301 to 400 Flashcards
- A 27yo presents with abdominal pain, bleeding, vomiting and diarrhea. Her LMP was 7wks ago. Exam: abdominal tenderness, BP=90/60mmHg. What is the next appropriate management? a. Immediate laparotomy b. Laparoscopy c. Salpingotomy d. Salpingectomy e. MTX Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. What is the diagnosis? Q. 3. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is A. Immediate laparotomy. Ans. 2. The diagnosis is ruptured ectopic pregnancy . Ans. 3. In ruptured ectopic pregnancy if there is shock we should go for immediate laparotomy.
- A woman presents with complains of abdominal pain, unsteadiness, numbness of lower limb and palpitations. All inv are normal. What is the dx? a. Manchausen b. Somatization c. Hypochondriac d. Bipolar
Ans. The key is B. Somatization. [This is multiple, recurrent, medically unexplained symptoms usually starting early in life. Usually patient presents with one symptom at a time. Investigations are normal].
- A 34yo African-caribbean man with a hx of sarcoidosis has presented with bilateral kidney stones. What is the most likely cause for this pt’s stones? a. Hypercalcemia b. Hyperuricemia c. Diet d. Recurrent UTIs e. Hyperparathyroidism Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Why this occurs?
Ans. 1. The key is A. Hypercalcemia. Ans. 2. Hypercalcemia in sarcoidosis is due to the uncontrolled synthesis of 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 by macrophages. 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D3 leads to an increased absorption of calcium in the intestine and to an increased resorption of calcium in the bone.
- Which of the following is NOT a physiological change during pregnancy? a. Tidal volume 500ml b. RBC vol 1.64L c. Cardiac output 6.5L/min d. Uterus weight 1.1kg e. ESR up by 4x
Ans. The key is A. Tidal volume 500 ml.
- A 10yo boy presents with nose bleed. What measure should be taken to stop the bleeding? a. Press base of the nose b. Ice packs c. Press soft parts of the nose d. Start tranexemic acid e. IV fluids
Ans. The key is C. Press soft parts of the nose.
- An MI pt who is already on aspirin no longer smokes and his cholesterol, ECG, echo and BP are normal. Choose the best option for him: a. Give statin b. Give statin+warfarin c. Low cholesterol diet d. Statin+ACEi
Ans. The key is D. Statin + ACEi. [Offer all people who have had an acute MI treatment with the following drugs: ACE (angiotensin-converting enzyme) inhibitor dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent) beta-blocker statin. [2007, amended 2013] [NICE guideline].
- A 46yo man is being treated for a pleural effusion. A chest drain has been sited just below the 4th rib in the mid-axillary line on his right side. What single structure is at particular risk of injury? a. Arzygos vein b. Diaphragm c. Intercostal artery d. Internal thoracic artery e. Liver
Ans. The key is C. Intercostal artery. [Most vulnerable structure is intercostal nerve, then intercostal artery then intercostals vein. As intercostal nerve is not in option intercostal artery is the answer here].
- What advice would you give for the parents of a child with repeated UTI? a. Surgery b. Prophylactic antibiotics c. Increase fluids d. Toilet training e. Laxatives
Ans. The given key is A. Surgery. This is a wrong key. Correct option is B. Prophylactic antibiotic.[For repeated UTI prophylactic antibiotic should be given].
- A pt presents with complete anuria following prolonged hypotension and shock in a pt who bled profusely from a placental abruption. What is the most probable dx? a. Post viral infection b. Acute papillary necrosis c. Acute cortical necrosis d. HUS e. Renal vein thrombosis Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. What is the reason for this?
Ans. 1. The key is C. Acute cortical necrosis. Ans. 2. There are 2 reasons for this acute cortical necrosis. i) significant diminished arterial perfusion of the kidneys due to spasm of the feeding artery secondary to profuse bleeding from placental abruption ii) DIC secondary to placental abruption.
- An alcoholic 56yo man had ascetic fluid analysis done which was found to be yellow color. What is the most appropriate cause? a. Alcoholic hepatitis b. Decompensated cirrhosis c. TB peritonitis d. Pyogenic peritonitis e. Neoplasm Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. How this diagnosis is made?
Ans. 1. The key is B. Decompansated cirrhosis. Ans. 2. If the patient experiences serious problems described below his disease has progressed from compensated cirrhosis to decompensated cirrhosis: i) Bleeding varices (internal bleeding) ii) Ascites (fluid in the belly) iii) Encephalopathy (confusion) iv) Jaundice (yellowing of eyes and skin).
- A 15yo boy presents with testicular pain for 2days. There is no hx of trauma. Exam: temp=38.5C,right hemi-scrotum tenderness. What is the single most appropriate management? a. Give antibiotics b. Give analgesia c. Reassure d. US scrotum e. Exploratory surgery Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. What is the diagnosis? Q. 3. What are the points in favour?
Ans. 1. The key is A. Give antibiotics. Ans. 2. The diagnosis is epididymo-orchitis. Ans. 3. Points in favour: i) No history of trauma ii) testicular pain with fever points towards epididymo- orchitis.
- A 58yo lady presented with urinary incontinence. She looks anxious for her condition. Urine culture is sterile. Her urodynamic study is normal. What is the next step? a. Antibiotics b. Topical estrogen c. Systemic estrogen d. Duloxetine e. Pelvic floor exercise
Ans. The key is E. Pelvic floor exercise.
- A 45yo lady came to family planning clinic for contraception advice. She is not keen to be pregnant for the next 3yrs. Her recent US showed multiple small submucosal fibroid. What is the best method of contraception for her? a. Etonogestrol b. COCP c. IUS d. POP e. IUCD
Ans. The key is C. IUS. [IUS gives 3-5 yrs long contraception. It also helps to shrink the fibroid].
- A child presents with eczema. She was given two creams by the GP – emollient and steroid. What advice would you give her regarding application of the cream? a. Sparingly use both the cream b. First use emollient, then steroid c. Apply steroid then emollient d. Mix emollient & steroid before use e. Emollient at night with steroid
Ans. The key is B. First use emollient, then steroid. [emmolient 30 minutes before steroid].
- All the following drugs do not cause bronchoconstriction except? a. Atenolol b. Salbutamol c. Salmetrol d. Ipratropium bromide e. Cocaine
Ans. The key is A. Atenolol.
- A 28 yo female who delivered 6 weeks ago feels sad and has no interest to feeding the baby. She has been eating poorly and having difficulty sleeping. She feels weak throughout the day and has stopped taking the baby out of the house. She also says that the baby has evil eyes. What is the most likely diagnosis? a. Postpartum blues b. Postpaetum depression c. Postpurtum psychosis d. Schizophre
- A 44yo man presents with periorbital and pedal edema. 24h urine shows 8g of protein/d and serum cholesterol=7mmol/L. Renal biopsy results are awaited. What would be the most likely dx? a. Minimal change disease b. Glomerulonephropathy c. Membranous glomerulonephropathy d. FSGS e. IgA nephropathy f. Mesangiocapillary
Ans. The given key is C. Membranous glomerulonephritis. [Some authority claims FSGS as more common cause of nephrotic syndrome].
- A 53yo man presents complaining of weight loss, lethargy, increasing abdominal discomfort and gout for the past yr. Exam: spleen palpated 5cm below left costal margin, no fluid wave. CBC: Hgb=10.5g/dL, WBC=200 – 85% neutrophils, plts=100, Na+=140mmol/L, K+ 4mmol/L, creat=151umol/L, urea=7mmol/L. Serum B12 increased. Philadelphia chromosome +ve. What is the most likely dx? a. CML b. CLL c. AML
Ans. 1. The key is A. CML. Ans. 2. Points in favour: i) wt loss ii) lethargy iii) abdominal discomfort iv) splenomegaly v) gout [Elevated uric acid and vitamin B12 levels are found in 25% of patients of CML]. A blood picture is suggestive and +ve Philadelphia chromosome is diagnostic.
- In a group of cancer pts, 10 died that wasn’t treated while 5 died in the tx group. Which statement is correct? a. Absolute risk =10 b. Relative risk =10 c. Relative risk =5 d. Absolute risk=5 e. Relative risk=2
Ans. Given key is E. relative risk = 2. [RR= Number of death in not treated group/number of death in treated group].
- A 67yo woman has presented with hard, irregular, poorly defined 5cm lump in her right breast. She has a bruise on the surface and there is no discharge. What is the most likely dx? a. Fibroadenosis b. Fat necrosis c. Fibroadenoma d. Duct ectasia e. Ca breast Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Please justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is B. Fat necrosis. Ans. 2. Fat necrosis usually occurs following trauma or surgery. Given case is a fat necrosis of breast as there is no discharge and there is a bruise indicating prior trauma.
- A 67yo female who had undergone a radical mastectomy now comes with the complaint of swelling and redness in her right upper limb. Involvement of which of the following structures explain these symptoms? a. Epitrochlear LN b. Cephalic vein c. Subclavian artery d. Axillary group of LN e. Long thoracic nerve
Ans. The key is D. Axillary group of LN. [Axillary clearance compromise lymphatic flow and may results in swelling of upper limb].
- A 50yo smoker and heavy drinker presents with complaints of racing heart. A 24h ECG comes out normal. What is your next step in management? a. ECHO b. Reassure c. Stress test
Ans. The key is B. Reassure. [Smoking and alcohol excess can cause palpitation without any recognizable arrhythmia and for this no treatment is required].
- A 47yo man comes to the GP with a swelling in his left groin which disappears on lying down.The swelling was bluish in color and felt like a bag of worms. He also complains of a mass in the left loin along with hematuria occasionally. What could be the possible dx? a. Left sided RCC b. Varicosity 2nd to liver disease c. Testicular tumor d. UTI e. IVC obstruction Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. W
Ans. 1. The key is A. Left sided Renal cell carcinoma. Ans. 2. Left sided varicocele. Ans. 3. Most common secondary cause of left sided varicocele is RCC. Newly diagnosed varicocele over the age of 40yrs are very much suggestive of RCC. Varicocele is common on left side as left testicular veins drain to the left renal vein, while the right testicular vein drain directly into IVC.
- A man presents with muffled hearing and feeling of pressure in ear with tinnitus and vertigo. He also complains of double vision when looking to the right. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Meniere’s disease b. Acoustic neuroma c. Acute labyrinthytis d. Meningioma e. Otosclerosis Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is B. Acoustic neuroma. Ans. 2. Hearing loss, feeling of pressure in the ear with tinnitus, vertigo and involvement of cranial nerve i.e. right abducent nerve are suggestive of acoustic neuroma.
- In 85% of the population this artery is dominant. What is the single most appropriate option? a. Left ant descending artery b. Coronary sinus c. Circumflex artery d. Left main stem, post descending artery e. Right coronary artery Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is E. Right coronary artery. Ans. 2. If the posterior discending artery is supplied by the circumflex artery then it is left dominant and if posterior descending artery is supplied by the right coronary artery then it is right dominant. As in 85% of population posterior descending artery is supplied by right coronary artery it is called the dominant that is right coronary artery is
- A 54 yo lady presents with sudden, severe pain in the left half of her skull. She also complains of pain around her jaw. What is the next likely step? a. CT b. MRI c. Fundoscopy d. ESR e. Temporal artery biopsy Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. What is the diagnosis? Q. 3. What are the points in favour of your diagnosis?
Ans. 1. The key is ESR. Ans. 2. The diagnosis is Giant cell arteritis or temporal arteritis. Ans. 3. Points in favour: i) Age >50yrs ii) Female sex iii) Severe pain in the left half of skull iv) Pain around the jaw (jaw claudication).
- A teenage girl who was ‘fine’ until her boyfriend said he didn’t want the relationship anymore.She took 10 tablets of paracetamol in front of his mother after taking alcohol. What should you do? a. Refer to psychiatry b. Counselling c. GP to sort out family issues d. Return to work to relieve her anger
Ans. The key is A. Refer to psychiatry. [10 tablets of paracetamol is not a life threatening toxic dose and simultaneous drug overdose and alcohol consumption needs psychiatric evaluation].
- A 6yo fell on outstretched hand while playing. He feels tender at the elbow but otherwise well. What is the most likely dx? a. Spiral fx b. Green stick fx c. Compound fx d. Supracondylar fx e. Pulled elbow
Ans. The key is B. Green stick fracture.
- A man has a BP of 160/90mmHg, proteinuria++. KUB US are equally reduced in size with smooth borders and normal pelvic calyceal system. What is the cause of HTN in the pt? a. Chronic glomerulonephritis b. Chronic pyelonephritis c. Bilateral renal artery stenosis d. Essential HTN e. Polycystic kidney
Ans. The key is bilateral renal artery stenosis. This is probably a wrong key. The correct key should be A. Chronic glomerulonephritis. [In bilateral renal artery stenosis BP is very high (much more than 160/90 mmHg].
- A lady presents with abdominal pain, dysuria, dyspareunia and vaginal discharge. What si your next step? a. Laparoscopy b. High vaginal swab c. Hysteroscopy d. Laparotomy e. US
Ans. The key is B. High vaginal swab. [Probable diagnosis is PID].
- An old lady 72yo staying at a nursing home for a few years, a known HTN on reg tx presented with sudden dysphagia while eating with drooling of saliva and req urgent inv. What would be your next step? a. Ba swallow b. Chest CT c. Endoscopy d. Laryngoscopy e. CXR f. Endoscopy with biopsy
Ans. The key is C. Endoscopy. [Probable impacted food bolus (usually meat)which can be visualized and removed with the aid of endoscopy].
- A man presents with outward deviation of his right eye and diplopia. Which nerve is affected? a. Left trochlear b. Left oculomotor c. Right trochlear d. Right abducens e. Right oculomotor
Ans. The given key is B. Left oculomotor! It is wrong key! Answer should be D. Right abducens.
- A 60yo pt who has had a MI a week back presents with dyspnea and pericardial rub. ECG shows ST elevation. CXR: loss of margin at costo-vertebral angle. What is the single most likely cause? a. Cardiac tamponade b. Mitral regurge c. Dressler’s syndrome d. Atrial fib e. Emboli Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Why it is not reinfarction as there is ST elevation?
Ans. 1. The key is C. Dressler’s syndrome. Ans. 2. There is pericardial rub there is pericarditis and in pericarditis there is widespread ST elevation. So the condition is not new MI but Dressler’s syndrome.
- A 12yo girl presented with tics, LOC, no residual sign and no post-ictal phase. EEG abnormality in temporal lobe. The girl had a rapid recovery. What is the most probably dx? a. Generalized tonic-clonic b. Myoclonic d. Atonic seizure e. Febrile convulsion
Ans. The key is C. Partial –> generalized seizure
- A 48yo woman who has been taking medications for asthma for a long time has now presented with decreasing vision. What is the most probable cause for her decrease in vision? a. Inhaled salbutamol b. Inhaled steroids c. Aminophylline d. Beta-blockers e. Oral steroids Q. 1. What is the key? Q. 2. Justify the key.
Ans. 1. The key is E. Oral steroid. Ans. 2. Prolonged steroid use leads to cataract formation.
- A 34yo man after a car crash is in the ED and deteriorating. His GCS has fallen from 13 to 7.What is the most appropriate next step? a. CT b. Burr hole c. MRI d. Intubation e. IV fluids
Ans. The key is D. Intubation. [ABC protocol].
- A pt with alternating swings or episodes from elation and depression had underwent tx and gotten better. What medication needed to be continued so he can stay well? a. Anxiolytics b. Mood stabilizers c. Antidepressants d. Antipsychotics
Ans. The key is B. Mood stabilizers [bipolar disorder treated with mood stabilizers]
- A 40yo male with pre-existing glumerulonephritis having proteinuria and hematuria suddenly deteriorates and presents with oliguria and serum K+=7.8mmol/L, urea=13mmol/L, creat=342mmol/L, GFR=19mL/h. The best management would be? a. Calcium supplement b. Calcium resonate enema 30g c. 10units insulin with 50% dextrose d. Nebulized salbutamol e. 10ml of 10% calcium gluconate f. Hemodialysis urge
Ans. 1. The key is E. 10 ml of 10% calcium gluconate. Ans. 2. To prevent cardiac arrhythmia. [Actually calcium gluconate neither shifts K+ to cells nor reduces serum K+ level that much. It just prevents cardiac arrest or life threatening cardiac arrhythmia and buys time till definitive measures are taken].
- 34yo man was brought to the ED after a RTA. BP=50/0mmHg and chest wall not moving symmetrically, RR=34bpm. What would be initial action? a. IV fluid infusion b. Intubation and ventilation c. CT chest d. Transfer to ITU
Ans. The key is B. Intubation and ventilation [ABC protocol].
- A pt complains of SOB, wheeze, cough and nocturnal waking. He has dry scaly shin with rashes that are itchy. What is the single most likely dx? a. Scabies b. Eczema c. Rheumatism d. Dermatitis e. Psoriasis
Ans. The key is B. Eczema. [Asthma may be associated with atopy].