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FCP > 7. Immunity and Disease > Flashcards

7. Immunity and Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Define an immune deficiency

A

Impairment in parts, or the function of specific parts, of the immune system that, in having this impairment, causes the animal to be susceptible to infectious disease.

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2
Q

What is a primary immune deficiency

A

Inherited or congenital
Occurs when there is a mutation in a gene that is associated with the immune response

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3
Q

What is a secondary immune deficiency and what are the common causes

A

Normal immune system until a physiological or pathological change occurs within the immune system
Causes - age, chronic disease, infection, therapeutics

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4
Q

Give 2 examples of primary immune deficiency diseases

A

SCID - severe combined immunodeficiency
CLAD - Canine leukocytic adhesion deficiency

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5
Q

What 2 dog breeds and one horse breed get SCID, and what does the mutation affect

A

Basset Hound - mutation for key cytokines
Jack Russel Terrier - mutation for lymphocyte formation
Arabian horse - Mutation impacts T and B cell receptor

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6
Q

which dog breed is CLAD common in

A

Irish setters

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7
Q

What does CLAD do to the body

A

Abnormal blood clotting and impair immune system
Prevents white blood cells adhering/eliminating pathogens

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8
Q

Give 4 examples of secondary immune deficiencies

A

Age-related decline - decline in CD4+
Specific infections disease - e.g. FIV
Chronic stress
Malnutrition

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9
Q

Why does chronic stress cause secondary immune deficiency

A

Glucocorticoids suppress the immune system

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10
Q

Why does malnutrition cause secondary immune deficiencies

A

reduced leptin => reduced T lymphocyte function

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11
Q

what is type I hypersensitivity

A

Immediate hypersensitivity reaction
IgE antibodies bound to mast cells
Phase 1 - sensitisation phase
Phase 2 - re-exposure phase

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12
Q

Explain sensitisation phase of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Allergen exposure
Antigen-presenting cells capture antigens
Naive helper cells differentiate to T helper 2
Release cytokines
B cell proliferation
IgE binds to mast cells
Relocate to where allergen was first encountered

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13
Q

Explain re-exposure phase of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Same allergen encountered
Primed IgE coated mast cells bind to antigen of allergen
Release of cytoplasmic granules
Breakdown of mast cells
Immediate hypersensitivity

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14
Q

Give 2 examples of type 1 hypersensitivity

A

Anaphylaxis
Atopic dermatitis

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15
Q

What is type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Antibody-mediated cytotoxicity
Mediated by antibodies, activates classical complement pathway
IgG antibodies travelling in the blood

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16
Q

Give an example of type 2 hypersensitivity

A

Myasthenia Gravis

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17
Q

What is type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Immune complex hypersensitivity
Formation of immune complexes and activation of the complement system

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18
Q

What are the two subtypes of type 3 hypersensitivities

A

Antibody excess (lots of IgG)
Antigen excess (less IgG but lots of antigens)

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19
Q

Give 2 examples of type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Equine recurrent airway obstruction
Canine blue eye

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20
Q

What is type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Cell-mediated, not antibody
Prolonged onset
Sensitisation and re-exposure phases
Interferon gamma and chemokine to site of presentation, recruitment of macrophages, CD4+/8+ and granulocytes

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21
Q

Give an example of type 4 hypersensitivity

A

TB skin test in cows

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22
Q

What lab tests are used to detect viruses

A

Immunodiagnostics e.g. ELISA
Culture
PCR

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23
Q

What lab tests are used to detect bacteria

A

Culture
PCR

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24
Q

name 2 animal side tests which are used to detect pathogens

A

Lateral flow
Latex agglutination tests

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25
Q

What test is used to detect antibodies

A

Indirect and sandwich ELISA

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26
Q

Name 3 specialised blood tests to detect antibodies

A

Agglutination/haemagglutination inhibition
Single radial haemolysis
Complement fixation

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27
Q

Name 3 inflammatory markers which can be tested for

A

Fibrinogen
C reactive protein (CRP)
Serum amyloid A (SAA)

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28
Q

Ways a pathogen can evade the immune system

A

Virokines/viroceptors
Bacterial capsules
Viral latency
Infect immunoprivilaged tissues
Antigenic variation

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29
Q

Antigenic drift vs antigenic shift

A

Drift = RNA cycle mistakes are made during replication => surface protein change
Shift = 2 viruses join inside a cell, surface proteins of the new virus are encoded by both parent proteins

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30
Q

how viruses actively attack the immune system

A

infect and kill immune cells
Down regulate/ inhibit immune effector molecules
Inhibit cell signalling pathways

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31
Q

what type of virus is FIV

A

T lymphocytic retrovirus

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32
Q

explain the effect of FIV of CD4+ and CD8+

A

Pathogen directly infects and replicates within the CD4+ T cells
Progressive decline of CD4+ cells in blood, virus is causing a cytopathic effect on the CD4+ cells
Prefers CD4+ over CD8+ cells due to a specific binding receptor

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33
Q

Innate immunity in the male definition

A

Immunity maintains the balance of commensal bacteria and pathogens

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34
Q

Innate immunity in the female definition

A

Immunity maintains the balance of commensal bacteria, pathogens and any introduced bacteria, allogenic* sperm, and the immunologically distinct fetus

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35
Q

what is a reproductive pathogen

A

A pathogen that affects the reproductive tract

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36
Q

How can reproductive pathogens be transmitted

A

Via semen or vaginial secretions => venereal
Via other routes e.g. respiratory (non venereal)

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37
Q

When is uterine contamination common

A

Post partum in all species as cervix is open
Post mating in mare, sow and bitch as ejaculation occur directly into the uterus

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38
Q

How does post partum uterine contamination occur and progress

A

Commensal organisms most common
Damage to endometrium from placental detachment
Commensals can penetrate the myometrium => metritis
if more superficial just endometritis

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39
Q

How does post mating uterine contamination occur and progress

A

Commensals enter the uterus of the mare, bitch and sow
Normal response is the bacteria are cleared
If poor uterine response => endometritis

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40
Q

Name pathogen which can cause endometritis in the mare

A

Taylorella

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41
Q

Name pathogen which can cause endometritis in the cow

A

Bovine venereal camplylobacteriosis

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42
Q

Give an example of a reproductive pathogen which enters via respiratory tract

A

Herpes virus

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43
Q

Name the common herpes virus in each species which are transmitted via respiratory system

A

Equine - EHV1 => cause abortion
Bovine - BoHV1 => causes abortion
Canine - CaHV1 => abortion
Feline - FeHV1 => Rarely causes abortion

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44
Q

Which herpes viruses are transmitted venereally for each species

A

Equine - EHV3
Canine - CaHV1
Bovine - BoHV1

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45
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in mares

A

Clitoral swabs for bacterial venereal pathogens Taylorella, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas

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46
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in stallions

A

Penile swabs for bacterial venereal pathogens Taylorella, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas

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47
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in bitches and dogs

A

None

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48
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in toms and queens

A

FeLV and FIV serology

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49
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in bulls

A

Screen for campylobacter and sometimes Trichomonas

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50
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in cows

A

none

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51
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in rams

A

Boarder disease

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52
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in ewes

A

None
Empty or aborted ewes tested for toxoplasma and EAE (enzoonotic abortion in ewes)

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53
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in boars

A

serology for PRRS, Aujzeskys, Brucella and Classical swine fever

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54
Q

What routine reproductive screening takes place in sows

A

none

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55
Q

When in her lactation cycle is a cow most susceptible for mastitis

A

Just before she calves

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56
Q

Name innate immunity against mastitis in a cow

A

Anatomy of the teat and teat end
Lactoferrin
Macrophages, neutrophils and somatic cells

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57
Q

Give an example of an environmental pathogen causing mastitis

A

S. uberis

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58
Q

Give an example of a contagious pathogen causing mastitis

A

Staphylococcus aureus

59
Q

Give example control measures to reduce infection on the dry cow envrionment

A

Increase frequency of cleaning bedding material in loose yards

60
Q

Give example control measures to reduce infection in the milking parlour

A

Implement full pre-milking teat disinfection routine, to include 30 second contact time with disinfectant and wipe dry

61
Q

Give 3 functions of colostrum

A

Provides energy and fluids
Transfer of passive immunity
Development of the early GI microbiota

62
Q

Which antibodies are present in colostrum

A

IgG, IgA and IgM - majority IgG

63
Q

what is the most important management factor in determining calf health and survival

A

Colostrum management

64
Q

why we vaccinate

A

Most vaccines are given to prevent (infectious) disease in the individual and/or their offspring and/or the population = Prophylactic vaccine

65
Q

Apart from prophylactic vaccines, name 2 other types

A

Therapeutic vaccines - e.g. melanoma vaccine for dogs
Immunocontraceptive vaccines e.g. GnRH/zona pellucida targeting vaccines

66
Q

Give the qualities of a perfect vaccine

A

Safe, cheap, easy to administer
Immune response that is strong, lifelong, and gives an appropriate immune response

67
Q

Give 6 different types of vaccines

A

Split inactivated
Live attenuated
Recombinant DNA
Virus Vectored
DNA vaccines
mRNA vaccines

68
Q

Pros and cons of inactivated vaccines

A

Pros - can be made rapidly
Cons - expensive if high level containment needed, short duration of immunity

69
Q

Con of a subunit vaccine

A

Poor immune response

70
Q

Pros and cons of a live attenuated vaccine

A

Pros - good at inducing an immune response
Cons - Potential for reversion to virulence

71
Q

Pros and cons of vectored vaccines

A

Pros - good immune response
Cons - can get immunity to the vector

72
Q

pros and cons of DNA vaccines

A

Pros - good T cell mediated immunity
Cons - Difficult to get strong antibody response

73
Q

5 Common components of vaccines

A

Active ingredients
Adjuvant
Stabilisers
Preservatives
Trace components

74
Q

What do adjuvants in vaccines do

A

Enhance immunogenicity - help make sure the vaccine isn’t just ‘swept away’

75
Q

What is parenteral administration

A

Administered or occurring elsewhere in the body than the mouth and alimentary canal.

76
Q

5 Examples of parenteral administrationn routes for vaccines

A
  1. Intramuscular
  2. Intranasal
  3. Submucosal
  4. Intradermal
  5. Subcutaneous
77
Q

Disadvantages of parenteral vaccines

A

Have to do it in one administration
Not good for mass vaccinating

78
Q

Which routes are best for mass vaccination

A

Oral - water or bait
Immersion - fish
Spray - poultry

79
Q

Name the 4 core vaccines for dogs according to BSAVA

A

Canine distemper virus
Canine adenovirus type 2
Canine parvovirus type 2
Leptospira interogans

80
Q

Name the 3 core vaccines for cats according to BSAVA

A

Feline parvovirus
feline herpesvirus type 1
feline calicivirus

81
Q

Name the 2 core vaccines for rabbits

A

Myxomatosis
Rabbit haemorrhage disease virus 1 and 2 (RHDV1 and 2)

82
Q

Name the 2 core vaccines for ferrets

A

Canine distemper virus
Rabies (if travelling)

83
Q

Name some vaccines which may be required for horses

A

Equine influenza - may be compulsory for competition animals
Equine arteritis for breeding stock
Equine herpesvirus
Strangles

84
Q

What does DIVA stand for

A

Differentiation of Infected from Vaccinated Animals

85
Q

what groups of animals shouldn’t be vaccinated

A

Old animals - don’t respond well to vaccination
Immunosuppressed - be careful with live attenuated vaccines as can become pathogenic
Pregnant - immunosuppressed to an extent, vaccination can cause adverse effects on the foetus e.g. pyrexia

86
Q

How many times should you give a vaccine to an animal

A

Second and third immunisations increase IgG response a lot

87
Q

What is the “immunity gap” in young animals

A

The gap between decrease in maternally derived antibodies and increase in antibodies produced by the offspring

88
Q

What is the equine influenza vaccination protocol

A

First vaccine at 5-6 months old
Second vaccine 4 weeks later
Third vaccination given 6 months later
Booster must be given within a 365 day period otherwise vaccinations must be restarted

89
Q

If a horse is competing under FEI, how often is the equine influenza booster required

A

Every 6 months

90
Q

What 3 aspects are tested in the pre-licensing testing of vaccines

A

Safety
Efficacy - how well it works under controlled conditions
Effectiveness - how well it works in the field

91
Q

Name 4 aspects of adverse effects of vaccines

A

Vaccine induced effects
Vaccine potentiated effects
Programatic error
Coincident effects

92
Q

Give examples of adverse events from vaccines

A

Heat, swelling, redness at vaccine site
Lethargy, loss of appetite, fever (can lead to pregnancy loss)
Severe allergic reactions
Feline injection site sarcoma

93
Q

What type of reaction are adverse effects from vaccines commonly

A

Hypersensitivity reactions

94
Q

Where do you report adverse event from a vaccine

A

Veterinary Medicines Directorate Pharmacovigilance Team

95
Q

What 3 things do you visually assess when looking at synovial fluid

A

Colour
Turbidity
Viscosity

96
Q

what 3 parameters do you assess using cytology on synovial fluid

A

Total leukocytes
Neutrophil percentage
Total proteins

97
Q

What 3 structures are affected by inflammatory joint disease

A

Joints
Tendons
Bursae

98
Q

Name 3 possible causes of inflammatory joint disease

A

Developmental
Degenerative
Iatrogenic

99
Q

Name the acute and chronic aetiologies of joint inflammation

A

Acute - intra-articular fracture, joint injection, arthroscopy
Chronic - Bone fatigue, osteoarthritis

100
Q

Give 2 methods to diagnose joint disease

A

Imaging
Lameness exam

101
Q

Give 2 examples of medications that can be used to treat joint disease

A

Anti-inflammatories
Biological therapies - injecting hyaluronic acid

102
Q

Give 3 examples of surgical treatments for joint disease

A

Arthroscopy
Tenoscopy
Bursoscopy

103
Q

Give 3 examples of aeitopathologies of joint sepsis

A

Traumatic
Iatrogenic
Haematogenous

104
Q

What is an overactive immune system

A

When there is inappropriate or extreme triggering of the immune system leading to generation of antibodies and/or T cells directed against self antigens

105
Q

How can an overactive immune system progress

A

Marked local or systemic inflammatory response
=> tissue destruction
=> clinical disease which can be life threatening

106
Q

What is an immunomodulatory drug

A

Substance that stimulated or supresses the immune system OR
A drug which is used to modify the immune response

107
Q

What is a ‘specific’ immunomodulatory drug

A

a drug targeted against a specific component of the immune system

108
Q

How is the specificity of a specific immunomodulatory drug determined

A

Ability to bind to:
An immune protein to prevent interactions with a receptor
A receptor without activating it (blocking the receptor)
Ability to specifically inhibit inflammatory cytokines

109
Q

What is an immunosuppressive drug

A

High dose glucocorticoids are the first line treatment for immune suppression

110
Q

What is the most common immunosuppressive drug class and give an example

A

Glucocorticoids e.g. prednisolone

111
Q

How are glucocorticoids a dose dependant drug

A

Anti inflammatory dose
Immune suppressive dose

112
Q

How do glucocorticoids achieve an immune suppressive dose

A

Target macrophage function
Decreases antigen processing

113
Q

Give 3 examples of adverse effects of glucocorticoids

A

Immune suppression increases risk of bacterial infections
Increased risk of thrombosis and thromboembolic disease
Iatrogenic hyperadrenocorticism
(can get iatrogenic hypoadrenocorticism if treatment is suddenly removed)

114
Q

What is the “steroid sparing” concept when treating immune mediated disease

A

Using additional immune suppressive agents to enable reductions in prednisolone dose

115
Q

Give 5 examples of steroid sparing drugs

A

Ciclosporin
Azathioprine (NEVER in cats)
Chlorambucil
Mycophenolate
Leflunomide

116
Q

Name 4 naturally occurring supplements for the immune system

A

Vitamin D
Omega 3 fatty acids
Glutamine
Arginine

117
Q

Name 3 clinical presentations which would call for specific management (joint diseases)

A

Osteoarthritis
Sepsis
Autoimmune disease

118
Q

Name 3 systemic options for treating osteoarthritis

A

NSAIDS
Bisphosphonates (equine)
Glycosaminoglycan derivatives

119
Q

Name 4 intra-articular options for treating osteoarthritis

A

Corticosteroids
Glycosaminoglycan derivatives
Synthetic hydrogels
Biological products e.g. stem cells, IRAP, PRP

120
Q

Name 2 systemic options for management of joint sepsis

A

Antibiotics
NSAIDs

121
Q

Name 2 intra articular options for management of joint sepsis

A

Antibiotics
(Opioids)

122
Q

What does IVRP stand for when talking about joint disease treatment

A

Intravenous regional limb perfusion

123
Q

Name 2 systemic options for treating immune mediated disease

A

Corticosteroids
Immunomodulators

124
Q

What are the broad therapeutic considerations for pregnancy

A

What is the effect on the pregnancy
What is the effect on the foetus

125
Q

What are the broad therapeutic considerations for lactation

A

What could the effect of the neonate be
Is there any affect on lactation
Milk withdrawal times for dairy producing animals

126
Q

Name 6 things to consider regarding pregnancy and drugs used

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion
Transplacental tranfer of drug
Ion trapping of drugs in the foetus

127
Q

What are the pharmacokinetic considerations in lactation

A

Lactation = new route of elimination
Drugs which are lipid soluble, basic, non ionised, lower plasma protein binding are most likely to be eliminated via lactation
Some drugs are inactivated by milk

128
Q

What does an immune mediated disease mean

A

In immune mediated disease there is a failure of the mechanisms that underpin “self tolerance”

129
Q

Give 3 examples of immune mediated disease in dogs

A

Immune mediated haemolytic anaemia
Immune mediated thrombocytopenia
Immune mediated polyarthritis

130
Q

Give 4 examples of irreversible diseases that can be caused by immune mediated destruction

A

Hypoadrenocorticism
Type I diabetes
Hypothyroidism
Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

131
Q

What is treatment aimed at in reversible immune mediated disease

A

Aimed at reducing or controlling the abnormal immune responses
Improve clinical signs of disease

132
Q

What is treatment aimed at in irreversible immune mediated disease

A

Treatment aimed at restoring lost function
Supplementation e.g. injecting hormones or substances to make up for the lost function

133
Q

Which hypersensitivities underly immune mediated disease

A

Type II
Type III
Type IV

134
Q

Give examples of type II hypersensitivities which underly immune mediated diseases

A

IMHA - RBC destruction
Myasthenia gravis

135
Q

Give examples of type III hypersensitivities which underly immune mediated diseases

A

Circulating immune complexes deposit in wall of small capillaries causing: glomerulonephritis, poly arthritis, uveitis

136
Q

Give examples of type IV hypersensitivities which underly immune mediated diseases

A

Hypothyroidism results from destruction of thyroid tissue by cytotoxic T cells

137
Q

What is multi systemic immune mediated disease

A

Multisystemic immune mediated disease occurs if the immune response targets more than one organ

138
Q

Give an example of multi systemic immune mediated disease

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) in people

139
Q

What immune mediated diseases are cocker spaniels at increased risk of

A

IMHA and IMT
Hypothyroidism
Keratoconjunctivitis sicca
Immune mediated pancreatitis

140
Q

Why are older dogs more likely to get immune mediated disease

A

Reduction in cell mediated immunity
e.g. increased CD8+ and reduce CD4+ cells

141
Q

Name 5 triggers for secondary immune mediated disease

A

Infection
Drugs
Neoplastic disease
Inflammation
Vaccine? poor links

142
Q

What is the pathophysiology of immune mediated poly arthritis

A

Type III hypersensitivity
Immune complex deposition in synovial basement membrane
Complement cascade activation
Recruitment of inflammatory cells (neutrophils & macrophages)
End result = release of nitric oxide, free radicals and proteases => tissue damage

143
Q

What are the 4 trigger factors for immune mediated polyarthritis

A

Type I - idiopathic IMPA
Type II - associated with infection remote from joints
Type III - associated with inflammatory GI disease
Type IV - associated with neoplastic disease

FCP (8 decks)

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