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LINNE & RINGSRUD CHAPTER QUESTIONS > 8 BASIC AND CONTEMPORARY TECHNIQUES IN THE CLINICAL LABORATORY > Flashcards

8 BASIC AND CONTEMPORARY TECHNIQUES IN THE CLINICAL LABORATORY Flashcards

1
Q

Photometry:
a. Employs color to determine the concentrations of various substances
b. Employs color variations to determine the concentrations of various substances
c. Measures luminous intensity of light
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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2
Q

The function of the absorbance spectrophotometer is to measure the concentration of:
a. Sodium or potassium in a body fluid or serum
b. Glucose in blood by using dry-film technology
c. Hemoglobin in a solution
d. Dried blood on a filter paper

A

c. Hemoglobin in a solution

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3
Q

The function of the reflectance spectrophotometer is to measure the concentration of:
a. Sodium or potassium in a body fluid or serum
b. Glucose in blood by using dry-film technology
c. Hemoglobin in a solution
d. Dried blood on a filter paper

A

b. Glucose in blood by using dry-film technology

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4
Q

In the visible light spectrum, the color red is in what nanometer range?
a. 380-440nm
b. 500-580nm
c. 600-620nm
d. 620-750nm

A

d. 620-750nm

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5
Q

The Beer-Lambert (Beer’s) law states that the concentration of a substance is __________ to the amount of light absorbed.
a. Directly proportional
b. Inversely proportional
c. Not proportional
d. Proportional to half of the concentration of a substance

A

a. Directly proportional

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6
Q

The Beer-Lambert (Beer’s) law states that the concentration of a substance is __________ to the logarithm of the transmitted light.
a. Directly proportional
b. Inversely proportional
c. Not proportional
d. Proportional to half of the concentration of a substance

A

b. Inversely proportional

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7
Q

A characteristic of absorbance is that it:
a. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
b. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
c. Contains a known strength
d. Detects amplicons

A

b. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases

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8
Q

A characteristic of percent transmittance is that it:
a. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
b. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
c. Contains a known strength
d. Detects amplicons

A

a. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases

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9
Q

A characteristic of a standard solution is that it:
a. Decreases as the concentration of a colored solution decreases
b. Increases as the concentration of a colored solution increases
c. Contains a known strength
d. Detects amplicons

A

c. Contains a known strength

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10
Q

Wavelength accuracy is:
a. Checked with standard absorbing solution or filters
b. Any wavelength outside of the band transmitted
c. Demonstrated when a change in concentration results in a straight-line calibration curve
d. Better at lower ranges of the visible spectrum

A

a. Checked with standard absorbing solution or filters

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11
Q

Stray light is:
a. Checked with standard absorbing solution or filters
b. Any wavelength outside of the band transmitted
c. Demonstrated when a change in concentration results in a straight-line calibration curve
d. Better at lower ranges of the visible spectrum

A

b. Any wavelength outside of the band transmitted

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12
Q

Reflectance spectrophotometry is used in:
a. Point-of-care testing
b. Some large chemical instruments
c. Urinalysis automated instruments
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

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13
Q

Nephelometry measures the light scatter of:
a. Ions
b. Macromolecules complexes
c. Antibodies
d. Soluble antigens

A

b. Macromolecules complexes

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14
Q

Laser is an acronym for:
a. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
b. Light augmentation by stimulated emission of radiation
c. Light amplification of stimulated energy radiation
d. Large-angle stimulated emission of radiation

A

a. Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation

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15
Q

All the following are descriptive characteristics of laser light except:
a. Intensity
b. Stability
c. Polychromaticity
d. Monochromaticity

A

c. Polychromaticity

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16
Q

A photon is a:
a. Basic unit of light
b. Basic unit of all radiation
c. Component of an atom
d. Component of laser light

A

b. Basic unit of all radiation

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17
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes competitive immunoassay?
a. A fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen from a patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.
b. The sample antigen binds to an antibody; a second antibody, labeled with a chemiluminescent label, binds to the antigen-antibody complex.
c. Excess reagent; linear binding to one site.
d. Capture antibody actively absorbed; antigen from specimen allowed to react

A

a. A fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen from a patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.

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18
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes sandwich immunoassay?
a. A fixed amount of labeled antigen competes with unlabeled antigen from a patient specimen for a limited number of antibody-binding sites.
b. The sample antigen binds to an antibody; a second antibody, labeled with a chemiluminescent label, binds to the antigen-antibody complex.
c. It is a type of noncompetitive assay.
d. Both b and c

A

d. Both b and c

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19
Q

Which enzyme label is often used in immunoassay procedures?
a. Acid phosphatase
b. Horseradish peroxidase
c. β-Galactose
d. All the above

A

b. Horseradish peroxidase

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20
Q

Enzyme immunoassay (EIA):
a. Uses a nonisotopic label
b. Uses antibody labeled with fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
c. Uses a colloidal particle consisting of a metal or an insoluble metal compound
d. Is not a safe technique

A

a. Uses a nonisotopic label

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21
Q

Immunofluorescent technique:
a. Uses a nonisotopic label
b. Uses antibody labeled with fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)
c. Uses a colloidal particle consisting of a metal or an insoluble metal compound
d. Is not very sensitive or specific

A

b. Uses antibody labeled with fluorescein isothiocyanate (FITC)

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22
Q

Direct immunofluorescent assay:
a. Is based on the fact that antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins
b. Uses conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level
c. Has antigen first exposed to unlabeled antibody, then labeled antibody
d. Is not used for tissue sections or smears for microbiology

A

b. Uses conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level

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23
Q

Inhibition immunofluorescent assay
a. Is based on the fact that antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins
b. Uses conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level
c. Has antigen first exposed to unlabeled antibody, then labeled antibody
d. Is based on the fact that if unlabeled and labeled antibodies are homologous to antigen, fluorescence is produced

A

c. Has antigen first exposed to unlabeled antibody, then labeled antibody

24
Q

Indirect immunofluorescent assay
a. Is based on the fact that antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins
b. Uses conjugated antibody to detect antigen-antibody reactions at a microscopic level
c. Has antigen first exposed to unlabeled antibody, then labeled antibody
d. Is rarely used to detect diverse antibodies

A

a. Is based on the fact that antibodies can act as antigens and react with antiimmunoglobulins

25
Q

For an enzyme to be used in an enzyme immunoassay, it must meet all the following criteria except:
a. High amount of stability
b. Extreme specificity
c. Presence in antigen or antibody
d. No alteration by inhibitor with the system

A

c. Presence in antigen or antibody

26
Q

A fluorescent substance is one that while (1)
______ light of one wavelength, (2) ______ light of another (longer) wavelength.

(1)
a. Emitting
b. Absorbing
c. Generating bright
d. Generating dull

(2)
a. Emits
b. Absorbs
c. Reduces
d. Increases

A

(1)
b. Absorbing

(2)
a. Emits

27
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of quantum dots (Q dots)?
a. Semiconductor nanocrystals
b. Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
c. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
d. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

a. Semiconductor nanocrystals

28
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of SQUID technology?
a. Semiconductor nanocrystals
b. Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
c. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
d. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

b. Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles

29
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of luminescent oxygen channeling immunoassay (LOCI)?
a. Semiconductor nanocrystals
b. Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
c. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
d. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

c. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles

30
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of fluorescent in situ hybridization (FISH)?
a. Semiconductor nanocrystals
b. Method of tagging antibodies with superparamagnetic particles
c. Technology based on two different 200-nm latex particles
d. Molecular cytogenetic technique

A

d. Molecular cytogenetic technique

31
Q

Chemiluminescence:
a. Has excellent sensitivity and dynamic range
b. Does not require sample radiation
c. Uses unstable chemiluminescent reagents and conjugates
d. Both a and b

A

d. Both a and b

32
Q

Compared with serologic assays, nucleic acid testing offers all the following benefits except:
a. Reduced cost
b. Enhanced specificity
c. Increased sensitivity
d. All the above

A

a. Reduced cost

33
Q

PCR testing is useful in:
a. Forensic testing
b. Genetic testing
c. Identification of the disease
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

34
Q

The traditional PCR technique:
a. Extends the length of the genomic DNA
b. Alters the original DNA nucleotide sequence
c. Amplifies the target region of DNA
d. Amplifies the target region of RNA

A

c. Amplifies the target region of DNA

35
Q

For the PCR reaction to take place, one must provide which of the following?
a. Oligonucleotide primers
b. Individual deoxynucleotides
c. Thermostable DNA polymerase
d. All the above

A

a. Oligonucleotide primers

36
Q

The enzyme reverse transcriptase converts:
a. mRNA to cDNA
b. tRNA to DNTP
c. dsDNA to ssDNA
d. Mitochondrial to nuclear DNA

A

a. mRNA to cDNA

37
Q

DNA polymerase catalyzes:
a. Primer annealing
b. Primer extension
c. Hybridization of DNA
d. Hybridization of RNA

A

b. Primer extension

38
Q

Which of the following is an application of Western blot immunoassay?
a. Messenger RNA is studied.
b. Called immunoblot, it is used to detect antibodies to subspecies of antigens.
c. Single-stranded DNA is studied.
d. It involves isolating mRNA

A

b. Called immunoblot, it is used to detect antibodies to subspecies of antigens.

39
Q

Which ion-selective electrode is universally used in the clinical laboratory?
a. pH electrode
b. Fluoride electrode
c. Chloride electrode
d. Sodium electrode

A

a. pH electrode

40
Q

An indicator electrode:
a. Is the main component of potentiometric techniques
b. Is an electrochemical half-cell that is used as a fixed reference for the cell potential measurements
c. Does not show activity of an ion in solution
d. Directly measures potential

A

a. Is the main component of potentiometric techniques

41
Q

A reference electrode:
a. Is the main component of potentiometric techniques
b. Is an electrochemical half-cell that is used as a fixed reference for the cell potential measurements
c. Does not require a known or constant potential value
d. Performs the same function as an indicator electrode

A

b. Is an electrochemical half-cell that is used as a fixed reference for the cell potential measurements

42
Q

In coulometry:
a. Mixtures of solutes dissolved in a common solvent are separated from one another by a differential distribution of the solutes between two phases.
b. Different molecules have different velocities in an electrical field.
c. The amount of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell is measured.
d. An oscillating current is applied to generate titrating agent.

A

c. The amount of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell is measured.

43
Q

In electrophoresis:
a. Mixtures of solutes dissolved in a common solvent are separated from one another by a differential distribution of the solutes between two phases.
b. Different molecules have different velocities in an electrical field.
c. The amount of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell is measured.
d. An oscillating current is applied to generate titrating agent

A

b. Different molecules have different velocities in an electrical field.

44
Q

In chromatography:
a. Mixtures of solutes dissolved in a common solvent are separated from one another by a differential distribution of the solutes between two phases.
b. Different molecules have different velocities in an electrical field.
c. The amount of current passing between two electrodes in an electrochemical cell is measured.
d. An oscillating current is applied to generate titrating agent

A

a. Mixtures of solutes dissolved in a common solvent are separated from one another by a differential distribution of the solutes between two phases.

45
Q

Using serum electrophoresis, protein can be separated into how many fractions?
a. Three
b. Four
c. Five
d. Six

A

c. Five

46
Q

Which of the following is the most common application of immunoelectrophoresis (IEP)?
a. Identification of the absence of a normal serum protein
b. Structural abnormalities of proteins
c. Screening for circulating immune complexes
d. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies

A

d. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies

47
Q

Immunofixation electrophoresis is best used in the:
a. Workup of a polyclonal gammopathy
b. Workup of a monoclonal gammopathy
c. Screening for circulating immune complexes
d. Identification of hypercomplementemia

A

b. Workup of a monoclonal gammopathy

48
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis involves:
a. Separation of proteins based on the rate of
migration of individual components in an electrical field
b. Electrophoresis of serum or urine
c. Double immunodiffusion following electrophoresis
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

49
Q

In immunoelectrophoresis (IEP), proteins are differentiated by:
a. Electrophoresis
b. Diffusion coefficient
c. Antibody specificity
d. All the above

A

d. All the above

50
Q

The most important application of IEP of urine is:
a. Diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathy
b. Diagnosis of polyclonal gammopathy
c. Diagnosis of autoimmune hemolysis
d. Demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ) protein

A

d. Demonstration of Bence Jones (BJ) protein

51
Q

Immunofixation electrophoresis (IFE) can test:
a. Serum and urine
b. Cerebrospinal fluid
c. Whole blood
d. Both a and b

A

d. Both a and b

52
Q

The primary use of IFE is:
a. Characterization of monoclonal immunoglobulins
b. Characterization of polyclonal immunoglobulins
c. Identification of monoclonal immunoglobulins
d. Identification of polyclonal immunoglobulins

A

a. Characterization of monoclonal immunoglobulins

53
Q

You need to perform an immunofluorescent assay that has improved sensitivity, uses an unlabeled antibody to detect antigen, and is suitable for detecting a wide variety of antibodies. Which assay should you use?
a. Direct immunofluorescence
b. Inhibition immunofluorescence
c. Indirect immunofluorescence
d. chemiluminescence

A

c. Indirect immunofluorescence

54
Q

In which methodology does a negative reaction confirm specificity?
a. Direct immunofluorescence
b. Inhibition immunofluorescence
c. Indirect immunofluorescence
d. chemiluminescence

A

b. Inhibition immunofluorescence

55
Q

In this procedure performed on a tissue sample, a specific nucleic acid is detected in an organism by an antibody directly tagged with a flurochrome (the fluorescent dye).
Which procedure is this?
a. Direct immunofluorescence
b. Inhibition immunofluorescence
c. Indirect immunofluorescence
d. chemiluminescence

A

a. Direct immunofluorescence

LINNE & RINGSRUD CHAPTER QUESTIONS (18 decks)

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