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FCP > 9. Diseases > Flashcards

9. Diseases Flashcards

1
Q

What can the temperature of an animal be like with bacterial disease

A

Pyrexic, normal or sub temperatures
Only ever get as high as 40 degrees, and more would suggest viral infection

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2
Q

Give some types of fluid to test for white cell and neutrophil counts

A

Tracheal wash
Peritoneal fluid
Pleural fluid
joint fluid
Biopsies

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3
Q

In salmonella infection, would peripheral neutrophil count be increased/normal/decreased and why

A

Decreased - neutrophils have travelled to the site of infection (GIT) and been expelled in diarrhoea

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4
Q

In sepsis, would white cell and neutrophil count be increased or decreased

A

Increased
Degenerate neutrophils and toxic change

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5
Q

Give 3 examples of acute phase proteins

A

Fibrinogen
Serum amyloid A
C reactive protein

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6
Q

Would peripheral acute phase proteins be increased/decreased/normal in bacterial infections

A

Slightly increased

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7
Q

What 2 fluids do not culture well for culture and sensitivity of bacterial infections

A

Cerebrospinal fluid
Joint fluid

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8
Q

Type of bacterial infection:
Old, unspayed dog, pyrexic, drinking lots, off food

A

Pyometra

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9
Q

Type of bacterial infection:
Cow, unwell, low temp, not eating, loose faeces
Echogenic portions on the liver

A

Hepatic abscesses
secondary to ruminal acidosis

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10
Q

Type of bacterial infection:
Heart ultrasound with echogenic fluid surrounding it

A

Septic pericarditis

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11
Q

What would pleural pneumonia look like on an ultrasound

A

Fluid in pleural space
lung consolidation
strands of fibrin connecting lung surface to parietal pleura

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12
Q

How best to treat bacterial infection of body cavity

A

Lavage with high volumes of sterile saline
Systemic antibiotics

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13
Q

example of exotic viral disease

A

avian influenza

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14
Q

example of endemic viral disease

A

Calf respiratory disease

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15
Q

3 examples of feline sporadic diseases

A

feline parvovirus
calicivirus
herpesvirus

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16
Q

What is feline infectious peritonitis secondary to

A

Feline enteric conoravirus

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17
Q

What virus causes malignant catarrhal fever In cattle

A

Ovine herpes virus 2
crosses species barrier

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18
Q

common clinical signs of malignant catarrhal fever in cows

A

Sever pyrexia
corneal oedema
marked discharge from eyes and nose

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19
Q

Economic importance of viral disease

A

Costs of loss of production, culling, banning of imports and exports, costs of control

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20
Q

3 examples of viral zoonoses

A

Hantavirus
Louping ill virus
European bat lyssavirus

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21
Q

example of notifiable disease

A

Foot and mouth
Highly pathogenic avian influenza

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22
Q

Definition of pathogenicity

A

The ability of a microbe to damage a host

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23
Q

Definition of degree of virulence

A

The relative capacity of a pathogen to damage a host

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24
Q

Definition of virulence factors

A

The bacterial traits that confer pathogenicity

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25
Q

3 things a microbe must do to act as a pathogen

A

Compete with normal flora to gain a foothold
Must evade or overcome normal host defences
Must express genes that encode for factors that cause disease

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26
Q

How bacterial infection can cause tissue damage (3 ways)

A

Bacterial toxins
Inflammatory response
Immune response

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27
Q

Changes associated with inflammatory response to bacterial infection

A

Systemic - pyrexia, HR, RR increase
Local - heat, swelling, pain, redness
Pus
Granulomas

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28
Q

2 Cardiovascular consequences of bacterial infection

A

Congested mucous membranes
Toxic line - horses

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29
Q

difference between degenerate neutrophils and toxic change of neutrophils

A

degenerate = how neutrophils are dying
toxic change = how they are being made

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30
Q

3 steps for cells leaving vessels

A
  1. marginalisation
  2. adhesions
  3. migration
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31
Q

3 Signs of neutrophil toxic change

A

foamy cytoplasm
diffuse cytoplasmic basophilia
Dohle bodies

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32
Q

why lactate builds up in sepsis

A

Blocks normal pathways that lactate would be eliminated through
Increased lactate coming into circulation

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33
Q

How coagulopathy develops in sepsis

A

Inflammation is a pro-coagulators state
Microthrombi will build up in vasculature
Low platelet count
Low coagulation factors

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34
Q

Which 2 viruses cause cat flu

A

calicivirus and herpesvirus

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35
Q

clinical signs of cat flu

A

nasal and ocular discharge
pyrexia
anorexia
lethargy

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36
Q

Clinical signs of calf respiratory disease

A

cough
nasal and ocular discharge
pyrexia
depression

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37
Q

clinical signs of canine parvovirus

A

Vomiting, bloody diarrhoea
Pyrexia
Neutropenia
Villus stunting, crypt dilation and necrosis

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38
Q

Why does parvovirus cause neutropenia

A

Virus also affects the bone marrow

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39
Q

What is an example of lentiviruses in cats

A

FIV

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40
Q

Name 3 viruses which cause cancer

A

Retroviruses
Herpes Viruses
Papillomaviruses

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41
Q

2 immunological effects from viral infections and examples

A

Immune suppression - FIV, BVDV
Immunopathology - FIP

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42
Q

Which viruses cause prenatal infections (name 2)

A

BVD
Schmallenberg

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43
Q

which pathogen causes greasy pig disease

A

Staphylococcus hyicus

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44
Q

which pathogen causes strangles in horses

A

strep equi equi

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45
Q

what is the gold standard test for bacterial infections

A

culture and sensitivity

46
Q

How can you use cytology to confirm bacterial infection

A

look for intracellular bacteria in neutrophils

47
Q

what colour will gram stain stain gram positive and negative bacteria

A

Gram positive = purple
gram negative = pink

48
Q

when should you use prophylactic antimicrobials

A

surgery where contamination is high e.g. colic or joint surgery

49
Q

3 ways to detect a virus

A

Detection of antigen, nucleic acid or antiviral antibodies

50
Q

diagnostic tests for canine parvovirus

A

SNAP test or lateral flow
Neutropenia
PCR

51
Q

Diagnostic tests for cat flu

A

Virus isolation and PCR

52
Q

diagnosis of FIP

A

Detect FeCoV antibody - not FIP specific tho
Rivalta test - effusion of liquid from abdomen

53
Q

samples to take and diagnosis of avian influenza

A

samples - tracheal, oropharyngeal and cloacal swabs, fresh tissue sample
diagnosis by RT-qPCR

54
Q

3 aspects of disease control

A

Biosecurity
Husbandry
Vaccination

55
Q

3 ways in which fungi grow

A

Yeast (unicellular)
Mould (multicellular filamentous hyphae)
Both (dimorphic)

56
Q

What are fungi cell walls made from

A

Chitin
Other polysaccharides

57
Q

How to fungi reproduce

A

Spore formation

58
Q

Are dermatophytes commensals or pathogens

A

pathogens

59
Q

Fungi classification by habitat - 3 categories

A

Geophilic - found in soil/environment
Zoophilic - found on animals
Anthropophilic - found on man

60
Q

3 ways in which fungi cause disease

A

Tissue invasion (mycosis)
Toxin production (mycotoxicosis)
Induction of hypersensitivity

61
Q

3 categories of tissue invasion of fungi (mycosis)

A

Superficial mycoses
Subcutaneous mycoses
Systemic mycoses

62
Q

What predisposes to tissue invasion of fungi (mycosis)

A

Immunological deficits
Immunosuppression
Prolonged antibiotic therapy
Traumatised tissues
Persistent moisture

63
Q

2 types of superficial mycosis

A

Dermatophytosis - caused by dermatophytes
Dermatomycosis - caused by non-dermatophytic fungi

64
Q

What organisms cause Dermatophytosis

A

Microsporum spp.
Trichophyton spp.

65
Q

What organisms cause Dermatomycosis

A

Malassezia
Candida
(commensals)

66
Q

How subcutaneous mycosis occur and what are the lesions like

A

Follow foreign body penetration
Chronic lesions, remain localised

67
Q

What organism causes systemic mycosis

A

Cryptococcosis (cryptococcus neoformans and gatii)

68
Q

How systemic mycosis occurs and how it spreads through the body

A

Inhalation of fungus in dust => nasal infection => invasion via cribriform plate => CNS or spread to other sites via blood or lymphatics

69
Q

Definition of chromomycosis

A

If lesion caused by pigmented fungus

70
Q

Definition of hyalohyphomycosis

A

If lesion caused by non-pigmented fungi

71
Q

Definition of mycetoma

A

Organism in granules/grains within lesion, associated with swelling and draining sinus

72
Q

Definition of a pseudomycetoma

A

Have different granule formation to mycetoma

73
Q

What fungi are commonly associated with toxin production (mycotoxicosis)

A

Penicillium
Aspergillus (=> aflatoxicosis)
Fusarium
Claviceps ( => ergotism)

74
Q

How do animals become affected by mycotoxicosis

A

Fungi on crops, pasture or stored feed produce toxins which animas ingest

75
Q

Why is mycotoxicosis an issue in food producing animals

A

Accumulation in tissues of food-producing animals can result in human exposure

76
Q

What disease is associated with induction of hypersensitivity by fungi in cattle and horses

A

Chronic pulmonary disease

77
Q

3 pathological changes associated with tissue mycosis

A
  1. Acute suppurative inflammation + micro abscess formation
  2. Chronic inflammation - (pyo)granulomatous
  3. Necrosis
78
Q

clinical changes with superficial mycoses

A

alopecia, erythema, ulcers

79
Q

clinical changes associated with subcutaneous mycoses

A

papules or nodules
Ulceration
Discharging tracts
Regional lymphadenopathy

80
Q

clinical changes associated with systemic mycoses

A

Granulomas
Pyogranulomas
Necrosis
Systemic illness

81
Q

What species of fungi has more than one manifestation of tissue invasion

A

Aspergillus

82
Q

Mame 4 diagnostic tests for fungal infections

A

Direct microscopy
Fungal culture
Histopathology
PCR and woods lamp

83
Q

How to diagnose mycotoxicosis

A

Epidemiological features
Clinical signs
Confirmation of mycotoxin

84
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity is most commonly associated with fungal infection

A

Type 1

85
Q

Define an outbreak

A

Occurrence of more cases of a disease than expected in a given region, community or group; evidence of disease spread within a facility

86
Q

Define endemic disease

A

Disease commonly found in, or restricted to a particular region, community or group

87
Q

Define epidemic

A

A level of disease in a population significantly greater than usual

88
Q

Define pandemic

A

Epidemic that affects multiple regions/areas

89
Q

Define index case

A

First known infected animal

90
Q

What are the 3 main contributing risk factors to a disease outbreak

A

Hygiene
Biosecurity
Water source

91
Q

key elements of prevention of a disease outbreak

A

Good hygiene and biosecurity
Good facility design
Stress reduction
Good nutrition
Preventative treatment

92
Q

Define a zoonotic disease

A

Animal diseases that can pass between animals and humans

93
Q

Reportable vs Notifiable disease

A

Reportable - report once case is confirmed
Notifiable - report if you suspect

94
Q

what is the difference between PrPSc and PrPC

A

PrPc is host-encoded and has high levels of expression in the CNS, not infective
PrPSc is produced by the misfolding of PrPc - infective

95
Q

3 ways in which a host can be infected with PrPSc

A

Spontaneous
Inherited
Acquired

96
Q

Name the most common prion diseases in: sheep, cattle, cats, goats, deer

A

Sheep - Scrapie and atypical scrapie
Cattle - BSE
Cats - FSE
Deer - Chronic wasting disease
Goats - BSE

97
Q

Clinical signs of prion disease

A

Weight loss
Behavioural changes
Licking lips
Grinding teeth
Pruritus
Ataxia and tremors
Death

98
Q

What cell types is predominantly associated with granulomatous disease

A

Macrophages

99
Q

If neutrophils are found in granuloma, what is it classified as

A

Pyo-granulomatous

100
Q

Name 3 causes of granulomatous disease

A
  1. microbial agents
  2. autoimmune disease
  3. foreign bodies
101
Q

Name 5 bacteria that cause granulomatous disease (ABBMR)

A

Actinobacillus spp.
Burkholderia mallei
Brucella spp.
Mycobacterium spp.
Rhodococcus equi

102
Q

What class of fungi cause granulomatous disease

A

dimorphic fungi

103
Q

Name 6 species of fungi which cause granulomatous disease (ABCCCH)

A

Aspergillus fumigatus
Blastomyces dermatitidis
Cryptococcus neofromans
Coccidioides immitis
Candida albicans
Histoplasma capsulatum

104
Q

Name features of Rhodococcis equi and how it causes granulomatous disease

A

Intracellular, Gram positive bacteria
Proliferates inside macrophages
Inhibits phagosome-lysosome fusion
Young foals - acquire by inhalation
Causes pyogranulomatous bronchopneumonia and ulcerative enteritis

105
Q

Name features of Mycobacterium spp. and how it causes granulomatous disease

A

Johnes Disease and Tuberculosis
Acid-fast, weakly gram-positive, intracellular, non motile
Requires iron for growth
Ingestion is main route of infection
Causes chronic enteritis in cattle

106
Q

Name features of Actinobacillus lignieresii and how it causes granulomatous disease

A

Wooden tongue disease
Aerobic, non spore forming, gram negative
Commensal in oral cavity - invades when mucosal trauma
Causes pyogranulomatous lymphadenitis

107
Q

Name features of Burkholderia mallei and how it causes granulomatous disease

A

Glanders disease
Non motile, non spore forming, weakly gram negative
Zoonotic and NOTIFIABLE

108
Q

Name features of Brucella spp. and how it causes granulomatous disease

A

Transmission by contact with infected tissues/secretions/excretions
Causes bacteraemia

109
Q

Name 3 examples of dimorphic fungi

A

Candida albicans
Aspergillus fumigatus
Histoplamsa capsulatum
Cryptococcus neoformans

110
Q

Which bacteria causes bTB

A

Mycobacterium bovis

111
Q

describe the aspects of the 25 year eradication strategy for bTB

A

3 management zones (high risk, edge, low risk)
Increased frequency testing
Badger culling and vaccination
Biosecurity advice

112
Q

name 3 ways of testing for bTB

A

Skin testing (SICCT)
Blood testing - interferon gamma
Post mortem inspection

FCP (8 decks)

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