8-4 PHARMACOLOGICAL PROFILES Flashcards

1
Q

What is a class of drugs that cause a dose-dependent depression of the central nervous system function, inducing sedation, sleep, and unconsciousness with increasing doses.

A

Sedatives and hypnotics

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2
Q

What class of drugs includes agents such as barbiturates, benzodiazepines, and melatonin agonists?

A

sedatives and hypnotics

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3
Q

Which sedative and hypnotic agent:

  • has anticonvulsive properties
  • depresses the sensory cortex
  • decrease motor activity
  • alter cerebellar function
  • produces drowsiness, sedation, hypnosis
A

barbiturates

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4
Q

What are the uses of barbiturates?

A
  • used as a sedative

- seizures, management of generalized tonic-clonic, status epilepticus, partial seizures

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5
Q

What are the adverse effects of barbiturates?

A
  • CNS: somnolence (excessive sleepiness)
  • Respiratory: hypoventilation
  • GI: nausea
  • CV: bradycardia
  • agitation, confusion, nightmares
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6
Q

What are the two examples of barbiturates?

A
  • phenobarbital

- thiopental

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7
Q

Anti-anxiety drugs are divided into what two categories?

A
  • benzodiazepines

- non- benzodiazepines

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8
Q

Most benzodiazepines cause generalized ___________.

These agents have no ______ properties.

A
  • CNS depression

- analgesic

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9
Q

Action for anti-anxiety medications:
-Act on brain’s dopamine and serotonin receptors
Benzo or non-benzo?

A

non-benzo

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10
Q

Action for anti-anxiety medications:
-bind to specific benzodiazepine receptors in the GABA receptor
Benzo or non-benzo?

A

benzo

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11
Q

What is the use of anti-anxiety medications?

A

-management of various forms of anxiety, including generalized anxiety disorder

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12
Q

Long term use of benzodiazepines: withdrawal syndrome after as little as ____ weeks of therapy.

A

4-6

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13
Q

What are the contraindications of anti-anxiety medications?

A
  • should not be used in comatose patients, pre-existing CNS depression, or with severe pain
  • acute narrow angle glaucoma
  • not to be taken with alcohol, tricyclic antidepressants, antipsychotics
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14
Q
What pregnancy class are anti-anxiety medications?
What is the pregnancy class for BuSpar and Zolpidem?
A
  • class D

- class B

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15
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines?

-Alprazolam

A

Xanax

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16
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines?

-Diazepam

A

Valium

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17
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines?

-Lorazepam

A

Ativan

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18
Q

Examples of non-benzodiazepines?

-Buspirone hydrochloride

A

Bu Spar

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19
Q

Examples of non-benzodiazepines?

-hydroxyzine

A

Atarax

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20
Q

What has a higher risk of dependency: non- benzos or benzos?

A

Benzos

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21
Q

What are the classes of antidepressants?

(6) TMSSSD

A
  • Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
  • Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOI)
  • Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
  • Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRI)
  • Serotonin reuptake inhibitor/antagonist
  • Dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor
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22
Q

Which antidepressant matches this action:

-Increases levels of norepinephrine and serotonin by inhibiting their reuptake, and block the action of acetylcholine

A

TCAs, tricyclic antidepressants

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23
Q

Which antidepressant matches this action:

-Inhibits the activity of monoamine oxidase resulting in increased endogenous neuro-hormones

A

MAOI

monoamine oxidase inhibitors

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24
Q

Which antidepressant matches this action:

increases serotonin by inhibiting neuronal uptake to CNS

A

SSRI

Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

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25
Q

What are the uses of anti-depressant class medications?

A
  • depressive sx
  • anxiety (class dependent)
  • OCD
  • smoking cessation=bupropion-wellbutrin
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26
Q

Wellbutrin is contraindicated in patients with?

A

seizure disorders

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27
Q

When educating your patient on anti-depressant use, ensure they do not take what supplement?

A

St. johns wart

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28
Q

Examples of anti- depressants:

-amitriptyline (tricyclic)

A

Elavil

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29
Q

Examples of anti- depressants, what is the medication used for the MAOI class?

A

Nardil

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30
Q

Examples of anti- depressants:

-what medication is used for the serotonin reuptake inhibitor/antagonist?

A

trazadone (desyrel)

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31
Q

Examples of anti- depressants:

-what two medications are used for the serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor/antagonist?

A
  • venlafaxine

- duloxetine

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32
Q

Examples of anti- depressants:

-what medication is used for the dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor?

A

bupropion/ wellbutrin

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33
Q

Examples of anti- depressants: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
-citalopram

A

celexa

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34
Q

Examples of anti- depressants: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
-fluoxetine

A

prozac

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35
Q

Examples of anti- depressants: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
-sertraline

A

zoloft

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36
Q

Examples of anti- depressants: selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRI)
-paroxetine

A

paxil

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37
Q

What class of anti-depressants is the first line medication?

A

SSRIs

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38
Q
What class of medication is defined by this action:
-block dopamine receptors in the brain, alters dopamine release and turnover
A

Antipsychotics

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39
Q

Antipsychotics are classified as what two types?

A
  • typical (1st generation)

- atypical (2nd generation)

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40
Q

What are the uses of antipsychotics?

A

-treatment of acute and chronic psychoses

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41
Q

Use of clozapine is limited to?

A

-schizophrenia unresponsive to conventional therapy

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42
Q

Chlorpromazine is also used in the treatment of?

A

-intractable hiccups

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43
Q

What are the contraindications for antipsychotics?

A
  • not recommended for use in severely depressed patients

- hypotension

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44
Q

Example of antipsychotics:
- haloperidol
What generation?

A

haldol

-1st gen, typical

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45
Q

Example of antipsychotics:
-prochlorperazine
What generation?

A

Compazine

-1st gen, typical

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46
Q

Example of antipsychotics:
-quetiapine
What generation?

A

seroquel

-2nd gen, atypical

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47
Q

Example of antipsychotics:
-olanzapine
What generation?

A

zyprexa

-2nd gen, atypical

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48
Q

What are the two classes of CNS stimulants?

A
  • amphetamines

- anorexiants

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49
Q

Which class of medication produces:

  • CNS and respiratory stimulation
  • dilated pupils
  • increased motor activity
  • mental alertness
  • diminished fatigue
A

CNS Stimulants

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50
Q

What are the uses of CNS stimulants?

A

treatment of

  • narcolepsy
  • ADHD
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51
Q

Examples of amphetamines:

-methylphenidate HCL

A

Concerta

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52
Q

Examples of amphetamines:

-dextroamphetamine

A

Adderall

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53
Q

Example of anorexiants:

-phentermine

A

Ionamin

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54
Q

What class of medications reduces the excitability of the neurons on the brain?

A

Anticonvulsants

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55
Q

What are the five types of seizures?

A
  • psychomotor
  • tonic clonic
  • myoclonic
  • absence
  • epilepsy
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56
Q

Which type of seizure is described as: may experience an aura with perceptual alterations and hallucination

A

psychomotor seizures

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57
Q

Which type of seizure is described as: alternate contraction and relaxation of muscles

A

tonic clonic

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58
Q

Which type of seizure is described as: sudden, forceful contraction involving the musculature of the trunk, neck, and extremities

A

myoclonic seizures

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59
Q

What type of seizure is described as:

A brief loss on consciousness during which physical activity ceases

A

absence seizures (petit mal)

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60
Q

What type of seizure is described as: permanent and recurrent seizure disorder

A

epilepsy

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61
Q

What are the uses for anticonvulsants?

A

decrease the incident and severity of seizures of various etiologies

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62
Q

What is an adverse effect of anticonvulsants that is considered a medical emergency?

A

Steven-Johnson syndrome

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63
Q

What is the pregnancy classification for anticonvulsants?

A

pregnancy class D

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64
Q

Benzodiazepines are used to treat status epilepticus, what is the drug regime of choice?

A

-lorazepam 4 mg IV
and
-midazolam 10 mg IM

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65
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines anticonvulsants:

-diazepam

A

valium

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66
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines anticonvulsants:

-lorazepam

A

ativan

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67
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines anticonvulsants:

-midazolam

A

versed

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68
Q

Examples of benzodiazepines anticonvulsants:

-clonazepam

A

klonopin

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69
Q

Examples of anticonvulsants:

-phenytoin

A

dilatin

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70
Q

Examples of anticonvulsants:

-ethosuximide

A

zarontin

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71
Q

Examples of anticonvulsants:

-valproic acid

A

depakote

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72
Q

Which type of anti-emetic acts on the chemoreceptor trigger zone to inhibit nausea and vomiting?

A

Phenothiazines

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73
Q

Which three medications act as an antiemetic mainly by diminishing motion sickness?

A
  • dimenhydrinate
  • scopolamine
  • meclizine
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74
Q

Which anti-emetic works by blocking the effects of serotonin at 5-HT3 receptor sites?

A

ondansetron

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75
Q

Which class of medication works primarily by inhibiting the chemoreceptor trigger zone or by depressing the sensitivity of the vestibular apparatus of the inner ear?

A

anti-emetic

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76
Q
Which medication class is described as used for:
prophylaxis or treatment of nausea or vomiting
A

antiemetic

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77
Q
Which medication class is described as being used for:
treatment of vertigo
A

antivertigo

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78
Q

What are contraindications of antiemetics?

A

-not recommended for patients with CNS depression

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79
Q

What is the pregnancy drug class for anti emetics?

A

Class X

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80
Q

Examples of antiemetics, phenothiazine types:

-prochlorperazine

A

-compazine

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81
Q

Examples of antiemetics, phenothiazine types:

-chlorpromazine

A

thorazine

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82
Q

Examples of antiemetics

-metoclopramide

A

reglan

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83
Q

Examples of antiemetics

-ondansetron

A

zofran

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84
Q

Examples of antiemetics

-promethazine

A

Phenergan

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85
Q

Examples of antivertigo medications

-meclizine

A

antivert

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86
Q

Examples of antivertigo medications

-diphenhydramine

A

Benadryl

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87
Q

Examples of antivertigo medications

-benzodiazepines (2)

A
  • ativan

- valium

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88
Q
What medication class best describes this action:
-removes the feeling or sensation
A

anesthetic

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89
Q
What medication class best describes this action:
-alleviates or relieves the pain from a patient
A

analgesic

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90
Q
Which class of medication is described as:
inhibiting transport of ions across neuronal membranes, thereby preventing initiation and conduction of normal nerve impulses
A

local anesthetics

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91
Q

Which medication is a non-competitive antagonist of glutamate at the N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor-cation channel complex, causing neuro-inhibition and anesthesia?
-patient is dissociated from the surrounding?

A

ketamine

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92
Q

Which medication is used to induce anesthesia in hypotensive patients or those likely to develop hypotension due to hypovolemia?

A

ketamine

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93
Q

Ketamine typically increases BP, HR, and cardiac output by increasing?

A

sympathetic tone

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94
Q

Which anesthetic excites the opioid receptors within the insular cortex, putamen, and thalamus, producing analgesia?

A

ketamine

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95
Q

How long is the IM anesthetic effect for ketamine?

A

3-4 minutes

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96
Q

Local anesthetics are utilized to produce a:

A

loss of sensation prior to minor painful procedures

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97
Q

Adverse reactions:

ketamine

A
  • pt with ischemic heart disease

- prolonged emergence from anesthesia

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98
Q

Contraindications:

-ketamine

A
  • known or suspected schizophrenia

- increases risk of laryngospasm, pt’s with airway instability, prior airway surgery are at higher risk

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99
Q

What is the dose of ketamine for analgesia IV?

-For IM?

A
  • 10 to 20 mg IV

- 20 to 40 mg IM

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100
Q

What is the dose for ketamine for induction of anesthesia IV?
-IM?

A
  • 1 to 2 mg/kg

- 4 to 6 mg/kg

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101
Q

Examples of anesthetics:

-lidocaine

A

xylocaine

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102
Q

Examples of anesthetics:

-bupivacaine

A

Marcaine

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103
Q

Examples of anesthetics:

-ketamine

A

ketalar

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104
Q

What is the IV anesthesia induction drug of choice for most non-trauma patients?

A

Propofol

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105
Q

Which medication is often selected to induce anesthesia in patients with hemodynamic instability because of its rapid onset without changes in BP , cardiac ouput, or HR?

A

Etomidate

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106
Q

What is the most hemodynamically neutral of the sedative-hypnotic agents used to induction of general anesthesia?

A

Etomidate

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107
Q

What are the sub classes of non-narcotic analgesics/anti-inflammatory/antipyretics?

A
  • salicylate
  • non salicylate
  • nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
  • urinary analgesics
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108
Q

What class of medications action is: inhibition of prostaglandins, dilates peripheral blood vessels (cools body), prolong bleeding by inhibiting aggregation of platelets?

A

salicylates

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109
Q

What are the uses of salicylates?

A
  • relief mild to moderate pain
  • reduction of body temperature
  • inflammatory conditions
  • decrease risk of myocardial infarction
  • prevention and treatment of blood clots
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110
Q

What are the adverse effects of salicylate class medications?

A
  • gastric upset
  • heart burn
  • nausea/vomiting
  • anorexia
  • GI bleed
  • reye syndrome in children with chickenpox/flu
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111
Q
These are examples of what class of medication:
-aspirin: bayer, ecotrin, enteric coated aspirin
A

salicylate

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112
Q

What is the action for non-salicylate class medications?

A
  • analgesic

- antipyretic

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113
Q

What are the uses for non-salicylate class medications?

A
  • relieve mild to moderate pain
  • reduce body temperature
  • arthritis
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114
Q

What are the adverse effects for non-salicylate class medications?

A
  • urticaria
  • hemolytic anemia
  • hepatoxicity
  • allergy to acetaminophen
  • severe hepatic or liver disease
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115
Q

What is the maximum recommended daily dose of acetaminophen?

A

> 4g daily

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116
Q

What is the generic name for cepacol?

A

benzocaine-menthol

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117
Q
Which class of medications if defined as this action and is a anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic:
-inhibit the action of the enzyme cyclooxygenase which is responsible for prostaglandin synthesis
A

nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

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118
Q

What are the uses for NSAIDs?

A

-Arthritis
-mild to moderate pain
dysmenorrhea
-fever reduction

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119
Q

Which medication class has the adverse effects of:

  • GI: nausea and vomiting
  • may increase risk of heart attack or stroke
A

NSAIDs

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120
Q

What are the adverse effects of celecoxib?

A
  • dyspepsia

- renal function

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121
Q

What are the adverse effects of ibuprofen?

A

effects on platelets and their role on clotting

-increased risk with higher doses

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122
Q

What is the contraindication of celecoxib?

A

allergy to sulfonamides

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123
Q

What is the contraindication for ibuprofen?

A
  • peptic ulcer
  • GI bleed
  • hypertension
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124
Q

What are the examples of ibuprofen?

A
  • motrin

- advil

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125
Q

What are the examples of indomethacin?

A

indocin

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126
Q

What are the examples of ketolorac?

A

toradol

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127
Q

What are the examples of naproxen?

A
  • aleve

- naprosyn

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128
Q

What are the examples of celecoxib?

A

celebrex

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129
Q

What are the examples of meloxicam?

A

mobic

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130
Q

What is the first line treatment for gout?

A

indomethacin

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131
Q

Which NSAID is used for once a day dosing?

A

Mobic

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132
Q

Which NSAID is used for acute pain and given in the clinic IM?
What is the dose?

A
  • toradol

- 30-60 mg

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133
Q

What is the action for the urinary anesthetic/analgesic class of medications?

A

pyridium is a topical bladder and urethral anesthetic and analgesic through unknown mechanism

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134
Q

What is the use of the urinary anesthetic/analgesic class medication pyridium?

A

bladder analgesic used to treat pain associated with UTI

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135
Q

What is the dose for pyridium?

A

100 mg TID for 5 days as needed for dysuria

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136
Q

What should you warn your patient about when using pyridium?

A
  • urine turns a reddish-orange color

- this can stain underwear

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137
Q

What is the example of phenazopyridine?

A

pyridium

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138
Q
What class of medication is described by this action:
-opioids bind to opiate receptors in the CNS where they act as agonists of endogenously occurring opioid peptides (endorphins). The result is alteration to the perception of and response to pain.
A

Narcotic analgesics

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139
Q

What is the use for narcotic analgesics?

A

short term management of moderate to severe pain

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140
Q

What are the adverse effects of narcotic analgesics?

A
  • respiratory depression
  • light-headedness
  • constipation
  • nausea/vomiting
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141
Q

What are the contraindications of narcotic analgesics?

A
  • head injury/increased ICP
  • hypoxia
  • hepatic impairment
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142
Q

What is the example of fentanyl?

A

sublimaze

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143
Q

What is the example of hydromorphone?

A

dilaudid

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144
Q

What is the example of methadone?

A

dolophine

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145
Q

What is the example of morphine sulfate?

A

MS Contin

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146
Q

What is the example of oxycodone?

A

oxycontin

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147
Q

What are the examples of hydrocodone?

A
  • norco
  • lortab
  • vicodin
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148
Q
What class of medication is described by this action:
-an opioid antagonist is a receptor antagonist that acts on opioid receptors. binds to the opioid receptors with higher affinity than agonists but do not activate receptors, preventing the body from responding to opiates and endorphins.
A

narcotic antagonist

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149
Q

What is the use for a narcotic antagonist?

A

Overdose of a narcotic

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150
Q

What is the adverse effect of narcotic antagonists?

A

acute opioid withdrawal

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151
Q

Where are the highest amount of histamines found?

A
  • basophils (WBC)

- mast cells

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152
Q

produce vasodilation of arterioles and increased permeability of capillaries and venule, which allow fluid to escape into the surrounding tissue resulting in localized swelling

A

histamine

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153
Q
Which class of medication is described by this action:
-work by binding to histamine H1 receptors in mast calls, smooth muscle, and endothelium in the body as well as the brain.
suppress the histamine-induced wheal response (swelling) and flare response (vasodilation)
A

H1 anit-histamines

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154
Q

What are the uses of H1 anti-histamines?

A
  • treat allergic reactions
  • may be used to treat insomnia, motion sickness, vertigo
  • urticaria
  • adjunctive therapy for anaphaylactic reactions and angioedema (swelling of the eyes)
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155
Q

Where do H2 antihistamines bind to?

A

-histamine receptors in the upper GI tract, primarily the stomach

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156
Q

What are the uses of H2 antihistamines?

A

-treat gastric conditions (peptic ulcers/acid reflux)

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157
Q

What antihistamine may also help with the relief of parkinson-like reactions?

A

diphenhydramine

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158
Q

What is an example of hydrozyine?

A

atarax

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159
Q

What is an example of promethazine?

A

phenergan

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160
Q

What is an example of cetirizine HCL?

A

zyrtec

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161
Q

What is an example of fexofenadine?

A

allegra

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162
Q

What is an example of loratadine?

A

claritin

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163
Q

What class of medications reduces swelling of nasal passages and enhances drainage of sinuses?

A

decongestant

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164
Q
Which class of medication action is described as:
act by enhancing norepinephrine and epinephrine or adrenergic activity by stimulating the alpha-adrenergic receptors.  This induces vasoconstriction of the blood vessels of the nose, throat, paranasal sinuses, which results in reduced inflammation and mucus formation in these areas.
A

decongestants

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165
Q

What are the uses of decongestants?

A
  • common cold
  • hay fever
  • allergies
  • sinus congestion/pressure
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166
Q

What are the contraindications for decongestants?

A
  • use with caution with hypertension, DMII(type 2 diabetes), increased intraocular pressure
  • may worsen prostatic hyperplasia/urinary obstruction
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167
Q

What is the example of oxymetazoline HCL?

A

Afrin

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168
Q
Which class of medications is defined by this action:
release stimulants and reuptae inhibitors
A
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169
Q
Which class of medications is defined by this action:
release stimulants and reuptake inhibitors that increase the levels of endogenous catecholamines,
A

bronchodilators

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170
Q

Where are Beta 2 receptors located?

When stimulated they cause relaxation (dilation) of what?

A
  • bronchial smooth muscle

- bronchioles

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171
Q

What are the uses of bronchodilators?

A

reversible airway disease caused by bronchospasm due to

  • asthma
  • bronchitis
  • emphysema
  • obstructive pulmonary disease
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172
Q

What are the adverse effects of bronchodilators?

A
  • excessive use can cause paradoxical bronchospasm
  • nausea, vomiting, restlessness
  • tachycardia, increase respiration
  • nervousness, headache, palpitations
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173
Q

What are the contraindications of bronchodilators?

A
  • cardiac arrhythmias, narrow angle glaucoma

- may inhibit effects of beta 2 agonist

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174
Q
Use albuterol (beta 2 agonist) with cause in patients with?
It may increase what?
A
  • diabetes mellitus

- may increase serum blood glucose

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175
Q

What are examples of albuterol sulfate?

A
  • proventil
  • ventolin
  • pro air
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176
Q

What are examples of levalbuterol HCL?

A

-xopenex

177
Q
What class of medication is described by this action:
-antagonizes acetylcholine receptors, producing bronchodilation.
A

-muscarinic antagonists

178
Q

What are the uses of muscarinic antagonists?

A

symptomatic relief or prevention of bronchial asthma and the management of COPD

179
Q

What are the adverse effects of anticholinergics (muscarinic antagonists)?

A
  • flushed face (red as a beet)
  • blurred vision (blind as a bat)
  • urinary retention (stuffed as a pipe)
  • confusion (mad as a hatter)
  • hallucinations (mad as a hatter)
  • increased HR/body temp (hot as a hare)
  • dry mouth (dry as a bone)
180
Q

What are the contraindications of muscarinic antagonist anticholingergics?

A
  • peptic ulcer
  • seizure
  • arrhythmias
  • hyperthyroid
  • caution with >60 yr olds
181
Q

What is the example of ipratropium?

A

atrovent

182
Q

What is the example of tiotropium?

A

spiriva

183
Q
Which class of medication is described by this action:
-broncho constrictive substance released by the body during inflammation. Antagonist results in bronchodilation
A

leukotriene antagonist

184
Q
What class of medication is described by this action:
-inhibit the release of substances that cause bronchoconstriction and inflammation from the mast cells in the respiratory tract
A

mast cell stabilizer

185
Q

What are the uses of luekotriene antagonist and mast cell stabilizers?

A
  • treatment of asthma

- treatment of COPD

186
Q

What are the adverse effects of luekotriene antagonist and mast cell stabilizers?

A
  • headache
  • dizziness
  • unpleasant taste
  • fatigue
187
Q

What are the contraindications of luekotriene antagonist and mast cell stabilizers?

A
  • acute asthma/bronchospasm

- aspirin-sensitive asthmatics

188
Q

What is the example of a luekotriene antagonist?

-generic and brand name?

A

montelukast (singular)

189
Q

What is an example of a mast cell stabilizer?

-generic and brand name?

A

cromolyn (nasalcrom)

190
Q

Which class of medications is described by this action:

  • produce profound and varied metabolic effects, in addition to modifying the normal immune response and suppressing inflammation
  • decrease inflammatory process in the airway through inhibiting multiple different inflammatory cytokines
A

inhale corticosteriods

191
Q

What are the uses for larger doses of inhaled corticosteriods used for?

A

anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, or anti-neoplastic(drugs that treat cancer) activity

192
Q

What are the uses for inhalant corticosteriods?

A

-chronic management of reversible airway disease (asthma)

193
Q

What are the uses for intranasal and ophthalmic corticosteriods?

A

used in management of chronic allergies and inflammatory conditions

194
Q

What are the contraindications for inhaled corticosteriods?

A
  • throat irritation
  • cough
  • candida albicans (yeast infection)
195
Q

inhale corticosteriods

What is the example of budesonside?

A

pulmicort

196
Q

inhale corticosteriods

What is the example of fluticasone?

A

flovent

197
Q

Which class of medication is classified into central acting and peripheral acting?

A

-antitussives

198
Q

What is the action for central acting antitussives?

A

depresses cough center

199
Q

What is the action for peripheral acting antitussives?

A

anesthetize stretch receptors

200
Q

What are the uses of antitussives?

A

-relieve a non productive cough

201
Q

What are the adverse effects of antitussives?

A

-drugs with codeine- respiratory depression, euphoria, sedation

202
Q

What are the contraindications of antitussives?

A
  • premature infants
  • caution with persistent or chronic cough
  • caution when using codeine in respiratory disorders
203
Q

Antitussives

What is the example of benzonatate?

A

tessalon pearls

204
Q

Antitussives

What is the example of benzonatate?

A

tessalon pearls

205
Q

Antitussives

What is the example of dextromethorphan?

A

robitussin

206
Q

Antitussives

What is the example of diphenhydramine?

A

benadryl

207
Q
What class of medication is defined by this action:
loosens and mobilizes thick mucus from respiratory system
A

mucolytic

208
Q
What class of medication is defined by this action:
raises thick mucus from respiratory system
A

expectorant

209
Q

What is the use of mucolytic class medications?

A

bronchopulmonary disease

210
Q

What is the use of expectorant class medications?

A

common cold

211
Q

What is an example of a mucolytic class medication?

A

-acetylcysteine (mucomyst)

212
Q

What is the example of an expectorant class medication?

A

-guaifenesin (tussin, mucinex)

213
Q

What is defined as an abnormal electric current in the heart?

A

cardiac arrhythmias

214
Q

Which class of medication is defined by these actions:

  • blockade of Na of K channels
  • raise the potential threshold
  • block beta receptor stimuli
  • block calcium channels
A

antiarrhythmics

215
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmic is defined as:

  • depresses myocardial excitability to electrical stimuli, thus decreasing the pulse rate.
  • lidocaine raises the threshold in the ventricular myocardium
  • some arrhythmias have too much stimuli and lidocaine will depress the threshold of the muscle
A

class 1

216
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmic is defined as:

  • beta blockers block stimulation of the beta receptors of the heart
  • adrenergic neurohormones stimulate the beta receptors and increase the heart rate
A

class 2

217
Q

Which class of antiarrhythmic is defined as:

  • amiodarone blocks potassium channels in the heart
  • this is used for ventricular dysrhythmias and atrial fibrillation
A

class 3

218
Q
Which class of antiarrhythmic is defined as:
-verapmil blocks calcium channels which are critical in the production of muscle contraction and electrical conduction
A

class 4

219
Q

Antiarrhythmia class medications are used to treat cardiac arrhythmias such as?

A
  • premature ventricular contractions
  • tachycardia
  • premature atrial contractions
  • ventricular dysrhythmias
  • atrial fibrillation and atrial flutter
220
Q
Antiarrhythmia class medications:
lidocaine HCL example
A

xylocaine

221
Q
Antiarrhythmia class medications:
amiodarone example
A

cordarone

222
Q
Antiarrhythmia class medications:
which medication is a beta blocker
A

metoprolol (lopressor)

223
Q
Antiarrhythmia class medications:
which medications are calcium channel blockers?
A
  • verapamil

- diltiazem

224
Q

What is defined as “decrease in oxygen supply to the heart muscle resulting in chest pain or pressure””?

A

angina

225
Q
What class of medications is defined by this action:
-direct relaxing effect on smooth muscle of blood vessels (both arterial and veins)
A

nitrates

226
Q

Nitrate medications is a subclass of which class of medication?

A

antianginal

227
Q

What are the use of nitrate class medications?

A

treatment of angina pectoris

228
Q

What are the adverse effects of nitrate class medications?

A
  • headache
  • hypotension
  • dizziness, vertigo
229
Q

What are the contraindications of nitrate class medications?

A
  • postural hypotension
  • closed angle glaucoma
  • right sided heart failure
230
Q

Do not give nitroglycerin if the BP is?

A

<100 mg systolic

231
Q

You should not use nitrate class medication in combination with medications that are used for?

A

erectile disfunction

232
Q

What class of medication is nitroglycerin?

A

nitrate, antianginal

233
Q

What are the guidelines for a normal BP?

A
  • systolic: <120

- diastolic: <80

234
Q

What are the guidelines for an elevated BP?

A
  • systolic: 120-129

- diastolic: 80

235
Q

What are the guidelines for stage 1 elevated BP?

A
  • systolic: 130 to 139

- diastolic: 80 to 89

236
Q

What are the guidelines for stage 2 elevated BP?

A
  • systolic: at least 140

- diastolic: at least 90

237
Q

What is step 1 in the step-care regimen of BP?

A

Life style changes

  • salt restriction
  • weight reduction
  • exercise
  • stress reduction
  • sleep
238
Q

What is step 2 in the step-care regimen of BP?

A

use of medications

-diuretics are used to control 80% of pts

239
Q

What is step 3 in the step-care regimen of BP?

A

increase dose of drugs or combine 2 drugs

240
Q

What is step 4 in the step-care regimen of BP?

A

combine 2-3 drugs

241
Q

What are the sub classes of anti-hypertension medications?

A
  • ace inhibitors, ARBs
  • diuretics
  • calcium channel blockers
  • beta blocker
242
Q
Which subclass of anti-hypertension medications action is defined as:
-lower blood pressure by dilating or increasing the size of the arterial blood vessels
A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs

243
Q

What is the use of ACE inhibitors, ARBs?

A

treatment of hypertension

244
Q

Which class of anti-hypertension medications is the 1st line indication in the treatment of hypertension in patients with diabetes?

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs

245
Q

What are the adverse effects of ACE inhibitors, ARBs?

A
  • postural or orthostatic hypotension
  • ACE-I: angioedema, hyperkalemai
  • dry hacking cough, less common with ARBs
246
Q

What are the contraindications for ACE inhibitors, ARBs?

A
  • caution with renal or hepatic disease

- electrolyte imbalance

247
Q

What are examples of ACE-inhibitor medications?

A
  • lisinopril
  • captopril
  • enalapril
  • ramipril
248
Q
Which subclass of anti-hypertension medications is defined by this action:
-these agents act by causing peripheral vasodilation (it inhibits calcium from getting into the muscle cells to cause contraction)
A

calcium channel blockers

249
Q

What are the uses of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • treating HTN

- atrial cardiac arrhythmias

250
Q

What are the two categories of calcium channel blockers?

A
  • dihydropyridines

- non-dihydropyridines

251
Q

Which class of calcium channel blockers is this:

  • potent vasodilators
  • little or no negative effect upon cardiac contractility or conduction
  • primarily used for treatment of HTN
A

dihydropyridines

252
Q

Which class of calcium channel blockers is this:

  • less potent vasodilators
  • have a greater depressive effect on cardiac conduction and contractility
  • used for treatment of chronic stable angina, cardiac arrhythmias, and proteinuria reduction
A

non-dihydropyridines

253
Q

What are the adverse effects for dihydropyridines?

A
  • HA
  • lightheadedness
  • flushing
  • peripheral edema
254
Q

What are the adverse effects of nondihydropyridines

A
  • constipation
  • bradycardia
  • heart failure/block
255
Q

Which type of anti-hypertensive is much more effective in the older and black patients?

A

calcium channel blockers

256
Q

These medications are an example of what type of calcium channel blocker?

  • nifefipine
  • felodipine
  • nicardipine
  • amlodipine
A

dihydropyridines

257
Q

What type of calcium channel blockers are these medications?

  • verapamil
  • diltiazem
A

non-dihydropyridines

258
Q
Which anti-hypertension class is defined by this action:
-compete with adrenergic neurotransmitters for adrenergic receptor sites
A

beta blockers

259
Q

Which anti-hypertensive medication is used for:

  • management of hypertension
  • angina pectoris
  • tachyarrhythmia
  • hypertrophic subaortic stenosis
  • migraine headache
  • CHF
A

beta blockers

260
Q

What are the adverse effects of beta blockers?

A
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • bronchospasm
261
Q

Which class of anti-hypertension medications are these:

  • metoprolol
  • propanolol
A

beta blockers

262
Q

What are the 5 classes of diuretics?

A
  • carbonic anhydrase inhibitor
  • loop diuretics
  • osmotic diuretics
  • potassium sparing
  • thiazide
263
Q
Which class of diuretics is defined by this action?
- inhibit the action of carbonic anhydrase which leads to the excretion of sodium, potassium, bicarbonate, and water
A

carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

264
Q
Which class of diuretics is defined by this action?
- increase excretion of sodium and chloride by inhibiting the re-absorption of these ions in the distal proximal tubules and the loop of henle.
A

loop diuretics

265
Q
Which class of diuretics is defined by this action?
-Increase the density of the filtrate in the glomerulus; prevents re-absorption of water. Salt and chloride follow water.
A

osmotic diuretics

266
Q
Which class of diuretics is defined by this action?
-Decreases the re-absorption of sodium and water in the kidney and increase potassium retention.
A

Potassium sparing

267
Q
Which class of diuretics is defined by this action?
-Inhibit re-absorption of sodium and chloride ions in the kidney
A

Thiazide

268
Q

What are the uses of diuretics?

A
  • open angle glacoma
  • edema due to CHF, cirrhosis of the liver or renal disease
  • hypertension
269
Q

What are the adverse effects of diuretics?

A
  • fluid and electrolyte imbalance
  • hypertension
  • arrhythmias
270
Q

Which class of diuretics is this medication?
-acetazolamide
What is it used for?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

-used for the management of idiopathic intracranial hypertension and elevated pressure (glaucoma)

271
Q

Which class of diuretics is this medication?
-furosemide (lasix)
-Bumetanide
What is it used for?

A

Loop diuretics

-Management of edema associated with CHF, cirrhosis of the liver, or renal disease

272
Q

Which class of diuretics is this medication?
-mannitol
What is it used for?

A

Osmotic diuretics

-used for the management of elevated intracranial pressure and cerebral edema

273
Q

Which class of diuretics is this medication?
-spironolactone
What is it used for?

A

Potassium sparing

-used as additional therapy for hypertension

274
Q

Which class of diuretics is this medication?
-hydrochlorothiazide
-chlorthalidone
What is it used for?

A

Thiazide

-one of the first line indications for managing hypertension in the absense of any contraindication

275
Q

What is the preferred medication to use whenever a thiazide diuretic is used?

A

chlorthalidone

276
Q

What is a fat like substance in the blood?

A

Lipid

277
Q

What are the two types of lipids?

A
  • cholesterol

- triglycerides

278
Q

What does LDL and HDL stand for?

A
  • low density lipoprotein

- high density lipoprotein

279
Q

What are the 3 types of hyperlipidemias?

A
  • HMG-CoA (statins)
  • bile acid seqeustrates
  • fenofibrate (tricor)
280
Q
Which class of antihyperlipemia is defined by this action:
-inhibit an enzyme involved in cholesterol synthesis
A

Statins

281
Q
Which class of antihyperlipemia is defined by this action:
- bind cholesterol in the GI tract
A

bile acid sequestrates

282
Q
Which class of antihyperlipemia is defined by this action:
-reduces VLDL and stimulates the catabolism of triglyeriderich lipoproteins, which results in the decrease in plasma triglycerides and cholesterol
A

fenofibrate

283
Q

What are adverse effects of hyperlipedemias?

A
  • constipation
  • abdominal cramps
  • nausea
  • rhabdomyolysis
  • liver dysfunction
284
Q

Which initial labs should you get before starting your patient on antihyperlipidemias?

A
  • LFT
  • lipid panel
  • chemistry
285
Q

Which antihyperlipedemias medications are statins?

A
  • atorvastatin

- simvastatin

286
Q

Which class of hyperlipedemias are these medications?

  • cholestyramine
  • colestipol
  • colesevelam
A

bile acid sequestrates

287
Q
Which class of medication is defined by this action:
-neutralize or reduce the acidity of the stomach and duodenal contents by combining with hydrochloric acid and producing salt and water?
A

antacids

288
Q

Aluminum and calcium containing antacid products tend to produce?

A

constipation

289
Q

Antacids that contain _____ have these adverse reactions:

  • constipation
  • intestinal impaction
  • anorexia
  • weakness
  • tremors
  • bone pain
A

aluminum

290
Q

Antacids that contain _____ have these adverse reactions:

  • severe diarrhea
  • dehydration
  • hypermagnesemia
A

magnesium

291
Q

Antacids that contain _____ have these adverse reactions:

  • rebound hyperacidity
  • metabolic alkalosis
  • hypercalcemia
  • vomiting
  • confusion
  • neurologic impairment
A

calcium

292
Q

Which type of antacid has an adverse effect of systemic alkalosis, rebound hypersecretion

A

sodium bicarbonate

293
Q

These medications are examples of what type of medications:

  • aluminum hydroxide gel
  • magnesium hydroxide (milk of magnesia)
  • calcium carbonate
  • calcium carbonate/magnesium hydroxide
  • sodium citrate/citric acid
A

antacids

294
Q
Which medications class is defined as:
-inhibit the actions of histamine at histamine H2 receptor cells of the stomach, which then reduces the secretion of gastric acid
A

Histamine H2 antagonist

295
Q

These medications are what class of medication

  • cimetidine
  • famotidine
  • ranitidine
A

Histamine H2 Antagonist

296
Q
Which class of medications if defined by this action:
- suppress gastric acid secretion by blocking the final step in the production of gastric acid be the gastric mucosa
A

proton pump inhibitors

297
Q

Which type of antacid is used for:

  • GERD
  • pathological hyper-secretory conditions
  • erosive esophagitis
  • ulcers with H. pylori
A

Proton pump inhibitors

298
Q

These medications are what class of medications:

  • esomeprazole
  • omeprazole
  • pantoprazole
  • rebeprazole
  • lansoprazole
A

-proton pump inhibitor

299
Q
Which class of medication is defined as this action:
-decrease intestinal peristalsis
A

anti-diarrheal

300
Q

You should not use anti-diarrheal medications in diarrhea associated with organisms?

A
  • E coli
  • salmonella
  • shigella
301
Q

Loperamide is an example of what class of medications?

A

anti-diarrheal

302
Q
Which class of medication is defined by this action:
-disperses and prevents the formation of mucus-surrounded gas pockets in the intestine
A

antiflatulents

303
Q

Simethicone is what class of medication

A

antiflatuents

304
Q

What are the 6 types of laxatives?

A
  • bulk producing
  • emollient
  • fecal softeners
  • hyperosmolar
  • irritant or stimulant
  • saline
305
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:
-not digested by the body and therefore adds bulk and water to the contents of the intestines. The added bulk in the intestines stimulates peristalsis.

A

bulk producing

306
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:

-lubricate the intestinal walls and soften the stool, enhancing passage of fecal material

A

emollient

307
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:

-promote water retention in the fecal mass and soften the stool

A

fecal softners

308
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:

-dehydrate local tissue, causes irritation and increase peristalsis

A

hyperosmolar

309
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:

- increase peristalsis by direct action on the intestine

A

irritant or stimulant

310
Q

Which type of laxative is defined by the action:
-attract or pull water into the intestine, thereby increasing pressure in the intestine followed by an increase in peristalsis

A

saline

311
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

  • psyllium metamucil
  • methylcellulose
  • polycarbophil
  • wheat dextrin
A

bulk forming

312
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

-mineral oil (enema)

A

emollient

313
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

-docusate sodium (colace)

A

fecal softner

314
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

  • glycerin
  • polyethylene glycol (PEG): GoLYTELEY, miraLAX
  • lactulose
  • sorbitol
A

hyperosmolar

315
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

  • bisacodyl (dulcolax)
  • senna
A

irritant or stimulant

316
Q

These medications are which type of laxative?

  • magnesium citrate
  • milk of magnesia
A

saline

317
Q

Excessive or prolonged use of hemorrhoid agents may lead to?

A

atrophy of the tissues

318
Q

These medications are examples of what class?

  • hydrocortisone
  • cortifoam 10%
  • proctocream HC 2.5%
  • pramzine
  • tux pads
A

hemorrhoid agents

319
Q

What stimulates peripheral glucose uptake and stimulates the synthesis of glycogen by the liver

A

insulin

320
Q

What promotes protein synthesis and helps the body store fat by preventing its breakdown for energy?

A

insulin

321
Q

What are the 5 types of anti diabetics?

A
  • sulfonylureas
  • biguanides
  • glucosidase inhibitors
  • meglitinides
  • thiazolidinediones
322
Q
What type of anti-diabetic class is defined by this action:
-lower blood glucose by stimulating beta cells of the pancreas to make more insulin
A

sulfonylureas

323
Q
What type of anti-diabetic class is defined by this action:
-reduces hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity in muscle and fat cells
A

biguanides

324
Q
What type of anti-diabetic class is defined by this action:
-lower blood sugar by delaying digestion of carbs and absorption
A

-glucosidase inhibitors

325
Q
What type of anti-diabetic class is defined by this action:
- stimulates release of insulin
A

meglitinides

326
Q
What type of anti-diabetic class is defined by this action:
-decrease insulin resistance and increase insulin sensitivity
A

thiazolidinediones

327
Q

Which anti-diabetic class may result in lactic acidosis, especially in patients with renal impairment?

A

biguanides

328
Q

Which anti-diabetic class can cause or exacerbate CHF?

A

thiazolidinediones

329
Q

Which anti-diabetic class is not recommended in patients who have an allergy to sulfonamides?

A

sulfonylureas

330
Q

Which type of anti-diabetic is this medication?

-glyburide

A

sulfonylureas

331
Q
Which anti-diabetic class is this medication?
-metformin
A

biguanides

332
Q
Which anti-diabetic class is this medication?
-pioglitazone
A

thiazolidinediones

333
Q

Which hormones are principally concerned with increasing the metabolic rate of tissue and, influence every organ and tissue in the body?

A

thyroid hormones

334
Q

Myocardial infarction and thyrotoxicosis are contraindications of what class of medication?

A

thyroid medications

335
Q

What is the medication used for thyroid hormones?

A

levothyroxine (synthroid)

336
Q

Which hormone aids in the development and maintenance of secondary sex characteristics?

A

-male hormones

337
Q

What are class is used for:

  • replacement therapy for testosterone deficiency
  • breast cancer in females
  • delayed puberty in males
A

male hormones

338
Q

What are the adverse reactions of male hormones?

A
  • breast enlargement in males
  • testicular atrophy
  • inhibition of testicular function
  • cardiovascular conditions
  • impotence
339
Q

What medication is an example of male hormones?

A

-methyltestosterone

340
Q

Estrogen is secreted by the?

A

ovarian follicle

341
Q

Which hormone is important in the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and actions include:

  • protein anabolism
  • thinning of the cervical mucus
  • inhibitions of ovulation
A

estrogens

342
Q

Progestin is secreted by?

A
  • corpus luteum
  • placenta
  • adrenal cortex
343
Q

Which hormone is necessary for the development of placenta and inhibit the secretion of pituitary gonadotropins, which prevents maturation of the ovarian follicle and ovulation?

A

progestin

344
Q

Which type of oral contraceptives are:

  • norethindrone
  • drospirenone
  • levonorgestrel
A

Progestin only pills

POPs

345
Q

What is the emergency contraceptive?

A

levonorgestrel

346
Q

What is the single dose regimen of levonorgestrel?

A

-one 1.5 mg tablet taken ASAP/within 72 hours

347
Q

What is the two dose regimen of levonorgestrel?

A
  • one .75 mg tablet taken ASAP/within 72 hours

- a second .75 mg dose taken 12 hours after the first dose

348
Q

What are the types of combined estrogen-progestin oral contraceptives (COC)?

A
  • monophasic
  • biphasic
  • triphasic
349
Q

Which type of COC is defined as:

fixed dose of estrogen and progestin throughout the cycle

A

monophasic

350
Q

Which type of COC is defined as:
deliver hormones similar to the levels naturally produces by the body to provide lower doses with the same degree of effectiveness

A

-biphasic and triphasic

351
Q

Which type of oral contraceptive has adverse reactions such as:

  • headaches
  • venous thromboembolism
A

COC

352
Q

What is defined as:

requires oxygen to survive

A

aerobic

353
Q

What is defined as:

able to live without oxygen

A

anaerobic

354
Q

What is defined as:

drugs that slow or retard the multiplication of bacteria

A

bactericidal

355
Q

What is defined as:

-drugs that kill bacteria

A

bacteriostatic

356
Q

What is defined as:

-drugs effective against both gram negative and gram positive bacteria

A

broad spectrum

357
Q

What is defined as:

-non-pathogenic microorganisms within or on the body

A

normal flora

358
Q

What is defined as:

an overgrowth of bacteria or fungal microorganisms not affected by the antibiotic being used for treatment

A

superinfection

359
Q

The effectiveness of the individual antibiotics depends on what factors?

A
  • location of infection
  • ability of the antibiotic to reach the site of infection
  • ability of the bacteria to resist or inactivate the antibiotic
360
Q
Which class of antibiotics is defined by this action:
-primarily bacteriostatic caused by sulfonamide antagonism to para-aminobenzoic acid. Once the bacteria multipication is slowed the body's immune system is able to rid the bacteria.
A

sulfonamides

361
Q

Which type of antibiotic is used to treat:

  • UTI caused by E. Coli
  • staphlyococcus aureus (including methicillin-resistant)
  • kelbsiella enterobacter
A

sulfonamides

362
Q

Which type of antibiotic should not be used in patients with G6PD?

A

Sulfonamides

363
Q

These medications are an example of what class of antibiotic?

  • celecoxib
  • glyburide
  • furosemide
  • acetazolamide
A

sulfonamides

364
Q
Silver sulfadiazine is topical and used to treat?
what class of antibiotic?
A
  • burns

- sulfonamides

365
Q

Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (bactrim) is what class of antibiotic?

A

sulfonamides

366
Q
Which class of antibiotics is defined by this action:
-prevent bacteria from using a substance that is necessary for the maintenance of the bacteria's outer wall
A

Penicillins

367
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • anthrax
  • septicemia
  • meningitis
  • intra-abdominal infections
  • gonorrhea
  • syphilis
  • pneumonia
  • cellulitis
  • otitis media
  • acute sinusitis
  • strep
A

penicillin

368
Q

What class of antibiotic are these medications:

  • Amoxicillin
  • Amoxicillin/clavulanate (augmentin)
  • Pen VK
A

penicillin

369
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:
-affect the bacterial cell wall, making it defective and unstable.
similar to the action of PCN
A

cephalosporins

370
Q

Which class of antibiotic is structurally and chemically related to PCN but will work on bacteria that has become resistant to PCN?

A

cephalosporins

371
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • streptococci
  • staphylococci
  • citrobacter
  • gonococci
  • shigella
  • clostridia
A

cephalosporins

372
Q

Cehphalexin is what generation of cephalosporins?

A

1st generation

373
Q

How many generations of cephalosporins are there?

A

5

374
Q

Concerning cephalosporins, progression from the 1st generation to later generations show an increase coverage of?

A

gram negative microorganisms

375
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:
-inhibit bacterial protein synthesis, which is necessary for reproduction
A

tetracyclines

376
Q

What class of antibiotic is used for:

  • acne
  • rickettsia
  • malaria
  • chlamydia trachomatis
A

tetracyclines

377
Q

Which tetracycline is used for the treatment of chlamydia?

A

doxycycline

378
Q

Which class of antibiotic should not be given to children under 9, as it may cause permanent discoloration of the teeth?

A

tetracyclines

379
Q

What are the 3 types of tetracycline medications?

A
  • doxycycline
  • tetracycline
  • minocycline
380
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:
-bind to cell membrane and cause changes in protein synthesis
A

macrolides

381
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • community acquired pneumonia
  • skin infections
  • otitis media
  • alternate to PCN for strep throat
  • mycoplasma pneumonia
  • chlamydia
  • H. pylori
A

macrolides

382
Q

Which macrolide is the 1st line therapy for chlamydia?

A

azithromycin

383
Q

What is the treatment for H. pylori?

A

-Clarithromycin in combination with amoxicillin and a PPI

384
Q

What class of antibiotics are these medications:

  • azithromycin
  • erythromycin
  • clarithromycin
  • teithromycin
A

macrolides

385
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action: 
-exert their bactericidal effect by interfering with an enzyme needed by bacteria for synthesis of DNA. This interference prevents cell reproduction, leading to death of bacteria
A

fluoroquinolones

386
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • lower respiratory infection (bronchitis)
  • atypical pneumonia
  • UTI
  • acute pyelonephritis
  • diverticulitus
  • STDs (not 1st line)
A

fluoroquinolones

387
Q

Which class of antibiotic has adverse reactions such as:

  • tendinitis
  • tendon rupture
  • peripheral neuropathy
A

fluoroquinolones

388
Q

Which class of antibiotic have these contraindications:

  • children younger than 18
  • history of seizures
  • history of heat arrhythmias
A

fluoroquinolones

389
Q

These medications are examples of what class of antibiotic:

  • ciprofloxacin
  • levofloxacin
A

fluoroquinolones

390
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:
-exert their bactericidal effect by blocking a step in a protein synthesis necessary for multiplication.  They disrupt the functional ability of the bacterial cell membrane, causing cell death.
A

aminoglycosides

391
Q

What class of antibiotic is used for:

  • bacterial menigitis in combo with PCN or ampicillin
  • complicated UTIs
  • usually used in a hospital setting
  • primarily gram negative use
A

aminoglycosides

392
Q

What are the adverse reactions of aminoglycosides?

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • ototoxicity
  • neurotoxicity
393
Q

Pre-existing hearing loss is a contraindication in what class of antibiotic?

A

aminoglycosides

394
Q

What class of antibiotic are these medications:

  • gentamycin
  • neomycin
A

aminoglycosides

395
Q
Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:
-inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to several of the penicillin binding proteins, which in turn inhibit the final step in the cell wall synthesis
A

carbapenems

396
Q

What are enzymes that confer resistance to most beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

Extended spectrum beta-lactamses (ESBL)

397
Q

What are: enzymes that open the beta-lactam ring, inactivating the antibiotic?

A

beta-lactmases

398
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • severe infections with drug resistant organisms
  • hospital acquired pneumonia
  • meningitis
  • prosthetic joint infection
  • necrotizing soft tissue infections
  • pyelonephritis
A

carbapenems

399
Q

Which class of antibiotic has adverse reactions such as:

  • anemia
  • seizure
  • renal failure
  • C. Diff
A

carbapenems

400
Q

These medications are examples of what class of antibiotics?

  • imipenem
  • meropenem
  • ertapenem
A

carbapenems

401
Q

What class of antibacterial drug inhibits protein synthesis and causes cell death; is used for anaerobic bacterial infections, gynecologic infections (bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis), intra-abdominal infections, skin infections, and antiprotozoal therapies?

A

amebicide, antiprotozial, and nitroimidazole

402
Q

These medications are examples of what class of antibiotic?

  • metroniadazole (flagyl)
  • tinidazole
  • nimorazole
  • dimetridazole
A

amebicide, antiprotozial, and nitroimidazole

403
Q

Which class of antibiotic is defined by this action:

  • disrupts protein synthesis and causes changes in teh cell wall surface, which decrease adherence of bacteria to host cells and increases intracellular killing of organisms
  • exerts an extended post-antibiotic effect against some strains
A

lincosamide

404
Q

Which class of antibiotic is used for:

  • MRSA
  • purulent cellulitis or abscess (peritonsilar abscess)
  • toxic shock syndrome
  • bite wounds
A

lincosamide

405
Q

These medications are examples of what class of antibiotic?

A
  • clindamycin

- lincomycin

406
Q

What class of drug is used for:

  • herpes
  • influenza A/B
  • chronic Hep c
  • HIV
A

anti virals

407
Q

These medications are examples of what class of drug?

  • acyclovir
  • vancyclovir
  • penciclovir
  • oseltamivir
A

anti viral

408
Q

What is a colorless plant that lacks chlorophyll?

A

fungus

409
Q

Infections from fungus are called?

A

mycotic infections

410
Q

What type of drug is used for:

  • tinea pedis
  • tinea cruris
  • tinea corporis
  • onychomycosis
A

antifungals

411
Q

The absorption of ketozonazole is impaired when the drug is taken with?

A
  • histamine antagonist

- antacids

412
Q

These medications are examples of what class of drug?
-clotrimazole
-tolnaftate
are they topical or systemic?

A
  • anti-fungal

- topical

413
Q
These medications are examples of what class of drug?
-ketoconazole
-fluconazole
-terbinafine
Are they topical or are they systemic?
A
  • anti-fungal

- systemic

414
Q

Which class of medication is defined by these uses:

  • various acute and painful musculoskeletal conditions
  • back pain
  • neck pain
  • lumbar muscle spasms
A

muscle relaxers

415
Q

What is the most common reaction of muscle relaxers?

A

drowsiness

416
Q

These medications are examples of what class of medication?

  • cyclobenzaprine
  • methocarbamol
  • metaxalone
  • diazepam
  • baclofen
A

muscle relaxers

417
Q

Which class of medication is described by this action:

  • these hormones are secreted from the adrenal cortex
  • the potent anti-inflammatory action makes these drugs useful in the treatment of many types of inflammatory and autoimmune disorders
A

corticosteriods

418
Q

What class of medications is used for:

  • rheumatic disorders
  • arthritis
  • bursitis
  • allergic reactions
  • COPD/ asthma exacerbation
  • SLE and other autoimmune disorders
A

corticosteriods

419
Q

Which class of medications may cause these adverse reactions with long term use?
signs and sx of cushing syndrome such as
-a buffalo hump
-moon face
-oily skin
-acne

A

corticosteriods

420
Q

These medications are examples of what type of drug class?

  • prednisone
  • hydrocortisone
  • triamcinolone
  • methylpresnisolone
  • dexamethasone
A

corticosteriods

421
Q

Which class of medication is defined by this action:

  • acts on intracranial blood vessels and sensory nerves of the trigeminal system
  • causes vasoconstriction and reduces neurogenic inflammation
A

anitmigraine

422
Q

These medications are examples of what type of drug?

  • rizatriptan
  • sumatriptan
A

antimigraine

423
Q
Which class of medication is defined by this action?
-inhibits sodium ion influx through nerve cells remembrance channels in parasites resulting in delayed repolarization and thus paralysis and death of the pest
A

scabicide

424
Q
This medication is an example of what class of drug?
-permethrin
A

scabicide

425
Q

What are the three actions of topical anti-infective class drugs

A
  • antibiotic
  • antifungal
  • antiviral
426
Q

These medications are an example of what type of anti-infective?

  • bacitracin
  • mupirocin
A

antibiotic

427
Q

These medications are an example of what type of anti-infective?

  • clotrimazole
  • ketoconazole
  • miconazole
A

anti-fungal

428
Q

These medications are an example of what type of anti-infective?

  • acyclovir
  • penciclovir
A

antivirals

429
Q

Which antiseptic affects a wide range of microorganisms, including both gram positive and gram negative?

A

chlorhexidine gluconate

430
Q

What is often preferred over iodine solution or tincture because it is less irritating to the skin?

A

povidone-iodine

431
Q

These medications are examples of what class of drug?

  • chlorhexidine gluconate
  • povidone-iodine
A

antiseptics/germicides

432
Q

What class of medication is defined by this action:

  • exert localized anti-inflammatory activity
  • reduce itching, redness, swelling
A

topical corticosteriods

433
Q

What class of medications is used for:

  • psoriasis
  • dermatitis
  • rashes
  • eczema
  • insect bite reactions
  • first/second degree burns
  • sunburns
A

topical corticosteriods

434
Q

These medications are examples of which type of drug

  • hyrdocortisone 1%
  • triamcinoline 0.1%
A

topical corticosteriods

435
Q
What class of medication is defined by this action:
-removes excess growth of the epidermis disorders such as warts
A

keratolytic

436
Q

What type of medication is used for:

  • removal of warts
  • calluses
  • corns
  • seborrheic keratoses
A

keratolytic

437
Q

What are the contraindications of keratolytic medications?

A
  • use on moles, birthmarks, warts with hair growth
  • use on genital or facial warts
  • mucous membranes
  • infected skin
438
Q

These medications are examples of what class of drug:

  • podofilox 0.5%
  • salicylic acid gel 17%
A

keratolytic