8. Reproduction Flashcards

1
Q

When in the cycle does oestrus occur

A

The latter part of the follicular phase

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2
Q

When is the optimal time to mate a female

A

Just before follicle ovulates

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3
Q

What is the fertilisation period

A

The time when oocytes are available to be fertilised by sperm

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4
Q

What is the fertile period

A

The time when mating could result in pregnancy

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5
Q

What hormones can be monitored to suggest correct time for mating

A

Progesterone - decreases before oestrus (apart from in dogs where it increases)
LH - surge triggers ovulation

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6
Q

Ovarian structures seen on ultrasound

A

Corpus Luteum - ovulation cannot occur
Antral follicles - Cow (16-20mm) Mare (30-50mm)

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7
Q

Rectal palpation to determine stage of cycle in the cow

A

If oestrogen is dominant - narrow and tense cervix
progesterone dominant - cervix and uterus are flaccid and soft

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8
Q

Rectal palpation to determine stage of cycle in the mare

A

oestrogen dominant - cervix is broad and soft, uterus is soft
progesterone dominant - cervix is hard and narrow, uterus has increased tone

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9
Q

Cells on vaginal cytology to suggest stage of cycle - anoestrus, proestrus, early oestrus, late oestrus

A

Anoestrus - small, nucleated cells
Proestrus - RBC
Early oestrus - less RBC, larger cells, some anuclear
Late oestrus - low RBC, mostly large and anuclear

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10
Q

Pharmacological control of ovulation

A

GnRH => LH surge => ovulation
HCG - has LH like activity => induce ovulation

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11
Q

Breeding soundness exam - female, general process

A

Clinical history - previous pregnancy, could the animal be pregnant
Risk of infection/zoonosis
Any pathogen screening required - e.g. horses
General clinical exam
Mammary glands, perineum, vulva, vestibule, cervix, uterus, ovaries

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12
Q

Pathogen screening required in the female

A

Bacteria - CEMO, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas in the horse
Viral - FeLV in the cat

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13
Q

Cervix exam - what to look for

A

Evaluation of cervical opening - stage of the cycle
Abnormal - discharge, trauma, fibrosis
DONT breech unless 100% sure not pregnant

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14
Q

Uterine exam - methods

A

Trans-rectal palpation
Trans-abdominal palpation
Radiography
Ultrasonography
Endoscopy
Cytology
Biopsy

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15
Q

Ovarian exam - methods

A

Palpation - rectally
Ultrasound
Radiography

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16
Q

Pregnancy diagnosis - main methods

A

Absence of oestrus
Detection of hormones/proteins associated with pregnancy
Detection of the foetus or foetal membrane
Physical changes in the dam
Maternal changes secondary to endocrinological changes

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17
Q

Endocrinological changes in the mare - pregnant vs not pregnant

A

If not pregnant - progesterone falls
If pregnant:
Progesterone high from the primary CL
primary CL wanes - lower progesterone
Endometrial cups => eCG => high progesterone
Cups wane - progesterone drops
Oestrogen high

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18
Q

Specific marker of pregnancy in the bitch

A

Relaxin - increases around day 24

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19
Q

Most common methods of PD in a cow and when

A

Transrectal ultrasound - day 28
Transrectal palpation - day 35

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20
Q

Most common method of PD in a ewe and when

A

Transabdominal ultrasound - day 30

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21
Q

Most common methods of PD in a mare and when

A

Transrectal ultrasound - day 15
transrectal palpation - day 21
eCG - day 60-120

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22
Q

Most common methods of PD in a bitch/queen and when

A

Transabdominal ultrasound - day 25
plasma relaxin - day 25

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23
Q

Most common method of PD in a sow and when

A

transabdominal B-mode ultrasound - day 20

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24
Q

Breeding soundness exam - Male, general process

A

Clinical history
Any infectious risk
Pathogen screening required
General clinical exam
Observation of Libido
Exam of the scrotum, testes, sheath, penis, and accessory glands
Collect and testing of ejaculate

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25
Q

Pathogen screening - male

A

Bacteria - CEMO, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas in horse
Virus - porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PRRS) in boars

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26
Q

Aspects of libido to look for

A

Interest in female
Detection of oestrus by the male
Mounting behaviour
Erection
Intromission
Ejaculation
Interest after mounting

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27
Q

Examination of ejaculate

A

Number of sperm
Motility
Morphology
Live staining
Other

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28
Q

Endocrinology testing of cryptorchidism

A

Rig Test
Use hCG or GnRH stimulation test
See if testosterone increases

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29
Q

Why monitor fertility in the male

A

Important driver of efficacy - profit
Hard to see externally

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30
Q

Types of measures of fertility

A

Measuring number of offspring
- lambing percentage
- piglets/sow/year
Not measuring the number of offspring:
- birthing interval
- proportion pregnant in a season

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31
Q

What is a conception rate

A

Proportion of cows that are served that become pregnant

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32
Q

What is the submission rate

A

Proportion of eligible cows are we serving

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33
Q

3 events that occur during normal sexual development

A
  1. establishment of sex chromosomes
  2. modelling of embryonic gonadal tissue
  3. recession and growth of external genital tissue
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34
Q

What is chimerism? and give an example

A

A chimera is an organism whose cells are derived from two or more zygotes.
e.g. bovine freemartin

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35
Q

What is a true hermaphrodite

A

Histological evidence of both ovarian and testicular tissue
Karyotype is often XX
ambiguity of external/internal genitalia or both

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36
Q

What is a male pseudohermaphrodite

A

Incompletely masculinised and ambiguous external and internal genitalia
Karyotype is XY
Gonads look like testes

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37
Q

What is a female pseudohermaphrodite

A

Karyotype is XX
Feminine (ambiguous in a few cases) internal genitalia, masculinised external genitalia.

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38
Q

Common pathologies of the ovaries

A

Ovotestis
Ovarian cysts/para ovarian cysts
Neoplasms e.g. granulose cell tumour

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39
Q

congenital lesions of the uterus

A

Segmental aplasia
Mesonephric cysts

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40
Q

inflammatory disorders of the uterus

A

Endometritis - inflammation of the endometrium
Metritis - inflammation has extended to the myometrium
Pyometra - suppurative infection of the uterus

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41
Q

Common neoplasm of the uterus

A

Leiomyoma - smooth muscle tumours
Endometrial carcinoma - cows

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42
Q

Common neoplasm of the external genitalia

A

Leiomyoma - smooth muscle tumour
Squamous cell carcinoma
Canine transmissible venereal tumour
Fibropapiloma - cow vulva

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43
Q

Common mammary gland pathology

A

mastitis

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44
Q

Mammary tumours in small animals

A

benign - adenomas (epithelial), and mixed tumours
metastatic - carcinomas

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45
Q

What is cryptorchidism

A

Incomplete decent of one or both of the testes

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46
Q

what is testicular hypoplasia and what are the causes

A

Testes appear smaller than normal, congenital or pre-puberty
causes - poor nutrition, zinc deficiency, genetic, endocrine disorders

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47
Q

what is testicular atrophy/degeneration and what are the causes

A

After puberty reduction in size of the testes
small and firm consistency
Causes - infection, increased scrotal temperature, decreased blood supply, radiation damage

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48
Q

inflammation of testes and epididymis real name

A

Orchitis (testes), epididymitis (epididymus)

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49
Q

causes of epididymitis in the ram

A

Brucella ovis - Notifiable
Haematogenous spread to testes

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50
Q

3 types of testicular neoplasia

A

Interstitial (Leydig) cell tumour
Seminoma
Sertoli cell tumour

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51
Q

Types of prostatic disease

A

Hyperplasia
Prostatitis
Neoplasia

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52
Q

Prostatitis - how does it develop and what can it lead to

A

Ascending bacterial infection
Can develop to peritonitis, septicaemia/toxaemia

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53
Q

Conception failure vs Embryonic death

A

Conception failure = not fertilisation so no zygote forms
Embryonic death = loss of embryo before organogenesis completes

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54
Q

Early pregnancy loss causes (3) in cows

A

Negative energy balance
Ovarian pathology
Nutrition

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55
Q

Early pregnancy loss causes (2) in pigs

A

Ovarian pathologies
Uterine capacity

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56
Q

Nutrition issues leading to early pregnancy loss in cows

A

Negative energy balance
High non-esterified fatty acids
High protein => elevated urea => toxic to oocytes

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57
Q

Infectious diseases causing embryonic death in sheep

A

Toxoplasmosis
Schmallenberg
Boarder disease

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58
Q

What hormone stimulates follicular growth

A

FSH

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59
Q

What hormone stimulates ovulation

A

LH and hCG

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60
Q

what hormone stimulates luteolysis

A

PGF2A (prostaglandin)

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61
Q

What are the short term effects of GnRH in females

A

Hasten oestrus or ovulation by inducing LH surge
Force ovulation or luteinization of cystic structures

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62
Q

What are the long term actions of GnRH in females e.g. desorelin implant

A

Initial stimulation of HPG axis
Then down-regulation of GnRH receptor so surpasses the axis
Controlling breeding behaviour

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63
Q

Use of FSH pharmacologically in females

A

Superovulation
eCG has FSH like activity

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64
Q

Use of LH pharmacologically in females, and what has LH like activity

A

Stimulates maturation of follicles
hCH has LH like activity

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65
Q

Use of progesterone pharmacologically in females

A

Suppresses the HPG axis - treat/prevent pseudopregnancy
Inducing/ synchronising oestrus with progesterone withdrawal

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66
Q

What are progesterone receptor antagonists used for in females

A

terminating pregnancy in dogs

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67
Q

what are oestrogens used for in females (hint - focus on target tissues)

A

Control of urinary incontinence

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68
Q

What Is PGF2A used for in females

A

Terminating luteal phase to synchronise oestrus
Induction of abortion
Induction of parturition

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69
Q

What are prolactin inhibitors used for, and how do they work

A

Removes CL support => luteolysis => end of luteal phase
Terminating pregnancy
Treating pyometras
Reduce behaviour of pseudopregnancy
Stop milk production

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70
Q

What is melatonin used for in ewes and mares

A

Ewe - bring on cyclicality
Mare - suppresses oestrus

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71
Q

What is oxytocin used for in the female

A

Initiates strong contractions of uterine muscles
Aid passage of retained placenta
Promotes milk let-down

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72
Q

What are progestogens used for in males

A

Decrease testosterone levels (negative feedback)
Suppress spermatogenesis

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73
Q

What is a GnRH depot injection used for in males

A

Initial stimulation of the axis
Receptor down-regulation => down regulated testosterone production for a limited amount of time

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74
Q

Will giving gonadotropins improve semen quality

A

No

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75
Q

What is LH (hCG) used for pharmacologically in males

A

Confirming presence of testicular tissue (rig test)

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76
Q

How to simulate onset of cyclicality early in sheep

A

Melatonin
Progestogen sponges - them removal
Ram effect

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77
Q

How to synchronise groups of sows/gilts pharmacologically

A

Progestogen for 14-18 days
can also use eCG just before P4 removal

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78
Q

How to control cyclicality in cows pharmacologically

A

Ovsynch (GnRH, PGF2A, GnRH)
Progestogen and PGF
2 doses of PGF 12 days apart

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79
Q

How to suppress oestrus in mares

A

Daily treatments of progestogen 10-15 days

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80
Q

How to stimulate onset of cyclicity in mares

A

Daylight
Oral progestogen for 10 days

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81
Q

how to suppress oestrus in the bitch

A

Progestogen depots for 6 months
GnRH agonist implant - takes time to act

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82
Q

How to induce oestrus in bitches

A

Prolactin inhibitors
GnRH agonist implant
hCG induces ovulation

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83
Q

how to suppress oestrus in the queen

A

GnRH agonist implant
GnRH antagonists
Melatonin implants

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84
Q

How to induce oestrus in the queen

A

Exposure to daylight
hCG induces ovulation

85
Q

how to treat anovulatory anoestrus pharmacologically

A

Stimulate ovarian follicle wave development
Ovsynch and progesterone
Progesterone and eCG

86
Q

How to treat cystic ovarian disease (follicular or luteal)

A

If follicular - GnRH or hCG to induce luteinisation
In luteal - PGF2A to stimulate luteolysis

87
Q

How to treat persistent CL/prolonged dioestrus

A

Induce luteolysis - PGF2A

87
Q

What is immunoconception

A

Vaccination against key reproductive proteins

88
Q

2 common targets for immunoconception

A

Zona pellucida vaccines
Anti-GnRH vaccines

89
Q

how to treat pseudopregnancy

A

Block action of progesterone
terminate luteal function (PGF2A or prolactin inhibitors)
Mimic fetal signal (corticosteroids)

90
Q

Types of surgical neutering in the female

A

Ovariohysterectomy
Ovariectomy
Hysterectomy

91
Q

What time to surgically neuter in the cycling bitch

A

> 12 weeks after oestrus - spaying in anoestrus
3 weeks post oestrus - removal of ovaries before prolactin starts so no risk of pseudopregnancy

92
Q

When to neuter a cycling queen

A

Avoid oestrus - uterus is more vascular and friable

93
Q

types of surgical neutering in the male

A

Orchidectomy (castration)
Vasectomy - teaser rams
Crushing of spermatic cord - calves
Inducing ischaemic necrosis of scrotum - lambs
Injection of irritants into testis - chemical castration

94
Q

Castration types

A

Open - enter the parietal vaginal tunic
Closed - don’t enter the parietal vaginal tunic

95
Q

what type of castration is used in rodents and why

A

Closed or modified technique
Rodents have open inguinal canal so risk of hernia

96
Q

Complications of neutering during surgery

A

Anaesthesia related
Bleeding
Damage to other organs

97
Q

Complications of neutering during recovery

A

Anaesthesia related
Bleeding
Herniation

98
Q

Complications of neutering shortly after surgery

A

wound inflammation
scrotal haematoma
wound infection
wound breakdown
dogs licking scrotum

99
Q

Longer term complications from neutering

A

Surgical material left behind
Pyogranuloma
Incomplete removal of gonad

100
Q

Consequences of removing the gonads

A

Increased risk of some diseases e.g. urinary incontinence, neoplasia, growth plate fractures
body conformational changes e.g. loss of male characteristics

101
Q

3 main categories of causes of infertility in the female

A

Anatomical
Physiological
Management

102
Q

Anatomical causes of infertility in females - congenital vs acquired

A

Congenital - ovarian hypoplasia, free-martinism, persistence of hymen (mare)
Acquired - adhesions, endometrial fibrosis, cystic endometrial hyperplasia

103
Q

Physiological causes of infertility in females

A

Ovarian pathology
Uterine infection
Failure to establish pregnancy

104
Q

Management causes of infertility in females

A

Nutrition
Poor oestrus detection
Stress

105
Q

Types of ovarian pathology which cause infertility in females

A

Anovulatory anoestrus
Cystic ovarian disease
persistent CL

106
Q

2 aspects of ‘failure to establish pregnancy’

A

conception failure
early embryonic death

107
Q

Nutritional influences on infertility

A

Negative energy balance
vitamin or mineral deficiencies or toxicity
oestrogen substances in plants - red clover
increased dietary proteins => increase urea => toxic to oocyte

108
Q

definition of fertility

A

capability of producing offspring

109
Q

definition of sterility

A

absolute inability to producing offspring

110
Q

definition of subfertility/infertility

A

less than average ability to produce offspring

111
Q

classification of infertility in the male (2 categories)

A

Inability to achieve coitus
Inability to fertilise

112
Q

Examples of abnormalities of coitus in the male

A

Immaturity
Inability or unwilling to mount
inability to achieve intromission
Haematospermia

113
Q

examples of failure of fertilisation in the male

A

Testicular disease
sperm abnormalities
accessory gland disease
epididymal lesions

114
Q

Causes of inability to achieve intromission in the male

A

Failure of erection
Penile deviations
Penile trauma
Preputial abnormalities

115
Q

Definition of resorption (of an embryo)

A

Death and resorption of an embryo - before mineralisation occurs

116
Q

Definition of mummification

A

death of an embryo with the maintenance of progesterone => rapid absorption of fluid => mummify

117
Q

Definition of maceration

A

Autolysis/putrefaction of the dead foetus that has not been expelled

118
Q

Fetal death vs stillbirth

A

Fetal death - death of the foetus
Stillbirth - fetus reaches term but dies during process of delivery

119
Q

Types of infectious causes of pregnancy loss

A

Reproductive pathogens
Recrudescence of latent viral infections
Ascending infections

120
Q

non infectious causes of pregnancy loss

A

Stress
Maternal illness => pyrexia
Nutritional phytotoxins
Genetic abnormalities
Uterine disease - cannot form a placenta

121
Q

significance of the lute-placental shift

A

time frame where progesterone production switches from CL to the placenta
This means that f the foetus dies after the shift, there is nothing producing progesterone as the placenta dies too - so the foetus will be expulsed
if there is no shift and foetus dies, CL will contuse to produce P4 so foetus will be retained => mummification/maceration

122
Q

Which species do NOT have a luteo-placental shift

A

goat, dog, pig

123
Q

4 stages of parturition

A

Preparation - production of relaxin
First stage - onset of uterine contraction
Second stage - onset of abdominal contractions and delivery of foetus
Third stage - delivery of placenta

124
Q

Main causes of dystocia - maternal

A

Inadequate expulsive forces - uterine inertia, weak abdominal straining
Inadequate size of birth canal - incomplete dilation, inadequate pelvis

125
Q

Main causes of dystocia - fetal

A

Oversized
fault disposition - wrong presentation

126
Q

6 main postpartum conditions

A

Haemorrhage
Trauma/laceraltions
Prolapse
Placental retention
Metritis
Recumbency/nerve damage

127
Q

Degrees of laceration of the perineum

A

first degree - skin and mucosa
second degree - involves muscle of perineal body
third degree - torn vagina and rectal wall (cloaca)
Vagino-rectal fistula -penetration from vaginal cavity into the rectum

128
Q

causes of post partum haemorrhage

A

breakage of the umbilicus and blood leaking from placenta
Uterine or vaginal laceration

129
Q

Types of prolapses

A

uterus
bladder
vagina and cervix

130
Q

Consequences of retained foetal membranes

A

Increases risk of bacterial invasion as cervix stays open
Risk of metritis

131
Q

Why are retained foetal membranes an emergency in the mare

A

Metritis => laminitis which can be severe

132
Q

Most common causes of recumbency post partum

A

Hypocalcaemia
Hypomagnesia
Leg/nerve injury
Other injury

133
Q

Causes of dystocia in the cow

A

Breed - Holsteins have a high incidence
Beef sires - feto-maternal disposition common
Heifers bred at an early age
Twin pregnancies

134
Q

Causes of dystocia in the mare

A

Faulty disposition - fetus has to rotate during delivery
Second stage of parturition is very short - obstructive dystocia due to faulty disposition

135
Q

Causes of dystocia in the bitch

A

Primary uterine inertia
Faulty disposition
Feto-maternal disproportion - especially for bully breeds

136
Q

Causes of dystocia in the queen

A

Primary uterine inertia
Faulty disposition
Fetal monsters
Previous pelvic trauma

137
Q

Causes of dystocia in the sheep

A

Feto-maternal disproportion
Faulty disposition

138
Q

Causes of dystocia in the sow

A

Uterine inertia
Simultaneous presentation of foetuses

139
Q

Treatment options for dystocia

A

Manipulation
Fetotomy
Caesarean section

140
Q

Indications for caesarean - cow

A

calf cannot be delivered with traction and mutation
uterine torsion
incomplete dilation of cervix
When fetotomy would be traumatic, expensive and more time-consuming

141
Q

Indications for caesarean - mare

A

Abnormal disposition which cannot be corrected
Uterine torsion
Severe deformities
Vaginal or vestibular obstruction

142
Q

Indications for caesarean - bitch and queen

A

primary uterine inertia
obstructive dystocia than cannot be corrected or large litter
fetal distress
signs of placental separation with more of the litter to be born

143
Q

Indications for caesarean - ewe

A

feto-maternal disproportion
ring womb
traumatised vaginal prolapse

144
Q

Indications for caesarean - sow

A

prolonged parturition >12 hours
fetomaternal disproportion
secondary uterine inertia

145
Q

Changes with pregnancy that affect anaesthesia

A

increased oxygen requirements
decreased functional residual capacity
increase cardiac output
delayed gastric emptying

146
Q

Anaesthesia for c section - drug considerations

A

Chose drugs with short duration of action
lowest possible doses
oxygenate
use a cuffed tube - reduce regurgitation
local anaesthetics to reduce MAC

147
Q

What are the 3 options of local anaesthetic for ruminant c section

A

Inverted L block
Proximal paravertebral block
Distal paravertebral block

148
Q

steps in anaesthesia for a c section

A

Premedication
Check equipment and place IV cannula
Preoxygenation
Induce
Monitor
Post op recovery

149
Q

differenced between neonates and adults

A

Can’t thermoregulate well
Immature renal and hepatic function
High risk of hypovolaemia and hypoglycaemia
Immunological immaturity

150
Q

How passive immunity is acquired

A

Transplacental
Colostrum

151
Q

Types of immunoglobulins in colostrum

A

Mainly IgG
some IgM and IgE

152
Q

when to vaccinate neonates

A

In the immunity gap
between decline in maternal antibodies and increase in making their own antibodies

153
Q

Causes of failure of passive transfer (FPT)

A

Poor quality colostrum
Not enough colostrum
Not enough colostrum quick enough

154
Q

Consequences of failure of passive transfer (FPT)

A

increased likelihood of infection
GI and respiratory disease
Joint sepsis
Umbilical abscess

155
Q

Treatment of Failure of passive transfer

A

Donor colostrum (before 12 hours)
Hyperimmune plasma (after 12 hours)

156
Q

Common problems sick in foals

A

Meconium impaction
Failure passive transfer
Sepsis
Hernia
Perinatal asphyxia syndrome

157
Q

Steps in clinical exam of mammary gland

A

Look a the skin
Palpation of the gland
Examination of the teat and teat canal
Expression of milk (in lactating animals)
Milk production data (dairy cows mostly)

158
Q

Tests to look for mammary gland disease

A

California mastitis test
Ultrasound exam
Fine needle aspiration

159
Q

Common mammry disorders

A

Disease of the skin
Damage to the suspensory apparatus
Damage to skin/teat
Inverted nipple
Mastitis
Mammary enlargement
Neoplasia
Agalactia

160
Q

what is the TNM system for classification and staging of tumors

A

T = primary tumour
N = regional lymph nodes affected
M = distant matastasis

161
Q

2 causes of agalactia and how to treat

A

Failure of milk production - give prolactin agonist e.g. metaclopramide
Failure of milk let down - give oxytocin

162
Q

2 pathogeneses of kidney disease

A

Haematogenous (descending infection)
Urinary (ascending infection)

163
Q

Viral aetiologies of kidney disease

A

Canine herpesvirus 1
Ovine herpesvirus 2
Canine adenovirus 1

164
Q

Bacteria aetiologies of kidney disease

A

Escherichia coli
Leptospira interrogans
Actinobacillus equuli
Corynebacterium renale

165
Q

Parasitic aetiologies of kidney disease

A

Toxocara canis
Halicephalobus gingivalis
Encephalitozoon cuniculi
Leishmania spp.

166
Q

Causes of non-suppurative tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

E. coli
Canine herpesvirus 1
canine adenovirus 1
L. interrogans

167
Q

what type of inflammation is caused by non-suppurative tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

Lympho-histiocytic inflammation

168
Q

Appearance of kidneys with non-suppurative tubulointerstitial nephritis

A

swollen
pale tan colour
grey mottling of capsular surface

169
Q

Causes of suppurative embolic nephritis

A

Actinobacillus equuli
Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Trueperella pyogenes.

170
Q

what kidney disease has ‘showers of septic emboli’

A

Suppurative embolic nephritis

171
Q

Causes of pyelonephritis (bacterial)

A

E. coli
Staphylococci
Streptococci
Pseudomonas
Enterobacter

172
Q

Pathogenesis of lower urinary tract infections

A

Ascending - from urethra
descending - from nephritis or pyelonephritis

173
Q

Causes of cystitis (inflammation of the bladder) - pathogens

A

E. coli
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Enterococci
Proteus vulgaris

174
Q

Predisposing factors for cystitis

A

Stagnatio of urine
uroliths causing trauma
catheterisation
diabete mellitus
corticosteroids
hyperoestrogenism
being female

175
Q

what is an amyloid

A

misfolded, abnormal proteinaceous material associated with chronic inflammation

176
Q

what is amyloidosis

A

Extracellular deposition of amyloid
When amyloids lodge in glomerulus, it becomes permanently open and no longer functions

177
Q

How to identify amyloids

A

Congo red stain
Glow apple green under polarised light

178
Q

what is nephrotic syndrome and how it develops

A

Damage to glomerular filtration barrier =>
Leakage of low molecular weight proteins into glomerular filtrate e.g. albumin =>
Protein rich filtrate in tubules =>
Protein in urine

179
Q

4 causes of nephrotic syndrome

A

Amyloidosis
Glomerularnephritis
Neoplasia
Diabetes Mellitus

180
Q

Clinical signs of nephrotic syndrome

A

Proteinuria
Hypoprotenaemia
Hyperlipidemia
Generalised oedema

181
Q

how does nephrotic syndrome cause hyperlipidaemia

A

Hepatic response to hypoproteinaemia
Generalised increase in production of proteins
Lipoproteins => hyperlipoproteinaemia and hypercholesterolemia

182
Q

How does nephrotic syndrome cause oedema

A

Decreased plasma colloid osmotic pressure
Stimulates RAAS
Stimulates release of ADH in response to hypovolaemia
Body retains water

183
Q

How glomerulonephritis causes nephrotic. syndrome

A

Damages glomerular filtration barrier => proteinuria or protein losing nephropathy
if this gets severe enough = nephrotic syndrome

184
Q

Common causes of glomerulonephritis

A

Chronic immune repose => deposition of immune complexes
Viral infections - FeLV, FIV, FIPV, BVDV, canine adenovirus 1
Bacterial infections - pyometra, pyoderma
Parasitism - dirofilariasis, Leishmaniasis
Neoplasia

185
Q

Glomerulosclerosis cause

A

Chronic glomerulonephritis

186
Q

common causes of acute tubular necrosis

A

Hypoxia/ischaemia
Nephrotoxicity

187
Q

2 types of tubulointersistial nephritis

A

Suppurative
Non-suppurative

188
Q

Embolic suppurative nephritis consequences

A

Bacteraemia or septic thromboembolism
Multiple small accesses (micro abscesses) or some large ones

189
Q

Name the agent causing embolic suppurative nephritis in the following species - horse, swine, cattle, sheep/goat

A

Horse - Actinobacillus equuli
Swine - secondary to Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae
Cattle - Trueperella pyogenes
Sheep/Goat - Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

190
Q

What is pyelonephritis and how does the infection arrive

A

Inflammation of the pelvis and renal parenchyma
Ascending infection

191
Q

Risk factors for pyelonephritis

A

Urine stasis/obstruction
Being female
Diabetes
Congenoital malformations e.g. ectopic ureters

192
Q

Endogenous and specific urinary pathogens that cause pyelonephritis

A

Endogenous - E. coli, staphylococci, streptococci, Enterobacter spp.
Pathogens - Corynebacterium renale (cattle)
Actinobaculum suis (swine)

193
Q

What is the most common renal neoplasia

A

Renal carcinoma - highly malignant

194
Q

What is the most common neoplasm of the urinary bladder

A

Urothelial cell carcinoma (epithelial cell tumour)

195
Q

How renal damage alters Cs2+ and P metabolism

A

Renal damage => decreased GFR => retention of phosphate => hyperphosphatemia
Increased formation of hydroxyapatite crystals
Binds to calcium reducing free calcium in the blood
Crystal causes secondary systemic metastatic mineralization
Hypocalcemia stimulated parathyroid gland => hypoplastic => renal secondary hypoparathyroidism
Increased PTH => increased bone resorption

196
Q

What 3 things cause umbilical swelling

A

Defect in umbilical wall
Infections
Persistent urachus

197
Q

Treatment options for non-emergency hernias

A

Constricting bands
Surgery

198
Q

Signs of persistent urachus

A

Dribbling of urine from urachus
Posturing to urinate and failing
Pain

199
Q

Omphalophlebitis vs omphaloarteritis vs urachal sepsis

A

Omphalophlebitis - Infection of the umbilical veins
Omphaloarteritis - Infections of one or both of the umbilical arteries
Urachal sepsis - Infection of the urachus

200
Q

How chronic kidney disease progressed to kidney failure

A

Destruction and loss of nephrons
Remaining nephrons hypertrophy
Progressive and irreversible loss of nephrons
End result is fibrosis

201
Q

What is acute kidney injury

A

Sudden onset damage
Reversible
if progresses with permeant loss of nephrons => CKD
Rapidly fatal

202
Q

Name 6 causes of acute kidney injury (AKI)

A
  1. Poor renal perfusion/ severe hypoxia
  2. Nephrotoxins e.g. ethylene glycol
  3. Obstructive disease of either ureter or urethra
  4. Infection
  5. Hypercalcaemia
  6. Cutaneous and renal glomerular vasculopathy (Alabama rot in dogs)
203
Q

Name 5 causes of chronic kidney disease (CKD)

A
  1. Resulting from AKI
  2. Familial renal disease e.g. amyloidosis or renal dysplasia
  3. Inflammation or immune mediated disease
  4. Ischaemia. vascular injury
  5. Unknown
204
Q

2 types of ectopic ureters

A

Extramural: inserts in urethra, vestibule or vagina (females) or ductus deferens (male)
Intramural: correct insertion site at trigone of bladder but tunnels in urethral wall to open distally

205
Q

3 forms of ureteral obstruction

A

Intraluminal e.g. clots
Intramural e.g. neoplasia or stricture
Extramural e.g. post op ligation of ureter

206
Q

Unilateral ureteral obstruction consequence

A

↑ ureteric pressure proximal to obstruction => ↑ renal tubular pressure => ↓GFR
Complete obstruction => hydronephrosis => fibrosis
Compensatory hypertrophy of kidney

207
Q

Bilateral ureteral obstruction consequences

A

Life thretening
Renal pain and azotemia
AKI