7 -Meds and Pharm Flashcards

1
Q

Do not pass through liver (no 1st pass metabolism)

A

Sublingual and rectal drugs

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2
Q

Absorption based on lipid solubility through epidermis

A

Skin absorption

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3
Q

Absorption restricted to non-ionized lipid-soluble drugs

A

CSF absorption

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4
Q

Largely responsible for binding drugs

A

Albumin

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5
Q

Drugs that will displace unconjugated bili from albumin in newborns

A

Sulfonamides (Bactrim, Sulfasalazine)

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6
Q

Causes kernicterus (brain damage) in newborns

A

Sulfonamides (Bactrim, Sulfasalazine)

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7
Q

Drug types (2) stored in bone

A

Tetracycline and Heavy metals

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8
Q

Constant amount of drug eliminated regardless of dose

A

0 (zero) order kinetics

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9
Q

Drug amount eliminated proportional to dose

A

1st order kinetics

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10
Q

Time for a drug to reach steady state

A

5 half lives

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11
Q

Amount of drug in body divided by amount in plasma/blood

A

Volume of Distribution

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12
Q

Drugs with high volume of distribution have higher concentrations in extravascular or intravascular compartment?

A

Extravascular (eg fat tissue)

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13
Q

Fraction of unchanged drug reaching systemic circulation known as

A

Bioavailabilityq

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14
Q

Drug level at which desired effect occurs in 50% of pts

A

ED50

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15
Q

Drug level at which death occurs in 50% of pts

A

LD50

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16
Q

Decline in potency with continued use

A

Tolerance

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17
Q

Effect at an unusually low dose

A

Hyperactive

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18
Q

Tolerance after only a few doses

A

Tachyphylaxis

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19
Q

Dose required for effect

A

Potency

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20
Q

Ability to achieve results without untoward effect

A

Efficacy

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21
Q

Responsible for drug metabolism

A

Smooth ER (Liver), P450 system

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22
Q

Demethylation, oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis metabolism phase

A

Phase 1

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23
Q

Metabolism Phase for glucuronic acid and sulfate attached to for water-soluble metabolite

A

Phase 2

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24
Q

Product of phase 2 metabolism that’s usually inactive and ready for excretion

A

water-soluble metabolite

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25
Q

INHIBITORS of P450

A
MAMA bit (inhibit) VICK'S FACE
MAOIs
Amiodarone
Metronidazole
Alcohol (acute/binge-drinking)
Verapamil
Isonaizid
Cimetidine
Ketonzaole
'Sulfonamides

Flagyl
Allopurinol
Ciprofloxacin
Erythromycin

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26
Q

INDUCERS of P450

A
CRAP GPS induces WAR
Carbamazepines
Rifampin
Alcohol (Chronic)
Phenytoin

Green and leafy veggies
Phenobarb
Smoking

WARfarin

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27
Q

Most important organ for eliminating most drugs

A

Kidneys

28
Q

How do the kidneys eliminate most drugs (2 ways)

A

Glomerular filtration

Tubular secretion

29
Q

Water soluble drugs, more likely to be eliminated unaltered

A

Polar/Ionized Drugs

30
Q

Fat soluble drugs, more likely to be metabolized before excretion

A

Nonpolar/Non-ionized Drugs

31
Q

Negatively birefringent crystals that cause gout; End production of PURINE metabolism

A

Uric Acid

32
Q

Gout affecting big toe joint

A

Podagra

33
Q

Anti-inflammatory gout drug; binds TUBULIN and inhibit chemotaxis of WBCs

A

Colchicine

34
Q

NSAID gout drug; inhibits prostaglandin synthesis (reversible COX)

A

Indomethacin

35
Q

Xanthine oxidase inhibitor gout drug; blocks xanthine from forming uric acid

A

Allopurinol

36
Q

Gout drug increasing renal secretion of uric acid

A

Probenecid

37
Q

Gout drugs (4) and which for acute, which for chronic

A
I CAP the AC
Indomethacin
Colchicine
Allopurinol
Probenecid

Acute - Colchicine
Chronic - Allopurinol

38
Q

Binds bile acids in gut forcing body to resynthesize bile acids from cholesterol; can bind vitamin K, causing bleeding tendency

A

Cholestyramine

39
Q

Lipid lowering drug that can cause liver dysfunction and rhabdo

A

HMG-CoA reductase inhibitors (Statins)

40
Q

Lipid lowering drug that can cause flushing (Tx with ASA); inhibits cholesterol synthesis

A

Niacin

41
Q

Prokinetic GI drug that inhibits dopamine receptors; increase gastric and gut motility

A

Metoclopramide (Reglan)

42
Q

Prokinetic GI drug that binds and activates motolin receptor

A

Erythromycin

43
Q

Prokinetic GI drug that acts as ANTAgonist to mu-opioid receptor

A

Alvimopan

44
Q

GI drug that slows gut motility; AGONIST to mu-opioid receptor

A

Loperamide

45
Q

GI drug that slows gut motility; AGONIST to opioid receptor and inhibits muscarinic receptors

A

Lomotil (Atropine/Diphenoxylate)

46
Q

Antiemetic GI drug that inhibits dopamine receptors

A

Promethazine (phenergan)

47
Q

Antiemetic GI drug that acts centrally to inhibit serotonin receptors

A

Ondansetron (zofran)

48
Q

GI drug that is proton pump inhibitor; blocks H/K ATPase in stomach PARIETAL CELLS

A

Omeprazole

49
Q

GI drug that blocks H2 receptors; decrease stomach acid

A

Cimetidine/Ranitidine

50
Q

GI drug that acts as somatostatin analogue; decrease gut secretions

A

Octreotide

51
Q

Cardiac drug that inhibits Na/K ATPase; increase myocardial Ca

A

Digoxin

52
Q

Cardiac drug that is inotrope, slows AV conduction and NOT cleared with dialysis

A

Digoxin

53
Q

Side effects of amiodarone (3)

A

Pulmonary fibrosis
Hypothyroidism
Hyperthyroidism

54
Q

Used to treat torsades

A

Magnesium

55
Q

Cardiac drug that causes transient interruption of AV node

A

Adenosine

56
Q

Cardiac drug shown to be best single agent to improve survival in pts with CHF and prevent CHF after MI

A

ACE inhibitor

57
Q

Cardiac drug that can prevent progression of renal dysfunction in pts with DM and HTN

A

ACE inhibitor

58
Q

Cardiac drug shown to be best single agent to improve survival after MI

A

Beta-Blockers

59
Q

Cardiac drug that is an acetylcholine antagonist, INCREASES heart rate

A

Atropine

60
Q

Analogue of GnRH and LHRH

A

Leuprolide

61
Q

Alpha-adrenergic receptor antagonist; BPH

A

Tamsulosin

62
Q

PGE1 derivative; protective prostaglandin used to prevent peptic ulcer disease

A

misoprostol

63
Q

Antipsychotic, inhibits dopamine receptors

A

Haldol

64
Q

Most common side effect of iodine contrast

A

Nausea

65
Q

ASA poisoning causes what metabolic conditions (2, it switches)

A

1st - respiratory alkalosis

2nd - metabolic acidosis