8 - Anesthesia Flashcards

1
Q

Smallest concentration of inhalation agent at which 50% of pts will not move with incision

A

MAC (minimum alveolar concentration)

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2
Q

MAC is inversely related to

A

potency (small MAC = more lipid soluble = more potent)

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3
Q

Anesthetic agent - Fast, minimal myocardial depression, tremors at induction

A

Nitrous Oxide (NO2)

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4
Q

Anesthetic agent - Least pungent, slow onset/offset; MOST cardiac depression and arrhythmias; good for CHILDREN

A

Halothane

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5
Q

Anesthetic agent - Fast onset/offset, less laryngospasms, GOOD for MASK induction

A

sevoflurane

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6
Q

Anesthetic agent - Lowers brain O2 consumption, no ICP increase; Good for NEUROSURGERY

A

Isoflurane

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7
Q

Anesthetic agent - Can cause seizures

A

Enflurane

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8
Q

Anesthetic agent - very rapid onset/offset; sedative; anesthesia and amnesia, NO anagelsia; SEs: HoTN, Metabolic Acidosis

A

Propofol

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9
Q

Anesthetic agent - dissociation of thalamic/limbic system; no resp depression; SEs: hallucinations, tachycardia, increase airway secretions

A

Ketamine

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10
Q

Anesthetic agent - Contraindicated in pt with head injury b/c increase cerebral blood flow, increase ICP

A

Ketamine

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11
Q

Anesthetic agent - fast acting, fewest cardiac effects; good for CHF or angina pts; can leads to adrenocortical suppression

A

Etomidate

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12
Q

Last muscle to go down and 1st to recover from paralytics

A

Diaphragm

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13
Q

1st muscle to go down and last to recover from paralytics

A

Neck and face muscles

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14
Q

Anesthetic agent - fast acting, depolarizing agent; causes fasciculations; can NOT be reversed; causes hyperkalemia from depolarization release of K

A

Succinylcholine

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15
Q

1st signs of malignant hyperthermia

A

Increase end-tidal CO2

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16
Q

Side effect of succinylcholine caused from calcium release from sarcoplasmic reticulum; Ca metabolism defect

A

Malignant hyperthermia

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17
Q

What does Dantrolene treat and how

A

Malignant hyperthermia - inhibits Ca release and decouples excitation complex

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18
Q

MOA of non-depolarizing agents

A

Inhibits neuromuscular junction by competing with acetylcholine

19
Q

Non-depolarizing agent - that can be used in liver and renal failure; causes Histamine release (HoTN)

A

Atracurium

20
Q

Non-depolarizing agent - fast, intermediate duration, HEPATIC metabolism

A

Rocuronium

21
Q

Non-depolarizing agent - slow acting, long duration; RENAL metabolism

A

Pancuronium

22
Q

Non-depolarizing reversal agent (2) - blocks acetylcholinesterase (increase ACh)

A

Neostigmine

Edrophonium

23
Q

Works by increasing action potential threshold (prevents Na influx)

A

Local anesthetics

24
Q

Max lidocaine dosing single and w/epi

A

4mg/kg; 7mg/kg w/epi

25
Q

Max bupivacaine dosing single and w/ epi

A

2mg/kg; 3mg/kg w/epi

26
Q

Opioids are metabolized by

A

Liver, excreted via kidneys

27
Q

Narcotic that can cause seizures, tremors, fasciculations; can NOT be given in pts on MAOIs (serotonin release syndrome); avoid in renal failure pts

A

Demerol (normeperidine analogue)

28
Q

Most potent narcotic

A

Sufentanil

29
Q

Agonist to GABA receptors in CNS; anticonvulsant; resp depression

A

Benzodiazepine

30
Q

Short acting benzo, crosses placenta, contraindicated in PREGNANCY

A

Midazolam (versed)

31
Q

Tx for benzo overdose; may cause seizures and arrhythmias

A

Flumazenil

32
Q

Epidural anesthesia allows anesthesia by

A

Sympathetic dennervation

33
Q

Drug given in epidural causes respiratory depression

A

Morphine

34
Q

Drug given in epidural causes decreased heart rate and blood pressure

A

Lidocaine

35
Q

Epidural insertion level for thoracotomy

A

T6-9

36
Q

Epidural insertion for laparotomy

A

T8-10

37
Q

Spinal anesthesia is injection into subarachnoid space below what spinal level to avoid spinal cord

A

L2

38
Q

Perioperative conditions associated with most postop hospital mortality (1st and 2nd)

A

1st - pre-op renal failure

2nd - CHF

39
Q

Most effective agent to prevent intra-op and post-op CV events

A

Beta-blocker

40
Q

How long to wait after MI before elective surgery

A

6-8 wks

41
Q

Intra-op sudden transient rise in end-tidal CO2 followed by massive drop

A

CO2 embolus

42
Q

Most common cause of post-op hypoxemia

A

Atelectasis (alveolar hypoventilation)

43
Q

Most common cause of post-op hypercarbia`

A

Poor minute ventilation (need to increase TV, bigger breaths)