801 to 900 Flashcards
- A 78yo gentleman suddenly collapsed. His HR=120bpm, BP=70/40mmHg. Exam: pulsatile mass in abdomen. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Aortic aneurysm b. Mesenteric cyst c. Umbilical hernia
Ans. The key is A. Aortic aneurism. [There is features of shock with pulse 120bpm and bp 70/40mmHg and sudden collapse of the patient with pulsatile mass in abdomen makes the likely diagnosis of ruptured aortic aneurism].
- A woman prv in good health presents with sudden onset of severe occipital headache and vomiting. Her only physical sign on exam is a stiff neck. Choose the most likely dx. a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Subdural hematoma c. Cerebellar hemorrhage d. Migraine e. Cerebral embolus
Ans. The key is A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. [Sudden onset severe occipital headache and vomiting with stiffness makes the likely diagnosis to be subarachnoid hemorrhage].
- A 34yo housemaid presents with headaches in the back of her head for several days and pain on flexing her neck. What is the most likely cause? a. Subdural hemorrhage b. Cervical spondylosis c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage d. Meningitis e. Cluster headache
Ans. The key is B. Cervical spondylosis. [Headache in the back of head and pain on flexing neck is early feature of cervical spondylosis which gradually progress to later symptoms like radiculopathies due to root compression in arms and hands]
- A 40yo man complains of thirst and lethargy. His BP=140/90mmHg, corrected Ca2+=3.7mmol/l. What is the most appropriate management at this stage? a. IV fluids b. Prednisolone c. IV hydrocortisone d. Calcium prep
Ans. The key is A. IV fluids. [Hypercalcemia is treated by IV fluids].
- A 75yo man on digoxin develops weakness in the right upper and lower limbs which resolves within a few hours. What is the most definitive inv for this condition? a. Carotid Doppler b. Angiography c. CT head d. Digoxin level
Ans. The key is B. Angiography. Probably wrong key! Correct key is C. CT head. [Patient on digoxin means he is being yreated for atrial fibrillation with heart failure and the cause of tia is cardiac in origine! So carotid dopplar or carotid angiography is not the answer. Again for tia investigation of choice is MRI (if not available CT) NICE guideline. So for this question definitove investigatio
- A 35yo man presents with balance problems, headache, SNHL and loss of coreneal reflex on the left side. What is the most definitive inv? a. CT scan of internal auditory meatus b. Nuclear imagine of the brain c. MRI of internal auditory meatus d. MRI brain
Ans. The key is D. MRI brain. Wrong key! “Most definitive” is MRI internal auditory meatus. [Probable diagnosis is left sided acaustic neuroma. For this most definitive investigation is MRI internal auditory meatus].
- A 52yo man has a painful, red, photophobic right eye with slightly blurred vision and watering for 3days. He has had no such episodes in the past. On slit lamp examination there are cells and flare in the ant chamber and pupil is sluggish to react. What is the single most appropriate clinical dx? a. Acute close-angle glaucoma b. Acute conjunctivitis c. Acute dacrocystitis d. Acute iritis e. C
Ans. The key is D. acute iritis. [In iritis there is flares and cells in anterior chamber. In iritis pupil may be irregular but in angle closure glaucoma pupil is slightly dilated and oval in shape. In iritis there is no halo around light but in glaucoma there is halo around light].
- A 55yo lady with swelling on the abdomen below the umbilicus on the right side. What is the single most appropriate lymph node? a. External iliac LN b. Pre-aortic LN c. Aortic LN d. Inguinal LN e. Iliac LN f. Submental LN g. Submandibular LN h. Deep cervical LN
Ans. The key is D. Inguinal LN.
- A 66yo male presents with painful swallowing. What is the most likely dx? a. Nesseria meningitides b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Candida albicans d. Isospora belli e. Mycobacterium avium
Ans. The key is C. Candida albicans. [Oesophageal candidiasis].
- A 45yo lady complains of expressable galactorrhea, decreased libido and amenorrhea, weight gain and easy fatigue. Her serum prolactin levels are 1100um/l. what is the likely cause of hyperprolactinemia? a. Hypothyroidism b. Stress c. Pregnancy d. Prolactin secreting pituitary tumor e. PCOS
Ans. The key is D. Wrong key. Correct key should be A. Hypothyroidism. [ It is likely to be hypothyroidism because prolactin level in hypothyroidism may be 30-200ng/ml which means 630-4200 mIU/L. Though weight gain can occur but fatigue is not a feature of prolactinoma unless it is a macroadenoma causing suppression of other pituitary hormone! given prolactin level of 1100 IU/L is definitely from
- A 42yo female had sudden severe headache and vomiting. She took paracetamol and then collapsed. What is the most likely dx? a. SAH b. Viral encephalitis c. Meningitis d. Anaphylaxis
Ans. The key is A. SAH. [Sudden headache, vomiting, collapse are suggestive of SAH].
- Parents of a 3m baby are worried about cot death. What advice would you give? a. Lay on the back with feet towards head end b. Lay on the back with feet towards feet end c. Lay on side d. Lay on stomach
Ans. The key is B. Lay on the back with feet towards feet end.
- A child born at 36wks developed difficulty in breathing with intercoastal recession and nasal flaring. His temp is normal but his mother had PROM 48h ago. What is the most likely inv that will lead to tx? a. Blood culture b. CXR c. Stool culture d. Sputum culture
Ans. B. CXR. This is wrong key! Correct key is A. Blood culture. (please see the attachment below where the last line mentions investigations is for sepsis). [Probable diagnosis is Neonatal Pneumonia as there is respiratory signs and history of PROM. In extremes of age pneumonia or sepsis may be with normal temperature or even there may be hypothermia. Here pneumonia is a part of sepsis and invest
- A 68yo man has had increasing dysphagia for solid food for 3m and has lost 5kgs in weight. What single inv is most likely to lead to a def dx? a. Barium swallow b. CXR c. CT chest d. Endoscopy and biopsy e. Video-fluoroscopy
Ans. The key is D. Endoscopy and biopsy. [Likely cause is malignant stricture for which endoscopic biopsy is the definitive investigation].
- A 24yo male was trying to move his wardrobe but it fell on his thigh. It was there for a very long time before someone was able to remove it. When he was seen in ED he had casts in his urine but no RBCs. Other inv showed hypocalcemia and high serum creatinine. What is the cause for his renal failure? a. Acetylcholine b. Myoglobin c. Myotroponin d. Acetyl acetate
Ans. The key is B. Myoglobin. [The likely diagnosis is Rhabdomyolysis where renal failure occurs due to myoglobin (myoglobins are released after breakdown of skeletal muscles)].
- Anatomical structure to be pierced during surgery midline port during gallstone removal. a. External iliac muscle b. Cricoid cartilage c. Linea alba d. Rectus sheath muscle e. Duramater f. 1st tracheal cartilage g. Conjoined tendon h. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is C. Linea alba.
- A 48yo man has continuous ant chest pain which is worse on inspiration and has temp of 37.5C since 4wks after a MI. His ESR=45mm/h. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal inv? a. Acute pericarditis b. Cardiac tamponade c. Atrial thrombus d. Left ventricular aneurysm e. Dressler syndrome
The key is E. Dressler syndrome. [Dressler syndrome usually occurring two to five weeks after the initial event but it can be delayed for as long as three months. It is characterised by pleuritic chest pain, low- grade fever and pericarditis].
- An 8yo child swallowed 12 tablets of paracetamol 4h ago. Serum paracetamol levels when tested were at critical level. What would you do next? a. Activated charcoal b. IV N-acetylcysteine c. Gastric lavage d. Observation only
Ans. The key is B. IV N-acetylcystine. [As 4 hour paracetol level is at critical level start IV N-acetyltine at once]. Manaement of paracetamol poisoning: GI decontamination is recommended in those presenting <4h after OD. Activated charcoal 1g/kg (max 50g) is the treatment of choice, reducing serum levels more than gastric lavage and limiting liver injury. • Glucose, U&E, LFT, INR, ABG, FBC, HCO3
- A pt dx with DVT is taking warfarin. What is his cut off INR limit? a. <1 b. 1-2 c. 2-3 d. 3-4
Ans. The key is C. 2-3. [This range is appropriate for the prophylaxis or treatment of venous thromboembolism and reduction of the risk of systemic embolism for people with atrial fibrillation and valvular heart disease].
- Inserting a drain in the mid-axillary line. What is the single most appropriate anatomical structure? a. External iliac muscle b. Linea alba c. Rectus sheath muscle d. Conjoined tendon e. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is E. Intercostal muscles.
- A 29yo man presents with hx of cough, weight loss and night sweats. Exam: pansystolic murmur. What is the most appropriate dx of underlying cause? a. Malaria b. HSP c. HIV d. Dengue fever
Ans. The key is C. HIV. [Though not mentioned IV drug abusers may have tricuspid regurgitation causing pansystolic murmur and HIV also very common in this group].
- A 15yo boy presents with recurrent breathlessness and wheeze especially after exercise. What is the most diagnostic inv? a. CXR b. Lung function test c. PEFR d. CT scan
Ans. The key is B. Lung function test. [Assessment of severity of airflow obstruction can diagnose asthma and COPD].
- A 34yo man was walking along the country side when an insect bit him. After which he started to complain of an annular rash spreading upwards. a. Penicillin PO b. Doxycycline PO c. Flucloxacillin PO d. Gentamicin PO e. Ciprofloxacin PO f. Antihistamine PO g. Antihistamine IV h. Corticosteroid IV i. Corticosteroid IM j. Adrenaline IM k. Adrenaline IV l. Atropine IV m. Reassurance
Ans. The key is B. Doxycycline PO. [Described rash is erythema migrans which is characteristic skin lesion seen in lyme disease. Lyme disease is treated with Doxycycline].
- A 60yo man was brought in by his wife complaining of ataxia, urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction. He also complains of rigidity and slowing of movement with a pill rolling tremor of the hands. What is the likely dx? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Idiopathic parkinson’s disease c. Shy-drager syndrome d. Huntington’s disease
Ans. The key is C. Shy-drager syndrome. [Shy-drager syndrome is characterized by parkinsonism (rigidity, slowing of movement with hand tremors) plus a more pronounced failure of the autonomic nervous system (urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction) and there may also cerebellar sign like ataxia be present]. [Please note the discrepancy of this question (may be a bad recall) that classic pill
- A 67yo man being managed for a malignancy develops neutropenic fever. He has been commenced on Ticarcillin, Tazobactam and Gentamicin. He has also recently commenced on Meropenem but on the 3rd day his temp still remains >39C. 2 blood tests and urine cultures show no organism. Inv: Hgb=104g/dl, WBC=<0.5, Plt=15. What will you do next? a. Continue IV antibiotics and add oral antifungals b. Con
Ans. The key is B. Continue antibiotics and add IV antifungals. [If judicial antibiotic fail to control fever next step is to add antifungal agents].
- A young girl who is known to have T1DM presented with drowsiness and deep breathing. Her sugar level=20. Her BP=120/80mmHg and her mucous membranes are dry. What would be the next appropriate step? a. Serum urea b. Blood culture c. CT d. HbA1c e. ABG
Ans. The key is E ABG. [Likely diagnosis is DKA where ABG is done to demonstrate acidosis].
- Removal of a glioma, which single most appropriate anatomical structure will be pierced? a. Cricoid cartilage b. Rectus sheath muscle c. Duramater d. Conjoined tendon e. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is C. Duramater.
- A child is not breathing and intubation failed. At what anatomical site should the incision be made? a. External iliac muscle b. Cricoid cartilage c. Linea alba d. Rectus sheath muscle e. Duramater f. 1st tracheal cartilage g. Conjoined tendon h. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is B. Cricoid cartilage. [Incision for tracheostomy is done which goes down from cricoids cartilage].
- A 10yo child who presented with fx of the radius which was treated with a plaster cast, complains of pain. Exam: limb is swollen but warm and well perfused, pulses are present. What should you do next? a. Send for repeat XR b. Remove cast c. Replace cast with more padding d. Give analgesic
Ans. Key is D. Give analgesic.
- A 32yo man has been to Thailand and returned with cervical lymphadenopathy and fever. What is he most likely suffering from? a. HIV b. EBV c. Typhoid d. Measles
Ans. The key is B. EBV. [Cervical lymphadenopathy mentioned in question which occurs in EBV infection. In ARS (acute retroviral syndrome) or primary HIV infection there is generalized lymphadenopathy].
- A 6yo child presents with edema and mild proteinuria. No hematuria. What is the most likely dx? a. PSGN b. Membranous GN c. Minimal change GN d. RPGN
Ans. The key is C. Minimal change GN. [Minimal change GN is usually seen in young children. It presents as edema and proteinuria].
- An 80yo woman suffering from RA presents with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. She also complains of shoulder tip pain. What is the single most discriminatory inv? a. US Abdomen b. Sigmoidoscopy c. Colonscopy d. Barium meal e. Upper GI endoscopy f. Erect CXR
Ans. The key is F. Erect CXR. [Elderly patient with RA is usually on NSAIDs which may lead to perforated peptic ulcer which presents as severe epigastric pain, vomiting and shoulder tip pain. Diagnosis is made by seeing free gas shadow under the diaphragm on erect CXR].
- A 44yo man went on holiday to Sudan 5wks ago. He now presents with red urine and fever. Exam: hepatomegaly. What is the most likely dx? a. Malaria b. Brucellosis c. Leptospirosis d. Schistosomiasis
Ans. The key is D. Schistosomiasis. [Holyday in Sudan, hematuria, fever and hepatomegaly goes most with Schistosomiasis amongst the given option].
- A 32yo homosexual comes with hx of weight loss. Fundoscopy reveals retinal hemorrhages. What is the single most appropriate option? a. Mycobacterium avium b. CMV c. Hemophilus influenze d. NHL e. Pneumocystic jerovici
Ans. The key is B. CMV. [Weight loss in a homosexual is likely to be due to AIDS and CMV retinopathy with retinal hemorrhage is a recognized association].
- A 30yo man comes with hx of early morning back pain and stiffness. Exam: red eyes. What is the single most appropriate option? a. Iris b. Ciliary body c. Cornea d. Conjunctivitis e. Sclera
Ans. The key is A. Iris. [Young man with early morning back pain and stiffness is suggestive of seronegative arthritis likely ankylosing spondylitis where iritis is a common association].
- A 70yo woman with longstanding anxiety is seen in the OPD. She complains of her heart skipping a beat quite often. This particularly occurs when she is trying to get to sleep. The palpitations are never sustained. What is the most likely rhythm disturbance? a. SVT b. VF c. VT d. V-ectopics e. A-fib
Ans. The key is D. V-ectopics. [From the given options the most likely answer is V-ectopics. If it occurs in a normal heart though symptomatic it is benign in nature but if it is secondary to heart disease like MI it may precipitate to more life threatening arrhythmia like ventricular fibrillation].
- A 17yo has acute pain around his right eye, pain on one side of his face and ear ache too. What is the single most dx? a. Ear wax b. Ear foreign body c. Dental abscess d. Cellulitis e. Herpes zoster
Ans. The key is E. Herpes zoster. [It seems to be herpes zoster of the trigeminal nerve. Onset is acute, unilateral distribution favours herpes zoster]
- A 12yo boy presented with itching in his hands. Exam: skin is dry and red. His mother is asthmatic and older brother has hay fever. What is the single most likely causative factor? a. Dermatitis herpitiformis b. Scabies c. Eczema d. Uremia e. Drug induced
Ans. The key is C. Eczema. [Itchy lesion and family history of asthma and hay fever in 1st degree relatives favours the diagnosis of eczema]
- A 45yo man presented with pruritic purple papules on the flexor surface of his wrist and some white lacy markings on his buccal mucosa. What is the single most likely causative factor? a. ALL b. Lymphoma c. Polycythemia d. IDA e. Lichen planus
Ans. The key is E. Lichen planus. [White lacy pattern of lesion is characteristic of lichen planus].
- A known DM was admitted with sudden LOC. What is the initial inv? a. CT scan b. RBS c. MRI d. ECG e. ABG
Ans. The key is B. RBS. [In unconsciousness in diabetics, first hypoglycemia should be excluded by doing RBS].