1601 to 1707 Flashcards
- A married 25yo woman presents with 6h hx of abdominal pain located in the LIF. The pain is persistent, of increasing intensity and not radiating first experienced while she was lying down. She feels giddy when she tries to stand erect. The last menstrual period was 6 weeks ago. The radial pulse=130/min and BP=80/40 mmHg. Pelvic US shows free intra-peritoneal fluid. What is the most appropria
Ans. The key is B. Immediate laparotomy. [As the patient is in shock it is ruptured ectopic pregnancy. So the next step is immediate laparotomy].
- A 40yo man has fallen off a roof. He is shocked and has chest pain. There is a delay between the radial and femoral pulse. His CXR=widening of the mediastinum. What is the single most likely dx? a. Cardiac tamponade b. Diaphragmatic rupture c. Fx ribs d. Tension pneumothorax e. Traumatic rupture of aorta
Ans. The key is E. Traumatic rupture of the aorta. [A traumatic aortic disruption is caused by a rapid acceleration (or deceleration) causing a tear in the aorta. Normally this is immediately fatal, but those who survive may show a widened mediastinum on CXR. This can be confirmed with CT scan or angiography of the aorta and requires prompt surgical correction. Stable the haemodynamics and surgica
- A 36yo woman presents with swelling in the groin. Exam: swelling is diffuse and soft and lies below the inguinal ligament. It empties with minimal pressure and refills with release. There is a cough impulse and it disappears on lying down. On the calf of the same leg there are varicosities on the medial aspect. What is the most likely dx? a. Varicose vein b. Varicocele c. Saphena varix d. Fe
Ans. The key is C. Saphena Varix. [Below inguinal ligament, empties with minimal pressure and refills with release, presence of cough impulse and disappearance on lying down are suggestive of caphena varix supported by presence of varicosity in same leg].
- A man presents with a swelling above the groin crease in the abdomen. He has not had any med problems of note. What is the most probable dx? a. Inguinal hernia b. Spigelian hernia c. Testicular tumor d. Epidydimal cyst e. Irreducible hernia
Ans. B. Spigelian Hernia. [A Spigelian hernia (or lateral ventral hernia) is a hernia through the spigelian fascia, which is the aponeurotic layer between the rectus abdominis muscle medially, and the semilunar line laterally.
- A 70yo man presents with acutely painful, pale paralysed and pulseless left leg. He is noted to have a-fib. What is the most probable dx? a. Intermittent claudication b. Cardiovascular syphilis c. Buerger’s disease d. Chronic limb ischemia e. Acute limb ischemia
Ans. The key is E. Acute limb ischemia. [AF may be the cause of thrombus leading to embolic acute limb ischemia].
- A 50yo woman complains of several months hx of weakness and difficulty climbing stairs. Exam: fissuring of the skin of her hands. CXR: pulmonary fibrosis. What is the single most likely positive antibody? a. Anti Jo1 b. Anti Scl 70 c. Anti Ro d. Anti dsDNA e. Anti centromere
Ans. A. Anti Jo1. [Anticentromere would be present in limited scleroderma and Anti-Scl 70 would be present in diffuse scleroderma. Anti-DSDNA would be positive in SLE, along with Anti-Ro. Anti-Ro is also positive in Sjogren’s syndrome and scleroderma. This is a case of Polymyositis because none of the others would have the muscular weakness that is present in this case. The antibody of choice woul
- A 65yo woman complaining of symptoms suggestive of Raynaud’s phenomenon and difficulty in swallowing. Exam: painful lesions on her finger tips and facial telangiectasis. What is the single most likely positive antibody? a. Anti Jo1 b. Anti Scl 70 c. Anti Ro d. Anti ds DNA e. Anti centromere
Key: Anti-Centromere (E) Reason: Anti-centromere antibody would be present in CREST syndrome which is also called Limited scleroderma. Features of given case are consistent with CREST syndrome and hence the answer is E. Anti centromere antibody].
- A 6yo boy presented about 4h ago with acute severe pain on the testis with the left half slightly higher than the right. Pain was not relieved by any strong analgesic. What is the initial management? a. Give strong analgesic b. IV NS and monitor vital signs c. Reassure d. Immediate surgical referral e. Cover with antibiotics
Ans. The key is D. Immediate surgical referral. [Dx torsion of testis]
- A 60yo man is brought to the ED in an agitated state. He is lashing out violently. Which drug in low dosage due to its relative lack of autonomic side effects is a drug of choice in the tx of agitation in this pt? a. Haloperidol b. Diazepam c. Fluoxetine d. Clozapine e. Chlorpromazine
Ans. The key is A. Haloperidol. It is a wrong key. Correct key is Diazepam. [Haloperidol has autonomic side effects].
- A 32yo woman of 40wks gestation attends the antenatal day unit with sudden onset epigastric pain with nausea and vomiting. She is clinically jaundiced. Her biochemistry results show a raised bilirubin, abnormal liver enzymes, high uric acid and hypoglycemia. What’s the most likely dx? a. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy b. Obstetric cholestasis c. Cholecystitis d. HELLP syndrome e. Acute hepat
Ans. The key is A. Acute Fatty Liver of Pregnancy. [When jaundice is present in pregnancy, AFLP should be high on the differential. Pain, nausea, vomiting, jaundice, fever with elevated liver enzymes and bilirubin is clinically indicative of AFLP. Also can have elevated INR, TLC and hypoglycaemia.
- A 24yo man believes his bowels are blocked and his life is in ruin. What kind of delusion is he suffering from? a. Persecutory b. Factitious c. Guilt d. Nihilistic e. Hypochondriacal
Ans. The key is D. Nihilistic. [The man believes his bowels are blocked and his life is ruined is an example of nihilistic delusion].
- A 75yo man with declining vision, cornea and pupils are normal, fundus shows obscured margins. What is the single most likely dx? a. Macular degeneration b. HTN retinopathy c. MS d. DM background e. Proliferative DM retinopathy
Ans. The key is A. Macular degeneration. [In a 75yrs old man with normal cornea and pupils and papilloedema suggests macular degeneration].
- A man under psychiatric tx develops GI distress and tremors. Which drug is most likely to cause these symptoms? a. Lithium b. Diazepam c. Citalopram d. Clozapine e. Imipramine
Ans. The key is A. Lithium. [Lithium causes tremor, GI distress (vomiting) along with Diabetes insipidus].
- A 24yo man presents with painless hematuria. No other complaint and no abnormality is found on physical exam. What is the most appropriate initial inv which is helpful to get a dx? a. Coag screening b. MSU c. Cystoscopy d. MRI spine e. Abdominal US
Ans. The key is E. Abdominal US. [Painless hematuria in a young male without any other findings on history or examination often suggests Polycystic Kidney Disease].
- A 29yo woman presents to her GP with troublesome heavy periods. The med tx that she has tried have made little difference. She is known to have large uterine intramural fibroids. You confirm that she is currently trying for more children. Select the most appropriate management for menorrhagia in this pt? a. Danazol b. Endometrial ablation c. Hysterectomy d. Hysteroscopic resection of fibroid
Ans. E. Myomectomy. [Chance of subsequent pregnancies is better after myomectomy].
- A 30yo schizophrenic female attacks her mother believing that aliens have replaced her with an exact double. What condition is she suffering from? a. Capgras syndrome b. Ganser syndrome c. Todd syndrome d. Fregoli syndrome e. Cotard syndrome
Ans. Capgras Syndrome. [Capgras syndrome is an irrational belief that a familiar person or place has been replaced by a duplicate. Ganser syndrome is a fictitious disorder in which a patient deliberately acts as if he has a physical or mental illness when he doesn’t have it. Todd syndrome/Alice In Wonderland syndrome/Lilliputian syndrome is a disorienting neurological condition affecting human per
- A 38yo man has just returned from a holiday where he went swimming everyday. For the last few days he has had irritation in both ears. Now his right ear is hot, red, swollen and acutely painful. What is the single most likely dx? a. Foreign body b. Impacted earwax c. OE d. OM e. Perforation of eardrum
Ans. C. Otitis Externa. [The swimming history, irritation in both ears and ear being hot, red, swollen and painful indicates inflammation of the external acoustic meatus called Otitis Externa. It isn’t otitis media because of the lack of Tympanic membrane signs].
- A healthy 2yo boy is brought to the ED having cut his hand playing in the garden. He has a 2cm clean laceration. He has not received any routine immunizations as his parents are concerned about possible side effects. There are no contraindications to immunizations. What is the single most appropriate follow up inv? a. Courses of DPT vaccine b. Courses of DT c. Single inj of DPT vaccine d. Si
Ans. Courses of DPT Vaccine. [The child is unimmunized and has no contraindication to vaccination. Keeping in mind his age, single injections would be useless and would not help the patient. Courses of DPT vaccine would be the best choice in this case].
- A 6wk child has hx of frequent vomiting which became worse during the last weeks. He has no fever, recently he has passed stool only once every 2-3d. What inv will you do to confirm the dx? a. Abdominal US b. Barium meal c. Erect XR abdomen d. Feed test e. Reassure
Ans. The key is A. Abdominal US. [The age and symptoms points towards pyloric stenosis].
- A 30yo woman had an IUCD inserted 8-9m ago. Now on routine follow up the thread is missing. Uterine US showed no IUCD in the uterus. What is the best management? a. Laparoscopy b. Pelvic CT c. Laparotomy d. Pelvic XR
Ans. The key is D. Pelvic XR. [Ultrasound should be arranged to locate the device. If ultrasound does not locate the device and there is no definite history of expulsion then abdominal X-ray should be performed to look for an extrauterine device].
- A pt comes with weight loss and sleep disturbance has mild depression. He has a hx of MI. What is the single most appropriate tx? a. Diazepam b. ECT c. Imipramine d. Lithium e. Antipsychotics
Key: Diazepam
- A pt. comes back from India and presents with night sweats and lymphadenopathy. XR: Cavitation. What investigation should be done next? a. CT scan b. AFB stain c. Blood culture d. Bronchoscopy
Ans. AFB Stain [The symptoms and arrival from an endemic area for Pulmonary TB suggests the best course of action would be to go for AFB staining via ZN stain].
- A 45yo woman has been extensively investigated for a lump she believes to be cancer. She doesn’t think doctors take her seriously and demands another referral. What term best describes her condition? a. Munchausen syndrome b. Munchausen’s by proxy c. Hypochondriasis d. Malingering e. Phobia
Ans. The key is C. Hypochondriasis. [Worry about having a serious illness. This debilitating condition is the result of an inaccurate perception of the condition of body or mind despite the absence of an actual medical condition].
- A 15yo man presents with bitemporal hemianopia and spade-like hands. What is the definite test to confirm the dx? a. Early morning growth hormone b. Insulin tolerance test c. OGTT with growth hormone measurements d. Random insulin-like growth factor (IGF-1) e. Short ACTH test
Ans. The key is C. OGTT with growth hormone measurements. [The bitemporal hemianopia and spade- like hands point towards acromegaly. The best initial test is insulin like growth factors but the definitive test that confirms the diagnosis is OGTT with serial growth hormone measurements].
- A 22yo man has had an acute, painful, red right eye with blurring of vision for one day. He had a similar episode 1y ago and has had episodic back pain and stiffness relieved by exercise and diclofenac for four years. What is the SINGLE most likely cause of his red eye? a. Chorioretinitis b. Conjunctivitis c. Episcleritis d. Iritis e. Keratitis
Ans. The key is D. Iritis. [The symptoms described are characteristic of ankylosing spondylitis (lower back pain and stiffness which gets better after moving around and taking NSAIDS) the extra articular manifestations of AS is iritis].
- A 40yo divorced man with bipolar affective disorder attends hospital following an OD of 30 TCA tablets. His new partner has left him and he has stopped taking his medicine and begun drinking heavily. He appears depressed, feels hopeless and is ambivalent about being alive. He is now fit for discharge from the medical ward and acknowledges the benefits of previous tx. What is the SINGLE most
Ans. The key is A. Admission to the psychiatry ward. [To save the patient from another overdose].
- A healthy baby boy is born at term to a woman who was unwell with confirmed acute hep B during pregnancy. The mother is very concerned that she may have infected the baby with hep B. What SINGLE preventative intervention should be given to the baby? a. Full course of hepatitis B vaccine b. Hepatitis B immunoglobulin alone c. Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin d. Hepatitis B v
Ans. The key is C. Hepatitis B vaccine and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. [Babies born to mothers infected with hepatitis B have a high risk of acquiring infection, which can be prevented by vaccination at birth. All babies with seropositive mothers should have the full primary course of hepatitis B immunisation and should also have HBIG within 24 hours of birth].
- A previously well 15yo girl had an acute onset of fever, sweating, bruising and petechiae. A blood count showed: Hgb=63g/L, WBC=1.1mg/L, Neutrophils=0.1, plt=14. No abnormal white cells were seen on the blood film. She was transfused and given IV antibiotics and her condition improved. 3wks later her blood count has returned to a similar picture. What is the SINGLE most likely underlying dx?
Ans. The key is C. Aplastic Anaemia. [The age of the patient and pancytopenic picture give us a clinical diagnosis of Aplastic anemia. Normal WBC morphology rules out ALL, AML and pernicious anaemia while the age rules out CML as a diagnosis].
- An 83yo woman admitted with a chest infection becomes confused with impaired attention and poor concentration. She is restless and frightened. She is verbally abusive and has perceptual abnormalities. There is no significant prv psychiatric hx. What is the SINGLE most likely dx? a. Delirium b. Drug induced psychosis c. Lewy body dementia d. Multi-infarct dementia e. Psychotic depression
Ans. The key is A. Delirium. [Delirium or Acute Confusional States happen in the elderly in response to stressors like acute infections and this is most likely brought on by the chest infection that has developed].
- A town has a population of 500,000. In a five year period there are 1250 cases of bladder cancer diagnosed at the only hospital. During the same period the occupational health department diagnosed a further 500 cases. What is the annual incidence per million of bladder cancer in this population? a. 2100 b. 1750 c. 1400 d. 700 e. 350
Ans. The key is D. 700.
- A 28yo woman who has had a prv pulmonary embolism in pregnancy wishes to discuss contraception. She has menorrhagia but is otherwise well. What is the SINGLE most suitable contraceptive method for this patient? a. COCP b. Copper IUCD c. Levonorgestrel intra-uterine system d. Progestogen implant e. POP
Ans. The key is C. Levonorgestrel Intra-Uterine System. [The woman has a history of thromboembolic disease, which essentially contraindicates COCP. LNG-IUS (Mirena) is the hormone releasing device that is most suitable in this patient with thrombophilia and menorrhagia.
- An 8yo girl has had left earache for 2d. The earache subsided about 2h ago with the onset of a purulent discharge which relieved the pain. Her temperature is 39.2C. What is the SINGLE most appropriate antibiotic? a. Amoxicillin b. Ciprofloxacin c. Clindamycin d. Erythromycin e. Flucloxacillin
Ans. The key is A. Amoxicillin. [This is the picture of Acute Otitis Media which has led to tympanic membrane perforation. PO Amoxicillin for 7 days is the treatment of choice]
- A 38yo man has disturbing thoughts about his house being infected by germs. He is anxious about safety and checks the locks of his doors repeatedly before going to bed. For the last 8wks he has been washing his hands every time he touches the lock, 20-30 times a day. What is the SINGLE most appropriate management? a. Antidepressant b. Antipsychotic c. Anxiolytic d. CBT e. Psychodynamic psych
Reason: This scenario describes a case of OCD for which the best management is CBT followed by SSRIs or TCAs].
- A 65yo man had closure of colostomy performed 5d ago. He is not systemically unwell. There is a tender, localised fluctuant swelling 4 cm in diameter in the wound. What is the SINGLE most appropriate management? a. Abdominal support b. Antibiotics c. Laparotomy and re-suture wound d. Local exploration of wound e. Observation
Ans. The key is D. Local exploration of wound.
- A 32yo woman has had a febrile illness and swelling of the small joints of her hands, feet, wrists and knees for two days. She has a maculopapular rash and a few palpable, small cervical lymph nodes. She was previously well. There is no history of relevant travel outside the UK. She has two young children. What is the SINGLE most likely dx? a. Psoriasis b. Reactive arthritis c. Rheumatoid ar
Ans. The key is B. Reactive arthritis. It is a wrong key! Correcct key should be E. SLE.
- A 16yo girl has had an enlarging mass in the right side of her neck for the last 6wks. She has had no other symptoms. She has a 2 x 2 cm enlarged LN in the anterior triangle of the neck with several smaller associated LN palpable. Oropharyngeal examination shows tonsillar membranes. What is the SINGLE most likely dx? a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Leukaemia c. Lymphoma d. Sarcoidosis e. Tube
Ans. The key is A. Infectious mononucleosis. [Though in infectious mononucleosis lymph nodes are usually seen in posterior triangle but can be seen in whole body including anterior triangle also].
- A 32yo woman has had a febrile illness and swelling of the small joints of her hands, feet, wrists and knees for two days. She has a maculopapular rash and a few palpable, small cervical lymph Nodes. She was previously well. There is no history of relevant travel outside the UK. She has two young children. What is the SINGLE most likely dx? a. Psoriasis b. Reactive arthritis c. Rheumatoid ar
Ans. The key is B. Reactive Arthritis. [The key is GMC key].
- A 16yo girl has had an enlarging mass in the right side of her neck for the last 6wks. She has had no other symptoms. She has a 2 x 2 cm enlarged LN in the anterior triangle of the neck with several smaller associated LN palpable. Oropharyngeal examination shows tonsillar membranes. What is the SINGLE most likely dx? a. Infectious mononucleosis b. Leukaemia c. Lymphoma d. Sarcoidosis e. Tube
Ans. The key is A. Infectious Mononucleosis. [Though in infectious mononucleosis lymph nodes are usually seen in posterior triangle but can be seen in whole body including anterior triangle also].
- A 60yo man has had increasing pain in both buttocks, thighs and calves on walking for three months. He has also recently developed impotence. Femoral and distal pulses are absent in both limbs. What is the SINGLE most likely site of arterial obstruction? a. Aorto iliac b. External iliac c. Femoropopliteal d. Internal iliac e. Tibial
Ans. The key is A. Aorto iliac. [saddle embolus; surgical intervention]. Page 718 OHCM 9th edition. Patient is suufering from leriche’s syndrome. Classic triad of: • Pain and claudication of buttock and thighs (pale cold leg) • Erectile dysfunction from aorto iliac occlusive disease • Absent femoral and distal pulse.
- A 78yo man has collapsed. He has had a severe headache for 12 hours and had an URTI 3d ago. He has a temp=39.2C, pulse=122bpm, BP=84/60mmHg and RR=34bpm but his chest is clear. He has a GCS=10 and some neck stiffness. He has been started on high-flow oxygen. What is the SINGLE most appropriate immediate management? a. IV antibiotic; CT brain scan b. IV antibiotic; LP c. IV fluids; CT brain s
Ans. The key is D. IV Fluids; IV antibiotic [As his BP is low and has presented with neck stiffness so, IV fluids and V antibiotic should be given, after giving him oxygen].
- A 16yo boy was brought to hospital in a comatose state having taken methadone belonging to his sister. He was given naloxone and rapidly became alert. Some hours later, he gradually becomes semi- conscious again.What is the SINGLE most likely reason for this patient becoming semi-conscious again in hospital? a. Methadone hepatotoxicity has caused acute liver failure b. Methadone is eliminate
Ans. The key is B. Methadone is eliminated from the body more slowly than naloxone (short t1/2)
- A 27yo woman who takes the COCP has had painless vaginal spotting and discharge for 3 days. Her last menstrual period, which lasted four days, finished 10 days ago. Her last cervical smear two years ago was normal. Abdominal and vaginal examinations are normal apart from a mild ectropion with contact bleeding. What is the SINGLE most appropriate initial inv? a. Cervical smear b. Colposcopy c
Ans. The key is C. Endocervical swab. [As her cervical smear and examination of abdomen and vagina are normal, next would be to exclude a STD for which Endocervical swab is taken].
- A 72yo man being investigated for anaemia is booked for a colonoscopy in 24 hours. What is the SINGLE most appropriate management the night before the procedure? a. Bisacodyl tablets b. Glycerine suppository c. Lactulose syrup d. Magnesium citrate (orally) e. Senna tablets
Ans. The key is D. Magnesium Citrate (Orally)