lymphomas

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17
Q

What are the 2 types of virus infections of the respiratory tract?
How serious are they?

A

URTI = upper respiratory tract infections
Common + relatively trivial

LRTI = lower respiratory tract infections
Potentially life-threatening

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18
Q

Name the infections in the following places:

  1. Nose
  2. Throat
  3. Sinuses
  4. Ear
  5. Epiglottis
  6. Larynx
A
  1. Rhinitis
  2. Pharyngitis
  3. Sinusitis
  4. Otitis media/ otitis externa
  5. Epiglottitis
  6. Laryngitis
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19
Q

URTI

  1. How common?
  2. Usual aetiology?
  3. What kind of secondary infections are common? (Name 2)
A
  1. Very common
  2. Viral
  3. Bacterial and fungal
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20
Q

Viral URTIs

  1. Name 3
  2. What may this predispose to? Give 2 examples
A
  1. Rhinoviruses/ parainfluenza viruses/ adenoviruses
  2. Secondary bacterial infection
    Bronchitis/ pneumonia
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21
Q

Name 2 things that can cause pharyngitis/ tonsillitis and give an example for each

A 
Viruses  = adenoviruses
Bacteria = strep pyogenes
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22
Q

Give an example of 4 viruses that cause LRTI

A

Influenza virus
Respiratory syncytial virus
Varicella zoster virus
Measles virus

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23
Q

Influenza viruses

  1. Shape / polarity / type of genome?
  2. How many segments? How many proteins do they encode?
  3. Name 2 viral proteins
  4. Name the types? What 2 things is this on the basis of?
  5. Name the subtype? What is this on the basis of?
A
  1. Segmented negative ssRNA
  2. 8 segments encode 11 proteins
  3. Haemagglutinin and neuraminidase
  4. A / B / C
    Based on internal proteins and matrix
  5. A only
    Based on surface proteins (HA/NA)
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24
Q

What are the 2 major components to the influenza?

A

Respiratory tract symptoms

Systemic symptoms

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25
Q

Pathogenesis of influenza

  1. What is meant by pneumotropic virus?
  2. The infection strips of the respiratory epithelium- so the infection is what?
  3. Which 2 innate defence mechanisms does it remove?
  4. The virus doesn’t circulate in the blood but what is produced that does circulate in the blood?
A
  1. Infects cells lining the respiratory tract down to the alveoli
  2. Lytic
  3. Mucous secreting cells and cilia
  4. Interferons
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26
Q

Complications of influenza

  1. In the respiratory tract 2 types of pneumonia can occur. What are the 2 types and what kind of cell infiltrate is in each?
  2. What cardiovascular complication can occur?
  3. What CNS complication can occur?
A
  1. Primary viral pneumonia = mononuclear cell infiltrate
    Secondary bacterial pneumonia = PMNL infiltrate
  2. Myocarditis
  3. Encephalitis
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27
Q

Influenza: high risk patients

  1. Patients with pre-existing diseases. Name 3.
  2. Age?
  3. Other 2 categories?
A
  1. Lung disease / cardiac disease / renal disease
  2. Over 65 years old
  3. Pregnant women
    Children
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28
Q

Influenza epidemiology

  1. Name 3 types of epidemics that cause influenza
  2. What 2 things cause these epidemics?
A
  1. Annual seasonal epidemics
    Unpredictable worldwide epidemics
    Pandemics and inter-pandemic epidemics
  2. Antigenic drift and antigenic shift
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29
Q

Antigenic drift

  1. Which 2 influenza virus types does it occur in?
  2. Define antigenic drift including the percentage of amino acid sequence change
  3. What is this type of mutation responsible for?
A
  1. Influenza A and B viruses
  2. Random spontaneous mutations in viral genes encoding HA and NA
    1-2% amino acid sequence change
  3. Interpandemic epidemics
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30
Q

Antigenic shift

  1. Which influenza virus type does it occur in?
  2. Define antigenic shift, including percentage amino acid sequence change
  3. What is antigenic shift responsible for?
  4. Name 3 influenza A reservoirs.
  5. What is a mixing vessel for both human and avian viruses?
A
  1. Influenza A viruses only
  2. Genetic reassortment between human and non-human viruses leading to a new subtype
    More then 20% amino acid difference
  3. Emergence of new pandemic strains
  4. Wild aquatic shore birds / humans / other animals
  5. Pigs
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31
Q

Key measures to combat pandemic flu

  1. Medical treatment is one, what are the other 2?
  2. Explain 4 aspects of medical treatment
A
  1. Infection control and vaccination

2. Oxygen therapy / anti-viral drugs / antibiotics / ITU support

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32
Q

Respiratory syncytial virus

  1. What type of enveloped virus is it?
  2. Polarity and type of genome?
  3. How many polypeptides does it encode?
  4. Pattern of infection? Season?
  5. Popularity?
A
  1. Enveloped paramyxovirus
  2. Negative ssRNA
  3. 9 polypeptides
  4. Highly seasonal infection (winter)
  5. Extremely common
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33
Q

RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)

  1. What does it cause in infants? Give an example of 2
  2. Hospitalisation rates?
  3. Mortality? 3 exceptions?
  4. What 2 things does it require?
  5. Re-infection? How?
A
  1. LRTI
    bronchiolitis / pneumonia
  2. High hospitalisation rates
  3. Low mortality
    Unless congenital heart disease / congenital lung disease / immunodeficiency
  4. Rapid diagnosis and appropriate infection control measures
  5. Re-infection occurs throughout life - antigenic drift
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34
Q

Acute viral hepatitis - clinical features

  1. Name 4 preicteric features?
  2. Name 3 icteric features?
A
  1. Malaise / anorexia / nausea / abdominal discomfort

2. Pale stool / dark urine

35
Q

Hep A virus

  1. Polarity and type of genome
  2. Route of transmission?
  3. Name 3 consequences of infection
  4. Name 3 methods of prevention
A
  1. Positive ssRNA
  2. Faecal-oral route
  3. Asymptomatic infection / acute icteric hepatitis / fulminant hepatitis
  4. Avoid uncooked foods / passive immunisation / active immunisation
36
Q

Hep B virus

  1. Type of virus?
  2. State 3 modes of transmission
  3. Which Hep B marker shows a current infection?
  4. Which Hep B marker shows a recent infection?
  5. What are the 2 outcomes of an acute infection?
A
  1. Hepadnavirus
  2. Perinatal / sexual / parenteral
  3. HBsAg positive
  4. IgM anti-HBc positive
  5. Resolve or become chronic
37
Q

Chronic HBV infection

  1. What is this defined as?
  2. Which marker would highlight high infectivity and increased risk of inflammatory liver disease?
  3. Which marker would highlight lower infectivity and lower risk of inflammatory liver disease?
A
  1. Persistent HBsAg for more than 6 months
  2. HBeAg positive
  3. Anti-HBe positive
38
Q

State 3 ways the HBV infection can be prevented

A
  1. Simple precautions and education of carriers
  2. Passive immunisation
  3. Active immunisation
39
Q

Apart from viruses, name 2 other types of microorganisms and give 2 examples for each

A 
Prokaryotes = typical bacteria and atypical bacteria
Eukaryotes = Protozoa and fungi
40
Q

Viruses

  1. What are the 4 different types of RNA or DNA that it can contain?
  2. What is the size range?
  3. Describe the 2 basic components of a virus
  4. What can it be surrounded by that is derived from the host cell? What is on top of this?
  5. How is it metabolically
A
  1. Ss/ ds/ linear/ circular
  2. 30nm-400nm
  3. Nucleic acid in a protein capsid = nucleocapsid
  4. Lipid Envelope/ membrane with viral capsule proteins
  5. Metabolically inert
41
Q

Name 9 things that are on a prokaryotic cell

A 
Capsule 
Cell wall
Plasma membrane
Cytoplasm
Ribosomes
Plasmid
Pili
Bacterial flagellum
Nucleoid
42
Q

Prokaryotic cells

  1. Size?
  2. Nucleus?
  3. Membrane-enclosed organelles?
  4. Flagella?
  5. Glycocalyx?
  6. Cell wall?
  7. Plasma membrane?
  8. Cytoplasm?
  9. Ribosomes?
  10. Chromosome (DNA) arrangement?
  11. Sexual reproduction?
A
  1. Size = 0.2-2 mm
  2. Nucleus= no nuclear membrane or nucleoli - it has nucleoid
  3. Membrane-enclosed organelles = absent
  4. Flagella = made of 2 protein building blocks
  5. Glycocalyx= capsule/slime layer
  6. Cell wall= usually present and chemically complex
  7. Plasma membrane= no carbohydrates + usually lacks sterols
  8. Cytoplasm = no cytoskeleton
  9. Ribosomes = smaller size = 70s
  10. Chromosome (DNA) arrangement = single circular chromosome + lacks histones
  11. Sexual reproduction = conjugation only
43
Q

Eukaryotic cells

  1. Size?
  2. Nucleus?
  3. Membrane-enclosed organelles?
  4. Flagella?
  5. Glycocalyx?
  6. Cell wall?
  7. Plasma membrane?
  8. Cytoplasm?
  9. Ribosomes?
  10. Chromosome (DNA) arrangement?
  11. Sexual reproduction?
A
  1. Size = 10-100mm
  2. Nucleus= true nucleus (nuclear membrane and nucleoli)
  3. Membrane-enclosed organelles = present
  4. Flagella = complex (made of multiple microtubules)
  5. Glycocalyx = present in some cells that don’t have a cell wall
  6. Cell wall = when present, chemically simple
  7. Plasma membrane = sterols and carbohydrates (receptors)
  8. Cytoplasm = cytoskeleton
  9. Ribosomes= larger size = 80s (and smaller 70s size in organelles)
  10. Chromosome (DNA) arrangement = multiple linear chromosomes with histones
  11. Sexual reproduction = meiosis
44
Q

What is the difference between gram positive and gram negative bacterial cell wall?

A

Gram positive = 1 thick peptidoglycan cell wall with lipoteichoic acid and teichoic acid
Gram negative = 1 thin peptidoglycan cell wall with lipoproteins and porins as well as an outer membrane layer with lipopolysaccharides porins

Underneath both is the periplasmic space and then the cell membrane which has membrane proteins

45
Q
  1. What are the 4 types of spherical bacteria (cocci)?

2. What are the other 2 types of bacteria called and what 2 extra characteristics can they have?

A
  1. Micrococci/ Diplococci / staphylococci/ streptococci
  2. Rod bacteria (bacilli) and spiral bacteria
    With endospores / with flagella
46
Q

Structural components - fimbriae or pili

  1. What are 2 things these protein structures are composed of?
  2. Size range?
  3. What kind of structures are they?
  4. What are sex pili involved in?
A
  1. Fimbrins/ pilins
  2. 10-25nm
  3. Attachment structures
  4. Gene transfer
47
Q

Structural components - capsules

  1. What are the 2 things they can be made up of?
  2. What type of polymers are they?
A
  1. Polysaccharides / polypeptides

2. Loose extramural polymers

48
Q

Structural components - endospores

  1. Which type of bacteria can make endospores?
  2. What can they survive and give 3 examples
  3. Water content?
  4. What kind of acid do they contain?
  5. Metabolically?
  6. How can dormant cells develop into vegetative cells?
  7. Give 2 examples of genera
A
  1. Some gram positive bacteria
  2. Environmental extremes = high heat/ radiation/ extreme pH
  3. Low
  4. Dipicolinic acid
  5. Metabolically inactive but not completely inert
  6. Activation, germination, and then outgrowth
  7. Clostridium/ bacillus
49
Q

Atypical bacteria

  1. Give 3 examples
  2. Which one is the smallest bacteria at can grow on cell free media?
  3. Which 2 are obligate Intracellular organisms?
A
  1. Mycoplasmas / rickettsias / chlamydia
  2. Mycoplasmas
  3. Rickettsias / chlamydia
50
Q
  1. Define infection
  2. Define pathogen
  3. Define opportunistic pathogen
A
  1. Presence of infectious organism in a person or population
  2. Agent of disease = disease producer
  3. Produces disease on an opportunistic basis rather than obligate
51
Q

Colonisation

  1. Define the word colonisation
  2. What can colonisation lead to? What are 2 possible outcomes of this?
  3. What are the two ways colonisation can be mediated?
A
  1. Presence of microbe at an expected site
  2. Invasion = cellular damage / destruction
  3. Pathogen mediated or host mediated
52
Q

What are the 6 stages of infection?

A
  1. Entry
  2. Spread
  3. Multiplication
  4. Evasion of host defence
  5. Transmission
  6. Host damage
53
Q
  1. Name 3 endogenous sources of infection

2. Name 5 exogenous sources of infection

A
  1. GI tract / skin / genital tract

2. Direct (skin, saliva, sexual) / airborne / food / water / vertical

54
Q

Name 4 physical host defences, giving some examples for each

A 
1. Skin and mucous membrane
Barrier / outward flow of mucus
2. Respiratory tract
Coughing / sneezing / ciliary action
3. Urogenital
Urination
4. Gut 
Commensal flora / defecation
55
Q

What 3 issues can contribute to someone being immuno-compromised?

A
  1. Breakdown of host physical barriers
  2. Immune system failures (inherited / acquired)
  3. Immuno suppressed
56
Q

Name 5 other bacterial actions aside from the following:

  1. Surface adhesins
  2. Anti-phagocytic agents
  3. Antibiotic resistance
A
  1. Ciliotoxic/ static molecules
  2. Sialylation
  3. Suppression of IFN-beta action
  4. Siderosphores
  5. Organotropism
57
Q

H. Pylori

  1. What 2 things does the flagella allow?
  2. What 2 things does urease do?
  3. What 2 things do the lipopolysaccharides do?
  4. What do the outer proteins do?
  5. What do the exotoxins and secretory enzymes do?
  6. What does the type 4 secretion system allow for?
  7. What 2 things do the effectors do?
A
  1. Bacterial mobility and chemotaxis to colonise under mucosa
  2. Neutralise gastric acid + gastric mucosal injury
  3. Adhere to host cells + inflammation
  4. Adhere to host cells
  5. Gastric mucosal injury
  6. Injection of effectors
  7. Host cell growth + apoptosis inhibition
58
Q
  1. What 2 ways can virulence factors be inherent?
  2. What 2 ways can virulence factors be acquired?
  3. What must be consider with regards to the virulence factors of a a particular microbe?
A
  1. Adhesion + invasion
  2. Mutated + horizontal transfer
  3. Pathogen life cycle (Intracellular or extracellular)
59
Q

Swine flu influenza A H1N1

  1. What type of RNA?
  2. How many types of influenza are there and what are they called?
  3. What is H?
  4. What is N?
A
  1. Ss-RNA
  2. 3 types = influenza A, B and C
  3. Hemagglutinin
  4. Neuraminidase
60
Q
  1. What is antigenic drift?

2. The new subtype can lead to what in a previously immune community?

A
  1. Small mutations causing changes in H and N

2. Re-infection

61
Q
  1. What is antigenic shift?
  2. Which influenza only?
  3. What is antigenic shift caused by?
  4. What can it lead to?
A
  1. Sudden major change
  2. Influenza A only
  3. Caused by transfer of genetic information between 2 different viruses invading the same cell
  4. Pandemics
62
Q

Respiratory tract

  1. Accessibility?
  2. Problem with URT?
  3. How is the LRT different?
  4. Give 3 examples of physical host defences
A
  1. Most accessible system in the body
  2. Continuously exposed to pathogens
  3. Essentially sterile
  4. Mucociliary escalator / alveolar macrophages / coughing
63
Q

URTI’s

  1. Give 4 examples of URTI’s
  2. How common are they?
  3. Usual aetiology?
  4. What kind of secondary infections are common?
A
  1. Otitis media, sinusitis, pharyngitis, tracheitis
  2. Very common
  3. Often viral
  4. Secondary bacterial (or fungal) infections
64
Q

LRTI’s

  1. Give 3 examples of LRTI’s
  2. Aetiology?
  3. What is important when determining likely pathogens?
A
  1. Bronchitis, bronchiolitis, pneumonia
  2. Bacterial, viral or fungal
  3. History
65
Q
  1. What are the 4 aspects of the Centor criteria

2. How many need to be met?

A
  1. Tonsillar exudate / tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy or lymphadenitis / history of fever / absence of cough
  2. 3 or 4
66
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

  1. Gram?
  2. Motile?
  3. Spore forming?
  4. Pathogenesis popularity in humans?
  5. Give one thing that it can cause
  6. What is another name for it?
A
  1. Gram positive
  2. Non motile
  3. Non sporeforming
  4. One of the most frequent pathogens of humans
  5. Pharyngitis
  6. Group A streptococci
67
Q

Scarlet fever

  1. What is it caused by?
  2. What does it present with?
  3. Name 4 other symptoms
A
  1. Group A streptococci
  2. Rash over trunk and abdomen that then spreads to entire body
  3. Pyrexia, lymphadenopathy, aches and nausea
68
Q
  1. Give 3 occasions when antibiotics should be given
  2. A patient that is 65 or 80 with an acute cough needs to have 2 or more (or 1 or more respectively) of what 4 criteria?
A
  1. Systemically very unwell, pre-existing co-morbidities and symptoms/signs suggestive of serious illness or complications
  2. Hospitalisation in previous year
    Type 1/ type 2 diabetes
    History of congestive heart failure
    Current use of oral glucocorticoids
69
Q

Pneumonia

  1. What is it?
  2. 4 general causes?
  3. What is the most common cause in adults? Give another example
  4. Name 2 common viral causes
  5. What is a common cause of pneumonia in young children?
A
  1. Lung tissue inflammation
  2. Bacterial/ viral/ chemical/ fungal
  3. Streptococcus pneumoniae / haemophilius influenzae
  4. Respiratory syncytial virus / influenza type A or B
  5. Viruses
70
Q

Name as many factors predisposing to pneumonia as you can

A 
Anatomic defects
Immunosuppression
Alcohol abuse
Viral infection
Advanced age
Chronic lung disease
Chronic renal disease
Diabetes
Nutritional status
71
Q

Bacterial pneumonia

  1. What type of serious infection is this?
  2. Infection where in lung?
  3. Nosocomial: how many hours after admission? Name 2 causes. What can be a big issue?
  4. Community acquired: name 2 causes. Name 4 symptoms.
A
  1. LRTI
  2. Lung parenchyma
  3. Nosocomial:
    48 hours / S. Aureus + P. Aeruginosa / antibiotic resistance
  4. Community acquired:
    Streptococcus pneumoniae + pneumococcus sp
    Lobar infection / fever / chest pain / purulent sputum
72
Q

Signs and symptoms of pneumonia

  1. Cough: type? Colour?
  2. Breathing?
  3. Heart rate?
  4. Temperature?
  5. Name 4 other signs and symptoms
A
  1. Dry or productive + phlegm is yellow, green or blood stained
  2. Difficulty breathing = rapid and shallow
  3. Tachycardia
  4. Fever
  5. General malaise / sweating + shivering / loss of appetite / chest pain
73
Q

Scoring systems - CPIS

  1. What does it stand for?
  2. Give 4 aspects of it
A
  1. Clinical pulmonary sepsis score
  2. Fever
    Leukocytosis
    Positive sputum culture
    Worsening X-ray changes
    Oxygenation levels
74
Q

Scoring systems - CURB 65

  1. What does the age have to be?
  2. What are the 4 aspects of it?
  3. A score of 5 equals to what percentage of mortality?
A
  1. Older than 65 years
  2. Confusion
    Uraemia
    Respiratory rate
    Blood pressure
  3. 57% mortality
75
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

  1. Gram?
  2. What shaped cocci?
  3. Seen in what formation usually?
  4. Give 3 examples of invasive pneumococcal disease
  5. Give 3 examples of non-invasive pneumococcal disease
A
  1. Gram positive
  2. Lancet-shaped cocci
  3. Diplococci
  4. Septicaemia / pneumonia / meningitis
  5. Otitis media / sinusitis / bronchitis
76
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

  1. Type of aerobe?
  2. What shaped bacillus?
  3. Acid?
  4. Spore forming?
  5. Why is it difficult to gram stain?
  6. Division time?
  7. What kind of tissue does it like?
A
  1. Obligate aerobe
  2. Rod shaped
  3. Acid fast
  4. Non spore forming
  5. Mycolic acid in cell wall
  6. Slow - 15-20 hours
  7. Highly oxygenated tissue
77
Q

Name some risk factors for developing TB disease

A

Recent TB infection/exposure to people who have had it
Medical conditions that weaken the immune system
HIV infection
Substance abuse
Severe kidney disease
Low body weight
Organ transplants

78
Q

Latent TB infection

  1. Signs / symptoms?
  2. What prevents growth of bacteria?
  3. Infectious?
  4. Skin / blood test result?
  5. Chest X-ray?
  6. What is required to prevent progression to TB disease?
A
  1. None
  2. Host defences
  3. Not infectious
  4. Positive
  5. Normal
  6. Treatment
79
Q

TB disease

  1. Activation of what?
  2. Signs and symptoms?
  3. Infectious?
  4. Skin / blood test result?
  5. Chest X-ray? Sputum sample?
  6. What does it require to resolve it?
A
  1. Latent TB
  2. Present - patient feels sick
  3. Can spread
  4. Positive
  5. Abnormal
  6. Needs treatment
80
Q

Name 4 sites of TB infection

A

Skin and soft tissues
bone and joints
genitourinary tract
disseminated disease

81
Q

TB transmission

  1. Exposure to persons with what?
  2. What from coughs?
  3. Dust contaminated with what?
  4. What makes organism resistant to dessication?
A
  1. Active TB disease
  2. Aerosol droplets
  3. M. Tuberculosis from cough of person with active disease
  4. Waxy outer coating
82
Q

TB signs and symptoms

  1. Temperature?
  2. Cough?
  3. Weight?
  4. Sputum
  5. Alertness?
  6. Appetite?
  7. Chest pain?
A
  1. Fever and night sweats
  2. Persistent cough lasting longer than 3 weeks
  3. Weight loss
  4. Blood in sputum
  5. Fatigue
  6. Loss of appetite
  7. Chest pain
83
Q

What are the 4 methods to diagnose TB?

A

Skin test
Blood test
Chest X-ray
Microbiological sampling

84
Q

TB diagnosis

  1. What is the skin test called?
  2. What is injected into the forearm in the skin test? The diameter of what is measured?
  3. What is the blood test called?
  4. In the blood test, interferon gamma is released upon exposure to what?
A
  1. TST = tuberculin skin test
  2. Tuberculin derived protein. Palpable, raised, hardened area/swelling measured
  3. Interferon gamma release assays
  4. Antigens derived from M. Tuberculosis

1 REVISION Bismillah (13 decks)

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