8.4 Gene technologies Flashcards

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1
Q

What does recombinant DNA technology involve?

A

Involves the transfer of fragments of DNA from one organism to another. Since the genetic code is universal, as are transcription and translation mechanisms, the transferred DNA can be translated within cells of the recipient (transgenic) organism

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2
Q

Describe the process of recombinant DNA technology:

A
  1. Isolation of DNA fragments containing the desired gene
  2. Insertion of DNA fragment into vector
  3. Transformation (transfer of DNA into host organism)
  4. Identification of host cells that have successfully taken up the gene, using gene markers
  5. Growth/cloning to increase the number of host cells
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3
Q

What are the 3 different methods in which fragments of DNA can be produced?

A
  1. Conversion of mRNA to complementary DNA (cDNA), using reverse transcriptase
  2. Using restriction enzymes to cut a fragment containing the desired gene from DNA
  3. Creating the gene in a ‘gene machine’
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4
Q

Describe the process of conversion of mRNA to complementary DNA (cDNA), using reverse transcriptase:

A
  1. mRNA isolated from a cell that readily synthesises the protein coded for by the desired gene
  2. Mix mRNA with DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase –> reverse transcriptase uses mRNA as a template to synthesise a single strand of DNA
  3. DNA polymerase is used to build up the complementary nucleotides on the cDNA, forms second strand of DNA (double stranded)
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5
Q

What is the advantage of using mRNA to make DNA fragments?

A
  • More relevant mRNA in cell than DNA easily extracted
  • Introns removed by splicing (in eukaryotes) whereas DNA contains introns
  • Bacteria can’t remove introns
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6
Q

Describe the process of using restriction enzymes to cut a fragment containing the desired gene from DNA:

A
  • Some restriction endonucleases have a recognition site that produces a straight cut and therefore blunt ends (less control) : shape of recognition site complementary to active site
  • Some restriction endonucleases cut in a staggered fashion = ‘sticky ends’ formed : only inserted in one way therefore more control
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7
Q

Describe the process of creating the gene in a ‘gene machine’

A
  1. Desired sequence of nucleotide bases in a gene is determined from the amino acid sequence of the protein produced, and put into a computer
  2. Sequence is checked for biosafety and biosecurity
  3. Computer designs a series of small, overlapping single strands of nucleotides, called oligonucleotides, which are synthesised and assembled into the gene
  4. PCR is used to replicate the desired gene (double stranded)
  5. Gene cloning can be used to amplify the gene
  6. Genes are checked for errors before being inserted into host organism
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8
Q

What is the difference between in vivo and in vitro?

A

In vivo - host cell using a vector
In vitro - PCR (amplification of specific DNA fragments)

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9
Q

What does a PCR (polymerase chain reaction) require?

A
  • DNA fragment
  • Taq polymerase
  • Forward/reverse primers
  • Nucleotides
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10
Q

Describe the first step of the PCR:

A

Strand separation (95°C)
- Causes the two strands of the DNA fragments to separate due to the breaking of the hydrogen bonds

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11
Q

Describe the second step of the PCR:

A

Primer annealing (55°C)
- Mixture cooled to 55°C causing the primers to join to their complementary bases at the end of the DNA fragment. Primers provide the starting sequences for DNA polymerase to begin DNA copying because DNA polymerase can only attach nucleotides to the end of an existing chain.
- Two different primers required

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12
Q

Describe the third step of the PCR:

A

Extension (72°C)
- Optimum temperature for DNA polymerase to make complementary copies of DNA
- Nucleotides align next to complementary exposed bases
- DNA polymerase joins adjacent nucleotides, forming phosphodiester bonds

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13
Q

Why do promotor and terminator regions need to be added?

A

Need to be added in order for the gene to be transcribed and then translated into a protein

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14
Q

What are promotor regions?

A

DNA sequences that tell RNA polymerase when to start producing mRNA

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15
Q

What are terminator regions?

A

Tell RNA polymerase when to stop transcription

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16
Q

How are restriction endonucleases and ligases used to insert fragments of DNA into vectors?

A
  • Vector transports DNA into host cell eg/plasmids
  • Vector DNA and DNA fragment cut using same restriction enzyme
  • Vector DNA and DNA fragment have complementary sticky ends –> complementary base pair
  • DNA ligase forms phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides on sticky ends
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17
Q

Describe the transformation of host cells using vectors?

A
  • Once the DNA has been incorporated into at least some of the plasmids, they must then be reintroduced into bacterial cells
  • Involves the plasmids and bacterial cells being mixed together in a medium containing calcium ions
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18
Q

What are the conditions used for transformation?

A

Calcium ions and changes in temperature - makes the bacterial membrane permeable, allowing the plasmids to pass through the cell-surface membrane

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19
Q

How come not all the bacterial cells possess the DNA fragments with the desired gene for the desired proteins?

A
  • Only a few bacterial cells take up the plasmids when the two are mixed together
  • Some plasmids will have closed up again without incorporating the DNA fragments
  • Sometimes the DNA fragment ends join together to form its own plasmid
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20
Q

What are marker genes used for?

A
  • Not all cells/organisms will take up the vector and be transformed
  • Marker genes inserted into vectors at the same time as target gene, added in order to identify which cells have the desired gene
21
Q

What can marker genes be?

A
  • Enzyme whose action can be identified
  • Fluorescent markers
  • Antibiotic-resistance marker genes
22
Q

What are the advantages of in vivo gene cloning?

A
  • Useful for introducing a gene into another organism (eg/ humans) - used in gene therapy
  • Almost no risk of contamination, as plasmid and gene are cut with the same restriction enzyme
  • Very accurate (few errors in the DNA)
  • Cuts out specific genes
  • Produces transformed bacteria that can be used to produce large quantities of gene products
23
Q

When might PCR be useful?

A
  • Commonly used in medical/biological research
  • For detecting the presence or absence of a gene to help identify pathogens
  • Identification of criminals
  • Gene technologies
24
Q

What are the advantages of in vitro gene cloning?

A
  • Very rapid (100 billion copies produced within a few hours)
  • Can amplify small DNA samples eg/ forensic analysis from a crime scene
  • Does not require living cells, therefore no complex culturing techniques are required
25
Q

What are some benefits of recombinant DNA technology?

A
  • GM microorganisms can produce antibiotics, hormones and enzymes
  • GM microorganisms can digest oil slicks and control pollution
  • GM plants can produce drugs, or antibodies, to treat disease
  • GM crops that are resistant to drought/cold/heat/salt/pollution/pests - financial benefits of increased yield, and makes land more productive, with social benefits
  • GM crops with gene for vitamin A production can prevent blindness
  • GM animals can produce antibiotics, hormones and enzymes inexpensively
  • Gene therapy to treat cystic fibrosis and SCID
  • Genetic fingerprinting in forensic science
26
Q

What are some risks of recombinant DNA technology?

A
  • Unpredictable effects on metabolic pathways of transformed cell - could lead to cancer
  • Antibiotic resistance marker genes may be spread to other, pathogenic bacteria
  • Move towards designer babies, cosmetic gene therapy or eugenics
  • Is the cost of recombinant DNA technology justified?
27
Q

What are some environmental dangers of recombinant DNA technology?

A
  • Unpredictable long term ecological consequences of GMOs within the natural environment
  • Recombinant gene may pass to other organisms eg/ producing ‘superweeds’
  • Artificial selection of ‘desired’ characteristics may reduce genetic diversity (essential for evolution)
  • Bt-crops - pollen toxic to butterflies and bees. Could also be toxic to humans
  • Risk of allergies to GM crops - often difficult to identify GM products
  • Farmers not permitted by law to save and re-sow GM seed, so crops to not adapt to local conditions
28
Q

What is a DNA probe?

A

A short, single stranded piece of DNA that is complementary to a certain region of DNA and is labelled in some way (radioactive or fluorescent)

29
Q

How is a DNA probe used to identify particular alleles?

A
  • The double-stranded DNA that is being tested is treated to separate its two strands
  • The separated DNA strands are mixed with the probe, which binds to the complementary base sequence on one of the strands (DNA hybridisation)
  • The site at which the probe binds can be identified by the radioactivity or fluorescence that the probe emits
30
Q

How can a DNA probe be made ‘identifiable’?

A
  1. Radioactively labelled by using nucleotides containing the isotope of 32P. These probes are identified by using an x-ray film that is exposed by radioactivity
  2. Fluorescently labelled - emit light when bound to the target sequence
31
Q

How can DNA probes be used in genetic engineering?

A
  • Individuals could be screened to find out if they are carriers of genetic diseases like cystic fibrosis
  • Individuals could be screened to find out if the carry mutations that might make them more prone to certain types of cancer/heart disease/ Alzheimer’s
  • Aminocentesis could be used to screen a foetus’ cells for genetic disease
32
Q

When does DNA hybridisation take place?

A

Takes place when a section of DNA/RNA is combined with a single-stranded section of DNA which has complementary bases

33
Q

What has to happen before hybridisation takes place?

A

Two strands of DNA are separated by heating the DNA (denaturation).
When it’s cooled, the complementary bases on each strand recombine (anneal) with each other to reform the original double strand

34
Q

Describe the process of how to locate specific disease alleles

A
  1. Base sequence of target allele (eg/ mutated gene associated with a disease)
  2. DNA fragment made which is complementary to part of the mutant allele
  3. Multiple copies are made by PCR
  4. A marker (eg/ fluorescent dye) is attached
  5. The probe is added and as it cools the probe will adhere to the mutant allele if it is present
  6. The DNA is washed clean of unattached probes
  7. Under a light, the fragments will fluoresce and are viewed with a special microscope
35
Q

How does genetic screening work?

A
  • Many different disorders can be screened for simultaneously by fixing hundreds of probes in an array on a glass slide
  • When mixed with DNA, any fluorescence will show the presence of the allele mutation for that particular disorder
36
Q

Why is genetic screening important?

A

Important to screen individuals who may carry a mutant allele

37
Q

What is genetic counselling?

A

Special form of social work, where advice and information are given that enable people to make personal decisions about themselves or their offspring

38
Q

Why is genetic counselling important?

A

To research the family history of an inherited disease and to advice parents on the likelihood of it arising in their children

39
Q

How does genetic screening and counselling used to detect and treat cancer?

A
  • Detection of oncogene mutations to determine the type of cancer and most effective drugs or radiotherapy
  • Detection of gene changes that predict which patients will benefit from certain treatments eg/Herceptin is most effective at treating HER2 positive breast cancer
  • Detection of a single cancer cell amongst millions of normal cells, thus identifying leukaemia patients at risk of release
  • Genetic counsellor will discuss with the patient the results, the best course of treatment, and their prospects for survivals
40
Q

Why is personalised medicine important?

A

Screening for the presence of this gene allows the dosage to compensate for the way an individual metabolises the drug. This makes their use safe and effective

41
Q

Give an example of personalised medicine:

A

Vitamin E reduces the risk of cardiovascular disease in those of a certain genotype with diabetes, but increases the risk for others
- Genetic screening can determine those who would benefit from vitamin E supplements

42
Q

What does genetic fingerprinting rely on?

A

Relies on the fact the genome of most eukaryotic organisms contain many repetitive, non coding bases of DNA

43
Q

What are non coding bases called?

A

Variable number tandem repeats (VNTRs)

44
Q

What does every individual have?

A

A unique pattern.
Within non-coding DNA, short base sequences are repeated many times. The number and length of these sequences varies between individuals

45
Q

What is gel electrophoresis?

A

Used to separate out pieces of DNA on the basis of their size

46
Q

What does the resistance of the gel mean?

A

Means that the larger fragments, the more slowly they move. Therefore, over a fixed period, the smaller fragments move further than the larger ones. So DNA fragments of different lengths are separated

47
Q

Describe the process of gel electrophoresis:

A
  1. Extraction: DNA is extracted from the sample (sample usually small, quantity can be increased by using PCR)
  2. Digestion: restriction endonucleases cut the DNA into fragments
  3. Separation: fragments of DNA are separated according to the size by gel electrophoresis under the influence of an electrical voltage. DNA fragments are transferred from the gel to nylon membrane
  4. Hybridisation: DNA probes are now used to bind with VNTRs. These radioactive probes attach to specific fragments
  5. Development: membrane with radioactively labelled DNA fragments is placed onto an x-ray film. Development of the x-ray film reveals dark bands where the radioactive DNA probes have attached
48
Q

What are the uses of genetic fingerprinting?

A
  1. Forensic science
  2. Medical diagnosis
  3. Animal and plant breeding
  4. Determining genetic relationships and variability